final Flashcards
(198 cards)
1
Q
the most powerful abductor of the femur at the hip joint is?
A
Gluteus medius
2
Q
a tendon is composed of?
A
all three layers extend past the muscle belly to form the tendon
3
Q
the endomysium is
A
connective tissue fascia surrounding individual fibers
4
Q
skeletal muscle fibers have many nuclei because?
A
the fibers formed from the fusion of many smaller cells during the embryonic development
5
Q
the function of calcium ions in skeletal muscle contraction is to
A
bind and remove the troponin/tropomysin covers on the actin molecules so that the myosin heads can attach to the binding areas
6
Q
after death the sarcoplasmic reticulum will leak ? causing temporary muscle contraction or rigor mortis
A
calcium
7
Q
the role of ACH in skeletal muscle is to?
A
bind to specific receptors on the sarcolemma to open channels thus causing an action potential to spread across the muscle fiber
8
Q
the effect of ACH on skeletal muscle fibers ends only when?
A
it is broken down by ACHe
9
Q
the muscle protein whose function is related to it golf club like shape is?
A
myosin
10
Q
neuroglia in the CNS the produce the myelin sheath are the?
A
oligodendrocytes
11
Q
the faster type of propagation seen in myelinated axons is?
A
saltatory conductiom
12
Q
the sire of communication between to neurons is called
A
synapse
13
Q
the neve that passes through the carpal tunnel is?
A
median
14
Q
the lever system in which the effort is very close to the fulcrum would give us a mechanical?
A
disadvantage
15
Q
the deltoid performs which of the following actions?
A
abduction of the arm
16
Q
the role of the troponin/tropomysin complex in skeletal muscle is to?
A
block myosin binding sites on actin during periods of rest
17
Q
the neurotransmitter molecule released at the neuromuscular junction is known as?
A
ACH
18
Q
a damaged neuron in the CNS will regenerate and repair itself only if?
A
None…..CNS neurons generally do not regenerate
19
Q
the substance that is released from the synaptic end bulbs that allows presynaptic neuron to communicate chemically with the postsynaptic structure is called?
A
neurotransmitter
20
Q
the autonomic nervous system is divided into?
A
sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
21
Q
the branch of the nervous system that would cause blood vessel dilation in the skeletal muscles along with dilation of the pupils and increased heart rate would be the?
A
sympathetic N.S.
22
Q
the blood brain barrier is formed from the neurological cells called? as they wrap their axons around capillaries in the brain…
A
astrocytes
23
Q
the nodes on ranvier are?
A
gaps in myelin sheath
24
Q
the traveling of action potential down the axon due to positive feedback response of the NA channels opening along the axon is called?
A
propagation
25
during the depolarization phase of an action potential which of the following is the primary activity?
NA ions are flowing into the cell
26
during the repolarization phase of an action potential which of the following is the primary activity
K ions are flowing out of the cell
27
white brain matter is primarily composed of?
myelinated axons
28
which of the following would allow a greater range of motion around a joint?
having the insertion point of the muscle to be very close to the joint.
29
what muscle provides the rippled abs look
rectus abdominus
30
all are part of the rotator cuff except...
pectoralis major
31
the origin of the muscle refers to the
attachment to stationary bone
32
which means shortest muscle
brevis
33
in a 3rd class lever system the arrangemtn of the systems components is such that the?
effort is between the fulcrum and the resistance
34
the superior and inferior rectus muscles are prime movers for the
eyeball movements
35
which of the following abd muscles is the deepest
transverse abdominus
36
which of the following acts as an antagonist to the deltoid
pectoralis major
37
which of the following best escribes why botox injections are currently used to treat wrinkles and muscle spasms
the toxin paralyzes the muscles by blocking ach that is released rom the synaptic end bulbs
38
moves a bone closer to midline
adductor
39
parallel to the midline
rectus
40
increases the angle of the bone
extensor
41
turn palm superiorly
supinator
42
four origins to a muscle
quad
43
saw toothed muscle
serratus
44
huge muscle
vastus
45
triangular muscle
deltoid
46
largest muscle
maximus
47
shortest muscle
brevis
48
a lever system where a fulcrum is between the effort and the resistance would be a
1st class lever
49
normal inhalations and exhalations are due to the contraction and relaxation of which of the following muscles.
