Final Flashcards

(110 cards)

1
Q

Chronic transmural inflammatory disease of the distal ileum & colon. Rectum is not involved. Pt has perianal fistulas or abscesses & non-bloody diarrhea. Smoking increases the likelihood

A

Crohn’s Disease AKA Regional Enteritis; Granulomatous Ileitis, Ileocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Discontinuous lesions assoc. w/ Crohn’s Disease are AKA?

A

Skip lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chronic inflammatory disease arising in the mucosa & submucosa of the colon. Smoking decreases risk.

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the M/C clinical presentation of Ulcerative colitis?

A

Bloody Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diverticula M/C’ly occur in what part of the colon?

A

Sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Diverticula that contain all layers of the affected area are called what?

A

True diverticula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

False or pseudo diverticula have mucosa only going through what layer?

A

Muscular layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Multiple diverticula in the colon is called what? Typically asymptomatic but can become inflamed & bleed

A

Diverticulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What individuals are typically affected by diverticulosis?

A

> 40 yr old. Individuals w/ a low fiber diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inflammation of the diverticula is called what?

A

Diverticulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What % of diverticula that become inflamed resolve on their own?

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is a congenital anomaly in distal ileum w/i 100cm (3ft) of ileocecal valve that occurs M/C’ly in older children. Represents persistent prox. end of yolk sac, sometimes becomes attached to inside of umbilicus. M/C diverticulum in the small bowel

A

Meckel’s Diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute longitudinal tear or ulcer in squamous epithelium of anal canal from large stool passage w/ secondary infection

A

Anal fissures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anorectal abscesses are M/C’ly caused by what?

A

Bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tube-like tract w/ one opening in the anal canal & the other usually in the perianal skin. Assoc. w/ Crohns

A

Anorectal Fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Episodic rectal pain lasting <20mins d/t spasm of levator ani muscle

A

Levator Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute abscess or chronic drainage sinus in the sacrococcygeal region (cyst formation under skin)

A

Pilonidal Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inflammation of anus & the distal rectal mucosa from infection (STD or bacterial), IBD or radiation

A

Proctitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the M/C etiology of proctitis?

A

STD’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Proctitis may develop d/t long term use of what type of medication?

A

Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Painless protrusion of rectum thru the anus

A

Rectal prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the M/C benign tumor of the esophagus?

A

Leiomyoma (excellent prognosis for recovery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 2 M/C malignant tumors of the esophagus?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (M/C)

