FIA Flashcards
(112 cards)
1
Q
What is the radius of the shelf area of this class C (circle A)?
A
10 miles
2
Q
What NIGHT flight training is required for an unrestricted PPL cert. with an airplane rating?
A
3 hours to include: 10 Takeoffs, 10 Landings, and 1 XC flight over 100NM
3
Q
To endorse a student pilot’s logbook for solo flight, an instructor is required to, in part, to have:
A
Given that student flight training in the type of a/c involved (no PIC time requirement in the type a/c)
4
Q
What instruments are supporting bank instruments when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?
A
Attitude Indicator and Turn Coordinator
5
Q
At what a/c position(s) would you receive OMNI indication X?
A
1 and 3
6
Q
Guidance for the development/conduct of the flight review required by 14 CFR section 61.56 is contained in:
A
FAA Advisory Circular 61-98
7
Q
The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it permits:
A
A relatively constant angle of ATTACK along its length when in cruising flight
8
Q
Weather Depiction Charts can help pilots to see:
A
- The overall critical weather minimums over a wide area (Depicts major fronts
- High/Low pressure systems
- Areas of IFR, MVFR and VFR weather
9
Q
The addition of a multi-engine class rating to an existing PPL or CPL with airplane single engine rating will require:
A
- A practical test
- A logbook endorsement
- NO SPECIFIED MINIMUM DUAL/SOLO MULTI TIME
10
Q
At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison to a low aspect ratio wing):
A
- DECREASED drag, especially at a higher AOA
Aspect Ratio = (Wingspan/Avg. Wing Chord)
11
Q
What is true relating to the factor of the stalling AOA?
A
The stalling AOA is INDEPENDENT of the speed of airflow over the wings
12
Q
The minimum vis for VFR flight in Class E increases from 3sm to 5sm beginning at an altitude of:
A
10,000’ MSL
13
Q
With respect to Day XC experience requirements, a PPL Applicant must have a minimum of ___ hours Dual XC and ___ hours Solo XC.
A
3 hours dual
5 hours solo
14
Q
A propeller rotating clockwise, as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the a/c to the ____ around the Vertical Axis, and ___ around the Longitudinal Axis.
A
- LEFT around Vertical
- RIGHT around Longitudinal
(TORQUE causes Left Longitudinal rotation)
15
Q
What condition causes Vmc to be the highest?
A
CG at the most AFT allowable position
16
Q
The line from C to B (upper line) on the wind triangle represents:
A
TC and GS
17
Q
Examples of all common endorsements can be found in the current issue of:
A
AC 61-65 Appendix 1
18
Q
At approx. what altitude AGL would you expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temp. is 33C and dewpoint is 15C?
A
7,200’ AGL
33-15 = 18/2.5 = 7.2
19
Q
The quality of an a/c that permits it to be OPERATED EASILY and to withstand stresses imposed on it is _____
A
Maneuverability
20
Q
True or False: With regard to a Cold Front Occlusion, the air ahead of the Warm Front is WARMER than the air behind the overtaking Cold Front.
A
TRUE
21
Q
A Flashing Red light directed at you while on downwind from the tower means:
A
Airport unsafe, do not land!
22
Q
When rolling OUT of a steep banked turn, what causes the lowered aileron to create MORE DRAG than when rolling INTO the turn?
A
The wing’s AOA is greater as the rollout is started
23
Q
To be eligible for a CPL, an applicant who does NOT meet requirements for FAR 61.73 must hold at least a valid _____ cert.
A
Private Pilot’s cert
24
Q
WHO is authorized to endorse a student pilot logbook authorizing flight into Class B airspace?
A
ONLY the flight instructor who CONDUCTED THE TRAINING
25
As a CFI you know that any instrument training required for a pilot cert. must be given by:
The holder of a a flight instructor cert. WITH an instrument rating (not necessarily a CFII)
26
Which instrument is PRIMARY for pitch control in straight-and-level flight?
Altimeter
27
The line from A to point B on the wind triangle (bottom angled line) represents:
True Heading and Airspeed
28
If inadequate (not enough) right rudder is used during a climbing right turn, what may occur if the a/c stalls?
A spin to the LEFT (due to torque and p-factor)
29
As airspeed DECREASES in level flight, total drag of an a/c becomes GREATER than the total drag produced at the max L/D speed because Induced Drag ______
INCREASES
30
When using a VOT to check accuracy of a VOR receiver, and the CDI centered, what should the OBS indicate if no error exists?
180 TO, 360 FROM
31
If an a/c is in the region of reverse command during a landing approach, you should ____ AOA and ____ power.
Decrease AOA
| Increase Power
32
During a steady climb, the angle of climb depends on ____ ____
Excess Thrust
33
Prop efficiency is the:
Ratio of THP to BHP
34
How long may an a/c be operated after the ELT has been initially removed for maintenance?