diaphragm
50
chest compressions can be the cause of the ____breaking off of the sternum
xiphoid process
51
if the c1 (atlas) was fused to the c2(axis) and no movement occurred between those 2 vertebra only, which of the following would be true to the motions available in the neck of the individual
the patient would not be able to rotate his head from side to side as an indication NO
52
main function of the appendicular skeleton is
facilitate movement
53
which of the following would not be true as related to the joint capsule
if a patient is immobile for long periods of time the synovial capsule becomes overly filled with synovial fluid crowding the joint structures
54
a child is born with one primary curve. when the child begins to stand up and walk which of the following secondary curves would be developed
lumbar
55
a person who has an abnormally large thoracic curve is often called hunchback. this is actually a form of
kyphosis
56
the hyoid bone articulates posteriorly with which bones?
None
57
if you are looking for the meatus in a bone you should look for
a tube like passage way or canal
58
the zyomatic process is a projection off of what bone
temporal
59
the ___suture unites the parietal bones and the occipital bones
lamboid
60
the suture that passes through the optic foramen is the
cranial nerve II (optic)
61
which of the following shows the correct number of vertebra for each section of the vertebral column
7 12 5
62
the pituitary gland is located in the
sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
63
the superior articular facets of the atlas articulate with the
occipital condyles of the skull
64
all of the following are part of the axial skeleton except for the
scapula
65
a child comes into the er for a broken arm. upon looking at the x-rays you and your staff notice several other breaks. One nurse wants to call CPS but you tell the they should check for a disorder called___ first
osteogenesis imperfecta
66
congenital defect in which the vertebral lamina fails to unite during the fetal development causing the nervous tissue to be unprotected or even exposed after birth
spina bifida
67
there are a total of ___bones is axial skelton
80
68
the coronoid and olecranon fossa are depressios found on which one of the following bones
humerous
69
the tibia and fibula both articulate distally with which one of the following tarsal bones
talus
70
the proximal end of the radius articulates specifically with the ___
capitulum
71
the carpal bone that is located between the schaphoid and the triquetrum bones is the
lunate
72
most of the carpal and tarsal bones are classified as
short bones
73
the prominence that can be felt on the medial surface of the ankle is part of the
tibia
74
the proximal end of the femur articulates specifically with
acetabulum
75
all of the following are in the proximal row of the carpal bones except
hamate
76
which fossa would be found on the anterior side of the scapula
subscapular fossa
77
the greater and lesser trochanters are projections found on which f the following bones
femur
78
there are a total of ____bones in one hand
27
79
if an elderly woman breaks her hip, the fx is most likely to be in the
neck of the femur
80
the proximal end of the fibula articulates specifically with the
lateral condyle of the tibia
81
a patient complains of heel pain and thinks they may have heel spurs. which of the following statements below would be a true statement you make to the patient
the plantar fascia can stay overly tightened for so long that the constant pressure on the calcaneus can cause the bone to remodel itself forming the spur
82
the portion of the coxal bones that touch the chair first after you sit is
ischial tuberosities
83
when your palms are lying flat on the table your forearms are
pronated
84
which of the following is an example of a symphysis joint
interosseous membranes
85
a syndesmosis joint would functionally be classified as
ampiarthrosis
86
all synovial joints would be classified functionally as
diarthrosis
87
the outer layer of a joint capsule that does not secrete synovial fluid and id composed of avascular white fibrous tissue is called
stratum fibrosum
88
the replacement of a joint through surgical means is known as
arthroplasty
89
which type of joint is not a fibrous joint?