Adenocarcinoma (2nd M/C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are features of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Caused by alcohol/tobacco
M/C occurrence in Asia & South Africa
M/C in African Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are features of adenocarcinoma?
Caused by smoking (but not alcohol) Seen in distal esophagus (Barrett's) 50% Caucasian esophageal cancers M/C'ly affects males
26
What is the 2nd M/C cancer worldwide?
Stomach cancer
27
What bacteria plays a significant role in stomach cancer?
H. pylori
28
Type of cancer that makes up 95% of all stomach cancers?
Gastric adenocarcinoma
29
What sign is not commonly assoc. w/ small bowel tumors?
Polyps
30
Polyps of the colon & the rectum are M/C'ly seen in what part?
Sigmoid area
31
Any mass of tissue that arises from the bowel wall & protrudes into the lumen is known as what?
Polyps
32
Primary adenocarcinoma of the pancreas M/C'ly occurs in what part of the pancreas?
Pancreatic head (80%)
33
What two things ARE NOT risk factors for primary adenocarcinoma in the pancreas?
Alcohol | Caffeine
34
Gastrin-producing tumor located in pancreas or duodenal walls. Gastric acid hyper-secretion leads to peptic ulcer
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome AKA Z-E syndrome, Gastrinoma
35
What is the most metabolically complex organ in the body?
Liver
36
Free fluid in the peritoneal cavity M/C'ly caused by portal hypertension from liver disease is called what?
Ascites
37
Yellowing of the skin, sclera & other tissues caused by excess circulating hyperbilirubinemia
Jaundice
38
What are s/s assoc. w/ jaundice?
Nausea Vomiting Dark urine
39
Conjugation (4th step) during bilirubin metabolism allows what to happen to bilirubin?
Becomes water soluble and can pass through kidneys
40
Syndrome that causes impaired excretion of bilirubin. Liver itself is healthy but dark
Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
41
Rare & severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Most pts die before 1 yr of age
Crigler-Najjar Syndrome
42
What is consider normal pressure in the portal system?
5-10mmHg
43
What are the 2 M/C etiologies for portal hypertension?
Liver cirrhosis | Hepatic Vascular Abnormalities (increased resistance to blood flow from ds w/i liver)
44
Alcohol causes liver injury that can progress to what 3 pathologies?
Fatty liver Alcoholic hepatitis Cirrhosis of liver
45
What are 3 major factors assoc. w/ alcoholic liver disease?
Quantity of alcohol consumed Duration of alcohol abuse Nutritional status of pt
46
Where is alcohol absorbed in the GI tract?
Readily absorbed from stomach & sm. intestine. Can't be stored, goes straight to liver
47
What is the difference in prognosis b/w fatty liver/alcohol hepatitis vs fibrosis/cirrhosis?
Fatty liver/alcohol hepatitis is reversible | Fibrosis/cirrhosis is not reversible
48
This liver ds is a leading cause of death worldwide
Liver cirrhosis
49
Type of hepatitis that is spread primarily by fecal-oral contact & may occur in areas of poor hygiene (daycare)
Hep A AKA Infectious Hepatitis
50
Type of hepatitis that is transmitted via blood or blood products, or bodily fluids, & can be spread via sexual intercourse
Hep B AKA Serum hepatitis
51
Type of hepatitis that requires the presence of Hep B
Hep D AKA Delta agent
52
Type of hepatitis that is transmitted via fecal-oral route d/t contaminated water & found in developing countries. Much more virulent in pregnant women
Hep E AKA Epidemic hepatitis (was part of non-A & non-B hepatitis)
53
Type of hepatitis that is the M/C blood-borne infection & leading cause of chronic liver disease. Seen in drug users, not usually sexually transmitted
Hep C (was part of non-A, non-B hepatitis)
54
Type of hepatitis that is related to hep C virus
Hep G
55
If you seen a pt w/ viral hepatitis, you must do what?
Report to local health department
56
A person that was previously healthy/stable that suddenly in a short time deteriorates is a red flag for what pathology?
Hepatocellular Carcinoma (Hepatoma) (primary liver cancer)
57
What sign is assoc. w/ gallbladder & bile duct disorders?
Murphy's Sign
58
Presence of one or more calculi in the gallbladder. Can be either asymptomatic (85%) or produce biliary colic pain (RUQ)
Cholelithiasis AKA Gallstones
59
What are the 2 types of gallstones (don't think soft tissue rad)?
Cholesterol stones - 85% of gallstones in western world | Pigment stones - 15% of gallstones
60
Inflammation of the gallbladder (acute or chronic)
Cholecysitis
61
M/C complication of cholelithiasis. Develops over hours from cystic duct obstruction by gallstones
Acute cholecystitis
62
Formation or presence of stones in the bile ducts, usually pigment stones.
Choledocholithiasis
63
Bacterial infection of the bile ducts (E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter)
Cholangitis
64