90 days
35
The operator of an a/c that has been involved in an ACCIDENT is required to FILE A REPORT within ___ days?
10
36
If an accelerated stall occurs in a steep turn, how will the a/c respond?
In coordinated flight, both wings will stall at the same time.
37
True or False: If the CG is at the FWD position, IAS will be LESS than it would be with the CG in the most AFT position.
TRUE
38
What does the lower limit of the WHITE ARC on an airspeed indicator represent?
Power-off stall speed in a LANDING configuration
39
Flight review requirements are contained in Part __
14 CFR part 61
40
An a/c leaving ground effect will experience:
A decrease in stability, and a nose-up change in moments!
41
To operate in Class B on a solo flight, a Student must have a logbook endorsement showing they have:
Received ground AND flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized. (not just by ANY instructor)
42
To determine freezing levels or probable icing aloft, you should refer to what weather product(s)
an AIRMET or SIGMET
43
Between Slotted and Fowler flaps, which gives a higher coefficient of lift?
Fowler!
44
At what a/c position would you receive OMNI indication V?
2 only
45
True or False: Deviation (of a compass) varies for different headings of the same a/c.
TRUE
46
If the gyroscopic heading indicator is inop, the PRIMARY bank instrument for straight-and-level flight is the:
Magnetic compass
47
A moist, cold airmass that is being warmed from below is characterized in part by:
Showers and Thunderstorms
48
In a 30 deg bank turn, what effect would a REDUCTION in airspeed have on the rate and radius of the turn?
- Rate would INCREASE
| - Radius would DECREASE
49
The AOA of a wing directly controls the distribution of:
Positive and Negative PRESSURE acting on the wing!
50
For a PPL with ASEL ratings (who has never flown tailwheel) what is applicable before they can act as PIC of a tailwheel a/c?
- The pilot must have received instruction (no specific time requirement)
- The pilot must have a logbook endorsement
51
Advection fog is formed as a result of:
Moist air moving over a COLDER surface
52
When are an ELT's batteries required to be replaced or recharged?
After 1 hr. of cumulative use
| INSPECTION is 24 cal months
53
What would likely result in a slipping turn?
Increasing the rate of turn w/o using RUDDER
54
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right FROM THE SOUTH?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a FASTER rate than is actually occurring. (UNOS)
55
An a/c would have a tendency to nose up and enter a stalled condition when the center of pressure is ___ of the center of gravity.
Forward of the CG
56
During flight with 0 AOA, the pressure along the upper surface of the wing would be ___ than the atmospheric pressure.
- LESS than atmospheric pressure
| this is true for the lower surface of the wing as well, because the air is being accelerated
57
What equipment is required for powered a/c during VFR night flight?
Magnetic direction indicator
58
The purpose of an elevator trim stall is to demonstrate:
Applying full power for a go-around, and not maintaining positive control!
59
NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of what incident?
Flight control system malfunction
60
Pilots who initiate a chandelle with a bank that is too steep will most likely:
Fail to gain maximum PERFORMANCE
61
To act as PIC of an a/c with retractable gear, flaps, and controllable props, a person holding a PPL or CPL is required to:
Received ground and flight training in such an a/c, and obtain a logbook endorsement of proficiency! (no specifics)
62
Before introducing your student to the Private Pilot Practical Test, ensure they have received training on:
All maneuvers in the Private Pilot PTS!
63
While holding a constant angle of bank in a coordinated turn, displacement of the turn needle will ___ as airspeed decreases
INCREASE as airspeed DECREASES
64
In this Class C depiction, what is the distance from shelf area B to shelf area A? (B-A)
5 NM to 10 NM
65
When operating under VFR above 3,000' AGL, cruising altitudes to be maintained are based upon the:
MAGNETIC course being flown
66
What in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with Warm Fronts?
Precipitation-Induced Fog
67
A CFI applies for an ADDITIONAL RATING on that cert. must have a minimum of ___ hours as PIC in the category and class of a/c appropriate to the rating sought?
15 hours
68
At what point in a Lazy 8 is it most likely necessary to exert opposing (crossed) aileron and rudder pressures?
In the climbing RIGHT turn
69
If an accelerated stall occurs in a steep turn, how will the a/c respond?
Slip: High wing stalls first
Skid: Low wing stalls first
Coordinated: Both wings stall at the same time
70
A surface inversion can:
Produce POOR visibility
71
A Recreational Pilot with less than 400 hours may NOT act as PIC unless the pilot has logged PIC time in the last ___ days
180 DAYS
72
To act as PIC of an a/c with more than 200HP, a person holding a PPL or CPL is required to:
Receive ground and flight training in an a/c that has more than 200HP (no test, no specifics)
73
What is the normal radius of the outer area shelf of class C airspace?
20NM
74
True or False: After a full stall, the wing that drops continues in a stalled condition, while the rising wing regains and continues to produce some lift, causing the rotation.