synchondrosis
90
a synchondrosis joint would be found in which of the following locations
at the epiphyseal plates of long bones
91
the proximal radioulnar joint that allows for pronation and supination would be a type of
pivot joint
92
flexion extension abduction and adduction are all possible at the metacarpophalangeal joints of digits 2 to 5 because these are all types of
condyloid joints
93
which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint
glenohumeral joint
94
the greatest range of motion occurs at
ball and socket joints
95
spreading the legs apart as in doing jumping jacks is an example of ___at the hip joint
abduction
96
a patient has a joint disorder you suspect is arthritis. The patient reports that the pain is worse in the morning but gets better as the day goes on. There is no report of swelling in the joints. this type of arthritis this patient has is most likely
osteoarthritis
97
which 2 movements of the lower extremities would be necessary in order to sit and cross your legs
flexion and external rotation of the hip joint
98
in the endochondral bone formation the original pattern for the bone is made of
hyaline cartilage
99
the region that we consider the shaft of a long bone is referred to as the
diaphysis
100
osteons are the basic individual units that form the structure of
compact bone
101
the tiny canals connecting the osteocytes with the central canal of an osteon are called
canaliculi
102
the periosteum is the
connective and epithelial layer that covers the outside of the bone
103
growth in bone length occurs
at the epiphyseal plate in the metaphysis
104
if all spongy bones were accidently developed as compact bone during fetal development which of the following would be true
all
105
a bedridden person loses bone mass because of
a lack of sufficient mechanical stress to the bones
106
which of the following lists the levels of organization of the human body from the most complex to least complex
organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, chemical
107
the only substance on earth that is considered purely neutral on the ph scale is___because____
pure water/there are an equal amount of H and OH molecules when pure water dissociates
107
the only substance on earth that is considered purely neutral on the ph scale is___because____
pure water/there are an equal amount of H and OH molecules when pure water dissociates
108
identify which one of the following statements about carbs is true
carbs usually contain carbon hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio
109
which of the following statements best describes how the phospholipid molecules are arranged within the lipid bilayer of our cell memebranes
the heads are orientated toward ICF and ECF because they are hydrophilic
110
which of the following is an example of a positive feedback system
a neuron is stimulated thus opening the membrane channels on the axon to allow NA ions to move into the cell. This causes more membrane channels to open along the axon thus allowing more NA ions to move into the cell
111
the large macromolecules in our bodies are usually held together by large____bonds because they are stronger bonds than the other types
covalent
112
what can you tell about the following nucleotide sequence Adenine-uracil-guanine
it comes from a section of RNA
113
a patients iv saline solution was accidently replaced with pure sterile water. What would you see written in this patients autopsy report
the patients red bolod cells and most brain cells were filled with water, swelled, and burst
114
blood is slightly alkaline. this means that blood contains a slightly higher number of dissolved____ions than pure water does
OH
115
the end phase of mitosis where the cytoplasm physically splits and two new daughter called are formed is known as
cytokinesis
116
the plane that divides a structure into equal left and right halves is the
midsagittal
117
the process that our bodies use to continually monitor recognize and correct imbalances in our internal environment to maintain a level of homeostasis is
negative feedback response
118
ATP stands for____and is produced in the ___of our cells
Adenosine phosphate-mitochondria
119
as you read through the cart prior to bathing a patient you notice that the patient has been complaining of severe pain in the right acromial region. You should be very careful when handling this patients
right shoulder
120
the crural region is directionally ___to the tarsal region
proximal
121
potassium chloride os classified as ____ because it does not release excess hydrogen or hydroxide ions when dissolved in water
NA
122
the phase of the cell cycle in which the DNA is replicated before cell division occurs is
s
123
which of the following substances is composed of protein
enzymes
124
a person comes in to the docotr coplaining of ongoing pain after having severe cramps in his calf muscles at night. In your report you will wirte patient complains of pain in the ____ region
sural
125
the process in which the solvent water moves down the concentration gradient from high to low is called
osmosis
126
cells need to move NA ions from the cytoplasm out to the blood. the concentration of NA IN THE BLOOD IS 20% HIGHER THAN IN THE CYTOPLASM. WHAT PROCESS WILL THE CELL MEMBRANES BE REQUIRED TO USE IN ORDER FOR THE na TO BE MOVED INTO THE BLOOD AGAINST THAY CONCENTRATION GRADIENT
ACTIVE TRANSPORT
127
THE PHASE MITOSIS IN WHICH THE CENTROMERES SPLIT AND CHROMATIDS ARE PULLED APART BY THE SPINDLE FIBERS AND BEGIN MOVING TO OPPOSITE POLES OF THE CELL IS CALLED
ANAPHASE
128
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REPRESENTS THE CORRECT BASE PAIRING BETWEEN THE NITROGENOUS BASES FOUND IN DNA MOLECULES.
