Final Flashcards

(96 cards)

1
Q

When administering aerosol therapy to a pediatric patient, which of the following conditions can affect aerosol deposition?

I. Airway diameter
II. Respiratory rate
III. Body weight
IV. Nasal breathing

A

I, II, and IV only

I. airway diameter
II. respiratory rate
IV. nasal breathing

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2
Q

The respiratory therapist is administering a nebulizer with a mask to a 2-year-old child. The mask is being held away from the child’s face (“blow-by”) due to excessive crying. What should the RT consider doing to improve aerosol lung deposition?

A

Comfortably hold the mask close to the face to minimize the leak.

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3
Q

When a conventional jet nebulizer is operated at a flow of 10 L/min versus 5 L/min, what should the respiratory therapist expect?

(Going from 5 to 10 L/min)

A

The treatment time shortens.

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4
Q

Which of the following considerations is most important when using a large-volume nebulizer to provide oxygen and humidification to an infant in an incubator?

A

Preventing a high noise level from developing

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5
Q

How can a patient avoid the problem of terminating inhalation when a plume from a pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) impacts the oropharynx?

A

Use a valved holding chamber

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6
Q

For which of the following types of patients would using a dry powder inhaler (DPI) for medication delivery likely be contraindicated?

A

A 4-year old patient

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7
Q

Where in the ventilator circuit should a continuous jet nebulizer be placed to improve efficiency of aerosol delivery?

A

30 cm from the ETT in the inspiratory limb

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8
Q

What are the main components of the traditional airway clearance techniques?

I. Palpation of the chest wall
II. Postural drainage
III. Percussion
IV. Coughing

A

II, III, and IV only

II. Postural drainage
III. Percussion
IV. Coughing

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9
Q

The following postural drainage positions are shown for an infant patient:

Which of the diagrams demonstrates the postural drainage position for draining the lingular segments of the left upper lobe in an infant?

A

Image C

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10
Q

The following postural drainage positions are shown for a pediatric patient:

Which of the diagrams demonstrates the postural drainage position for draining the posterior subsegment of the apical-posterior segment of the left upper lobe?

A

Image B

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11
Q

A respiratory therapist has been assigned to administer CPT to a patient with cystic fibrosis. What areas of the body should the RT avoid when percussing the patient?

A

Fractured ribs

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12
Q

What is the most important variable used to assess the efficacy of CPT?

A

amount of mucus obtained during and after treatment

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13
Q

For which of the following patients is incentive spirometry contraindicated?

I. Uncooperative
II. Physically disabled
III. Grossly obese
IV. Very young

A

I, II, and IV only

I. Uncooperative
II. Physically disabled
IV. Very young

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14
Q

The respiratory therapist has been asked to evaluate the effectiveness of incentive spirometry in some patients during their postoperative stage. What will the RT find to be most influential on the outcome associated with IS?

A

Level of supervision and instruction of therapy

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15
Q

As the therapist auscultates over an infant’s larynx, he hears a very low-pitched sound. On the basis of this finding, what impression is he likely to have regarding the nature of the upper airway obstruction?

A

mild obstruction

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16
Q

A 10-month-old child has been brought into the emergency room (ER) by her parents, who state that after few days with low-grade fever, malaise, and rhinorrhea, their child presented with a “barking” cough and increased work of breathing. What condition is this child likely exhibiting?

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)

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17
Q

A child who is in the ED has the following neck x-ray. Which of the following conditions is represented?

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis

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18
Q

A 3-year-old child has been diagnosed with epiglottitis and was intubated due to severe respiratory distress. After 24 hours of antibiotics the therapist is considering extubation. What will be an acceptable leak before considering extubation?

A

<20 cm H2O

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19
Q

Tracheomalacia is a condition of dynamic tracheal collapse. Which of the following injurious events can be associated with this condition?

A

neonatal ventilation with high pressures

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20
Q

A therapist has been asked to evaluate a child suspected of having foreign body aspiration. Which of the following clinical conditions would guide the therapist to the diagnosis?

A

unilateral wheezing

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21
Q

The therapist is evaluating a child in the emergency department who displays the following signs: inability to cry, ineffective cough, high-pitched inspiratory sound, and cyanosis. What should the therapist suspect?