TRUE
75
Your student who is preparing for the PPL received 3.5 hours of XC training. Is your student eligible to take the practical test?
Yes (only need 3 hrs XC dual training)
76
In a Weather Depiction Chart, weather conditions in an un-shaded area that is outlined by a smooth line indicates:
Ceiling between 1,000-3,000' and/or vis. between 3-5 miles. (MVFR)
77
What should occur at the 90 degree point of a Lazy 8?
Steepest Bank
Minimum Airspeed
Maximum Altitude
Level Pitch Attitude
78
Which prefllight action is required before EVERY flight?
RUNWAY LENGTHS at airport of intended use
79
What instruments are considered Primary and Supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a level standard rate turn?
Primary: Attitude Indicator
Supporting: Turn Coordinator
80
What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?
Delineates runways with DISPLACES THRESHOLD form a blast pad, stopway or taxiways the precedes the runway
81
When fly BENEATH the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is:
200 knots
82
The most rapid accumulation of clear ice on an a/c in flight may occur with temperatures between 0 C to -15 C in ____ clouds
Cumuliform clouds!
83
If all increments for a practical test for a new cert/rating are not completed on one date, all remaining increments must be satisfactorily complete no later than:
2 calendar months after the month the test was begun
84
The position of Fronts and Pressure Systems (as of chart TIMES) is best determined by referring to what weather product?
Surface Analysis Chart
85
If the static pressure tubes are broken inside a pressurized cabin during high-altitude flight, that altimeter would probably indicate:
Lower than actual flight altitude
86
True or False: Induced Drag VARIES INVERSELY as the square of the airspeed
TRUE - The lower the airspeed, the greater the induced drag (due to higher AOA)
87
If you increase altitude but do not lean the mixture, the density of the air entering the carb will ____ and the amount of fuel will _____
- Density of air will DECREASE
| - Amount of fuel REMAINS CONSTANT
88
When operating a multi-engine a/c at Vmc, the pilot should expect performance sufficient enough to maintain _____
Heading
89
Instrument and installation errors are most prominent at ___ airpseeds
LOW airspeeds
90
What is the radius of surface area (circle C) in this depiction of Class C airspace?
5 miles
91
Your student has received 3 hours of night flight training including 5 takeoff and landings. Are they eligible to take the PPL test?
No, the need 10 t/o's and landings at night.
92
The low temp that causes carb ice in an engine equipped with a float-type carb is normally the result of the:
VAPORIZATION of fuel and EXPANSION of air in the carb
93
A PPL applicant must have a minimum of __ hours solo.
5 hours solo (incorrect - you actually need 10 total, 5 of which needs to be XC)
94
The first indication of carb ice in an a/c with constant speed props would most likely be a:
Decrease in MANIFOLD PRESSURE
95
What would be correct about starting the rollout from a turn using a magnetic compass? Start the rollout:
After the compass indication passes south by a number of degrees approx. equal to the LATITUDE minus the normal rollout lead
96
During a level turn, increasing airspeed while maintaining a constant load factor would result in an increase in:
RADIUS of turn!
97
What subjects must be covered on the presolo knowledge test?
- Applicable regulations
- Flight characteristics
- Operational limitations of the a/c
98
What may occur if the initial bank is too shallow when performing a chandelle?
Stalling the a/c before reaching the 180 deg point
99
Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the a/c's:
AERODYNAMIC BALANCE and CONTROLABILITY
100
True or False: Carb ice would most likely form when the air temperature is between -7C and 21C, and visible moisture of high humidity is present.
TRUE
101
What is the correct V-Speed for minimum steady flight at which an a/c is controllable?
Vs
102
A wing with a very HIGH Aspect Ratio will have a ___ stall speed
LOW stall speed
103
(When descending down for landing) If the same AOA is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will ____ and Induced Drag will ____.
- Lift will INCREASE
| - Induced Drag will DECREASE
104
When performing a Lazy 8, when should the a/c be at minimum airspeed?
90 deg point
105
Due to the effects of wake turbulence, what minimum separation must ATC provide for a small a/c landing behind a heavy jet?
6 miles
106
What does the lower limit of the GREEN ARC on the airspeed indicator represent?
Stalling speed in a SPECIFIED configuration
107
If an a/c is involved in an ACCIDENT which results in substantial damage, you must NOTIFY THE NTSB _____
Immediately
108
When performing a chandelle, where should MAX PITCH occur?
90 deg point!
109
Pitot-Static system errors are generally the greatest in which range of airspeed?
LOW airspeeds!
110
A/c characteristics that contribute to spiral instability include ____ static directional stability, and ____ dihedral effect.
- STRONG static stability
| - WEAK dihedral
111
During level side-by-side airplane seats, which is characteristic of student pilot performance?
Diving during LEFT turns because the nose appears to rise during entry (due to parallax)
112
Off course correction equation:
Degrees to Parallel/60 = Dist. Off/Dist. FLOWN