ADENINE TO THYMINE, CYTOSINE TO GUANINE
129
CHROMATIN WILL COIL ITSELF UP AROUND HISTONE PROTEINS TO FORM THICKER VISIBLE CHROMOSOMES DURING WHICH EARLY PREPARATION PHASE OF MITOSIS
PROPHASE
130
CELL MEMBRANES HELP TO PROTECT THE CELL BY ONLY ALLOWING CERTAIN SUBSTANCES TO CROSS THE CELL MEMBRANE WHILE KEEPING OTHER SUBSTANCES OUT. THIS IMPORTANT PROPERTY OF THE CELL MEMBRANE IS CALLED
SELECTIVE PERMEABILITY
131
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CORRECTLY LISTS THE FOUR ELEMENTS THAT MAKE UP 96% OF THE HUMAN BODY MASS
C,H,O,N
132
THE RED BLOOD CELL THAT IS PLACED IN A 70% SALT SOLUTION WOULD QUICKLY ___ DUE TO THE EXTREME HIGH OSMOTIC PRESSURE FROM THAT ENVIRONMENT
SHRINK
133
THE PRIMARY STRUCTURE OF A PROTEIN IS COMPOSED OF A LONG CHAIN OF MANY
AMINO ACIDS
134
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES ARE LOCATED IN THE DORSAL BODY CAVITY
BRAIN AND SPINAL (BOTH A&C)
135
THE MOLECULE RESPONSIBLE FOR BRINGING the correct amino acid to the ribosome during the translastion phase of a protein synthesis is
tRNA
136
if atoms will form bonds with othr atoms by sharing electrons in order to have a full valence shell this would form a ____ bond
covalent
137
the types of lipids that function mainly to store excess energy from the food that we eat are called
triglycerides
138
red blood cells only live approx 24 hours once they have entered the bloodstream from bone marrow. this is a ormal expected type of cell death called
apoptosis
139
which of the following best describes the integumentary system
it contains hair skin and nails as accessory organs
140
the esophagus is directionally ___to the trachea
posterior
141
the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in the body is known as
metabolism
142
____ bonds are formed when one atom physically gives an electro to another atom. thus forming two oppositely charged ions that are held together by the attraction of opposite charges
ionic
143
water molecules are polar molecules. this means that...