Symptoms assoc. w/ Cholangitis are called Charcot's triad which is composed of what?
Abdominal pain Jaundice Fever or chills
65
Painful or uncomfortable urination (common in UTI's)
Dysuria
66
Urine output over 3 liters per day (2500ml)
Polyuria
67
Bed-wetting. Involuntary passage of urine while sleeping
Enuresis (nocturnal enuresis)
68
The male reproductive system is controlled by a feedback circuit involving what endocrine organs
Hypothalamus Pituitary Testes
69
Male sexual dysfunction is when drugs or physical & psychological disorders affect any one of what 4 sexual functions?
Libido Erection Ejaculation Orgasm
70
Type of incontinence where urgent need to void just before uncontrolled urine leakage occurs
Urge Incontinence (M/C in elderly)
71
Type of incontinence that occurs w/ abrupt increase in intra-abdominal pressure i.e. coughing, laughing, sneezing, etc
Stress incontinence
72
Type of incontinence w/ dribbling of urine from overly full bladder
Overflow incontinence
73
Type of incontinence w/ loss of urine d/t cognitive or physical impairments (stroke/dementia)
Functional Incontinence
74
Type of neurogenic bladder that occurs from peripheral nerve or spinal cord damage at S2-S4
Flaccid neurogenic bladder
75
Type of neurogenic bladder that occurs from brain or spinal cord damage above T12 (Stroke)
Spastic neurogenic bladder
76
Pain along the T-11/T-12 dermatome is a symptom of what urinary tract problem?
Obstructive Uropathy AKA Urinary Tract OBstruction
77
95% of UTI's occur when bacteria do what?
Ascend from urethra to bladder & then move upward to kidney
78
What is the M/C bacteria to cause UTI?
E. coli
79
Bacterial infection of the urethra. S/s include dysuria & urethral discharge (pus)
Urethritis
80
Bacterial infection of the bladder. S/s include sudden onset, increased freq., painful urination, nocturia, low grade fever, abdominal symptoms
Cystitis
81
Hereditary disorder of renal cyst formation causing gradual enlargement of both kidneys & can lead to renal failure. May also have hepatic/pancreatic/intestinal cysts, colonic diverticula, or hernias
Cystic kidney disease (Polycystic kidney disease)
82
Rapid onset, rapid decrease in renal function over days
Acute renal failure
83
Accumulation of nitrogenous products in blood. Assoc. w/ acute renal failure
Azotemia
84
Decrease in renal function that develops slowly over months to years
Chronic Renal failure
85
What is the difference b/w Nephritic Syndrome & Nephrotic Syndrome?
Nephritic Syndrome presents w/ hematuria | Nephrotic Syndrome presents w/ proteinuria
86
Orchitis (inflammation of the testes) is M/C'ly caused by what?
Mumps
87
Fibrosis of the corpus cavernosus sheaths of the penis. Painful erection & deviated, usually to involved side
Peyronie's Disease
88
Inability to retract the foreskin of the penis
Phimosis
89
Entrapment of the penis foreskin in the retracted position
Paraphimosis
90
Painful, persistent, abnormal erection unaccompanied by sexual desire or excitation
Priapism
91
Excessive accumulation of sterile fluid w/i tunica vaginalis
Hydrocele
92
Scrotal swelling w/ non-sterile fluid (pus). D/t complication of severe epididymitis
Pyocele
93
Accumulation of blood w/i tunica vaginalis secondary to trauma
Hematocele
94
Spermatic cyst similar to hydrocele. Painless at upper poles of testes
Spermatocele
95
Collection of large veins, usually in L scrotum. Bag of worms appearance that goes away when laying down
Varicocele
96
Testicular torsion M/C'ly occurs in which teste?
L teste
97
Digital rectal exam can be used to determine what about the prostate?
Size Symmetry Texture Nodules
98
What is the M/C risk factor for bladder cancer?
Smoking
99
What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor has spread to the vena cava or renal vein?
Stage IIIA
100
What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor is confined to a renal capsule?
Stage I
101
What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor has invaded adjacent organs & has distant metastases?
Stage IV
102
What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor is not extending beyond Gerota's fascia membrane around kidney/adrenal/fat?
Stage II
103
What stage of renal cancer is when the tumor has spread to the regional lymph nodes?
Stage IIIB
104
What is the M/C type of penile cancer & who is affected most?
Squamous cell carinoma | Usually occur in elderly uncircumcised men w/ poor local hygiene
105
What is penile cancer caused by?
HPV Bowen's Disease Erythroplaia of Queyrat
106
What is the M/C non-dermatologic cancer in men over the age of 50? M/C in african americans
Prostate cancer
107
Over what age are most prostate cancers found?
Over 65 w/ median age of 72 (75%)
108
How is tx for prostate determined?
Depends on age of pt & extent of the tumor. <70yr old = radical prostectomy
109
What is the M/C solid cancer in males aged 15-35?
testicular cancer
110
What is the M/C type of urethral cancer?
Squamous cell