A

severe or complete airway obstruction

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22
Q

In the ER, a chest radiograph reveals dilation of the segmental and subsegmental bronchi. The patient complains of expectorating copious amounts of thick mucus and frequent lung infections over the last year. Which of the following conditions does this child likely have?

A

bronchiectasis

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23
Q

A 3-year-old child has the following clinical presentations in the ER:

Profound nasal congestion and productive cough
Chest auscultation revealing diffuse coarse, “sticky” crackles (sounding like Velcro)
Chest radiograph revealing lung hyperinflation with flattened hemidiaphragms

What pulmonary condition does this infant likely have?

A

bronchiolitis

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24
Q

Which of the following agents has been shown to significantly reduce bronchiolitis scores?

A

nebulized 3% hypertonic saline

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25
A child presents to the emergency department with fever, tachypnea, nasal flaring, and shallow breathing. The physical exam of the chest reveals the presence of crackles, increased tactile fremitus, and dullness to percussion concentrated on the RML and RLL. What should the therapist suspect the diagnosis is?
pneumonia
26
Which of the following types of cells play a role in the pathophysiology of asthma? I. Mast cells II. Eosinophils III. Neutrophils IV. Basophils
I, II, and III only I. Mast cells II. Eosinophils III. Neutrophils
27
Which of the following immunoglobulins has been identified as a key molecule in mediating allergic asthma and should be measured in serum?
IgE
28
Persistent inflammation in asthma leads to a remodeling phase that is characterized by which of the following processes?
airway smooth muscle hypertrophy
29
A 2-year-old child diagnosed with asthma has a family history of frequent respiratory infections. What is the most common respiratory virus isolated from infants who wheeze?
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
30
On the basis of the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program (NAEPP) guidelines, when a diagnosis of asthma is being made, which of the following criteria are recommended? I. That the patient be free of any comorbidity II. That a physical examination be performed III. That spirometry is conducted to determine the presence of reversible disease IV. That a detailed medical history be conducted
II, III, and IV only II. That a physical examination be performed III. That spirometry is conducted to determine the presence of reversible disease IV. That a detailed medical history be conducted
31
How is significant clinical airflow limitation determined from pre- and postbronchodilator spirometry?
When the patient’s FEV1 increases by 12% and 200 mL
32
Which of the following pharmacologic agents may be used for bronchoprovocation challenge testing?
histamine
33
Which of the following medications are considered the first line of chronic treatment for patients with asthma?
inhaled corticosteroids
34
The therapist is asked to explain to a 10-year-old how to use a corticosteroid inhaler. Which of the following side effects should the therapist mention to the patient and caregiver?
oral candidiasis
35
In order to establish the personal best peak flow, which instructions should the asthma educator give the patient? I. Record peak flows when free of symptoms II. Record peak flows once a day for 2 to 3 weeks III. Record peak flows preferably in early afternoon IV. Maintain peak flow values within 80% of the best peak flow
I, II, and III only I. Record peak flows when free of symptoms II. Record peak flows once a day for 2 to 3 weeks III. Record peak flows preferably in early afternoon
36
What are the chances of two CFTR gene carriers having a normal child?
25%
37
Which of the following respiratory signs and symptoms should prompt the therapist for evaluation of cystic fibrosis in a child? I. Recurrent wheezing II. Frequent thick sputum production III. Chronic cough IV. Nasal polyps
I, II, III, and IV I. Recurrent wheezing II. Frequent thick sputum production III. Chronic cough IV. Nasal polyps
38
A sweat chloride test and CFTR mutation analysis performed in a 10-year-old child with signs and symptoms consistent with CF are inconclusive. Which of the following tests should the therapist suggest at this time?
nasal potential difference
39
Which of the following microorganisms commonly colonize the airways of patients with cystic fibrosis? I. Actinomyces israelii II. Haemophilus influenzae III. Pseudomonas aeruginosa IV. Staphylococcus aureus
II, III, and IV only II. Haemophilus influenzae III. Pseudomonas aeruginosa IV. Staphylococcus aureus