each end of the molecule has opposite charges
144
if the nucleotide sequence of a section of DNA strand is ACTGCT then the mRNA copy of that section would be
UGACGA
145
any substance when dissolved in water releases extra H ions into the water would be
An Acid
146
which of the following is not one of the major organic molecules that make up the human body
oxygen
147
DNA is made of repeating___ each consisting of a sugar called_____ a phosphate group and one of four nitrogenous bases
nucleotides/deoxyribose
148
the end result of the process of transcription is the production of
mRNA copy of a section of DNA
149
the process of translation occurs at which of the following organelles within the cytoplasm
ribosomes
150
the abnormal death of our cells as that seen in gangrene of the skin is called
necrosis
151
the ribosomes of the cytoplasm of our cells were produced inside of the ___before entering the cytoplasm
nucleolus
152
in order for something to be considered an organic compound it must contain
carbon
153
which is true for all mRNA
all are true
154
the appendix would be located in which quadrant
LRQ
155
a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution of .02% NA would
swell up and eventually burst
156
the formation of bone is called
ossification
157
during endochondral bone formation the primary center for ossification begins in the
center of the diaphysis
158
the function of collagen fibers found in our bones is to
allow flexibility in the bones decreasing the susceptibility of FX
159
the function of the osteoblasts in bone tissue is to
divide and secrete matrix to produce new bone as it is needed
160
the function of the nutrient foramen of a long bone is to provide a passage way for
the major blood vessel entering the diaphysis of a long bone
161
which end of the following contains yellow bone marrow
diaphysis of long bones
162
the type of tissue that specializes and sinks below the skin to form most exocrine glands in the body is
epithelial tissue
163
the types of cell junction the prevents the contents of the stomach and bladder from leaking into the surrounding tissues are the
tight junctions
164
the main function of the areolar connective tissue is to
protect, nourish and bind structure it surrounds as well as to hold the skin down to deeper tissues
165
keratin is found mostly in tissues that
need to be strong to resist friction
166
most of the upper respiratory tract is lined with
ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
167
most exocrine glands in the body are classified as ____in the method they use to secrete substances
merocrine
168
the suffix blast at the end of a cell name indicates
immature cell that still divides and secretes matrix
169
the embryonic connective tissue that from which all other connective tissues arise
mesenchyme
170
all of the following are functions of adipose tissue except
formation of endocrine glands
171
osteocytes in compact bones are located between the concentric lamellae of the osteons and are found inside small sacs called
lacunae
172
both desmosomes and gap junctions are found connecting the cells of the
cardiac muscle tissue
173
the large arteries and the bronchial tubes which both stretch and recoil are composed mostly of which type of connective tissue
elastic
174
which layer pf the epidermis do you end up wiping off of your furniture with a dust cloth
stratum corneum
175
new epidermal cells are constantly being produced from cell division occuring in the cells found in the stratum
basale
176
the average length of time for a cell to rise to the surface become keratinized and shed off of your body is
1 month
177
fat energy storage in the skin is an important function of the
subcutaneous layer
178
the supporting cells of the nervous system that support and surround the neurons are called
neuroglial cells
179
the main function of keratin in the epidermis is to
make skin tough and waterproof
180
which of the following would be true of a person born with no melanocytes
their skin would burn easily in the sun
181
the cells in the epidermis that secrete lipids to make the skin more waterproof would be found in which epidermal layer
stratum granulosum
182
vit d plays an important part in
absorption of calcium
183
a person who receives a skin transplant from an identical twin has undergone
isograft
184
the larger lower layer of the dermis that contains many of our exocrine glands and hair follicles is the
reticular region of the dermis
185
the main pigment that gives our skin its color and that protects us from damaging uv light is
melanin
186
sweat is produced by
sudoriferous glands
187
when a child breaks a long bone the doctors are always quick to see if there is any damage in the ___ which might cause problems later with growth
epiphyseal plate
188
a fx in which the bone comes through the skin
open fx
189
7if blood calcium levels get too low which of the following statements would be true regarding functions
the osteoclast function increases eating away at the outermost layers of the bone
190
which of the following is not a function of our bone tissue
epithelial cell division
191
the bone stem cells found in the inner layer of the periosteum and the endosteum that can divide to replace themselves or can become osteoblasts are
osteoprogenitor cells
192
spongy bone consists of irregular lattice work of thin columns of bone called
trabeculae
193
ossification of bone begins during the ___ week of fetal development
6th or 7th
194
a fx of the distal radius is often called
colles fx
195
the type of fx often seen in children especially in cases of child abuse where the spiral fx crosses the growth plate
green stick fx
196
which of the following is true of the yellow bone marrow
it is found mostly in the marrow cavity in the diaphysis of the long bones
197
the disorder likely to be seen in children who did not get enough vit d in their diets as their bones were growling is called
ricketts