40
Which of the following drugs should the therapist give before administering nebulized 7% saline to a patient with CF?
albuterol
41
Describe impact of differences in patient size and age on aerosol delivery
2-5 deposit in UAW <2 doesn't deposit >5-10 deposit in LAW
42
epiglottitis is what type airway disorder
upper airway disorder
43
define epiglottitis
a life-threatening bacterial infection leading to sudden marked swelling of epiglottis and surrounding tissues that may result in complete AW obstruction and death
44
what are incidence and etiology of epiglottitis
H. influenza Type B (<6 y.o., about 75% of epiglottic episodes) Non-H. influenza (complication of varicella) noninfectious (thermal burns, multiple intubations, blind finger sweeps)
45
what are signs and symptoms of epiglottitis
sudden onset (6-8 hours) febrile 3-11 y.o. dysphagia and drooling muffled cough and voice without hoarseness
46
how do you diagnose epiglottitis
clinical presentation lateral neck (thumb sign)
47
how do you treat epiglottitis
1st priority is to establish AW O2 therapy 30-40$ antibiotics extubation close monitoring for 12-24 post extubation
48
what is laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
a viral infection involving the upper and lower respiratory tract causing subglottic edema AKA: croup
49
what is the incidence and etiology of LTB
3 months - 3 years (6months - 6 years) occurs fall and winter months parainfluenza virus (most common) RSV Herpes simple virus mycoplasma pneumoniae
50
what are signs and symptoms of LTB
gradual onset (2-3 days) low grade fever barky cough inspiratory stridor varying degrees of respiratory distress
51
how do you diagnose LTB
lateral neck (hazy subglottic region) AP CXR (steeple sign, pencil point, picket fence)
52
how do you treat LTB
1st O2 therapy 30-40% nebulized racemic epi and dexamethasone intubation extubation
53
what is incidence of foreign body aspiration (FBA)
leading cause of accidental death (6months - 3 years)
54
what are signs and symptoms of FBA
sudden onset violent coughing, dyspnea, retractions, restlessness BS vary
55
how do you diagnose FBA
Hx of circumstance CXR - if radiopaque
56
how do you treat FBA
rigid bronchoscopy postural drainage and percussion aerosolized bronchodilators
57
what is bronchiectasis
irreversible dilation on the bronchi secreting large amounts of purulent sputum
58
what is etiology and pathology
irregular shaping and dilation of segmental and sub-segmental bronchi inadequate ciliary activity acquired airway injury preventing mucus clearance
59
what are signs and symptoms of bronchiectasis
history of recurrent gram negative infections chronic productive cough 3 layer sputum DOE digital clubbing LLL involvement
60
how do you diagnose bronchiectasis
CXR - opacities seen bronchogram - seldom CT - confirms PFT - obstructive
61
how do you treat bronchiectasis
bronchial hygiene antibiotics aerosolized bronchodilators surgical resection of involved segments
62
what is bronchiolitis
viral respiratory tract infection resulting in small AW obstruction
63
what is etiology and pathophysiology of bronchiolitis
RSV 2-6 months (3-3 years) occurs Dec-March
64
what is incidence of bronchiolitis
<1 year day cares pre-term second hand smoking exposure
65
what are signs and symptoms of bronchiolitis
dyspnea with retractions nasal congestion productive cough lethargy BS CXR - hyperinflate, flat diaphragm, consolidation, atelectasis
66
how do you diagnose bronchiolitis
RSV screening clinical presentation - Hx and exam
67
how do you treat bronchiolitis
supplemental O2 IV hydration continuous pulse ox monitor frequent nasal Sx bronchodilators nebulized hypertonic saline antibiotics ribavirin (virazole) intubation and MV
68
bronchiolitis is what type AW disorder
lower AW
69
bronchiectasis is what type AW disorder
lower AW
70
FBA is what type AW disorder
lower AW
71
LTB is what type AW disorder
upper AW
72
what is asthma
reversible obstructive lung disease due to chronic hyperactive airway inflammation to various triggers
73
what are triggers of asthma
allergic reaction stress exercise exposure to cold respiratory infection inhaled irritant GERD NSAID
74
what is the triad of AW obstruction
airway inflammation bronchial smooth muscle hyperresponsiveness mucus hypersection
75
what are the 6 components leading to AW obstruction
inflammation bronchoconstriction AW edema mucus plugging hyperresponsiveness of AW AW remodeling
76
AW inflammation is result of
eosinophilic AW inflammation mast cell hypergranulation increased IgE levels release of cytokines
77
AW hyperrespiveness is result of
exaggerated bronchoconstricting response to stimuli allergen exposure
78
allergen exposure leads to
IgE release release of inflammatory mediators smooth muscle constriction reduction in airflow
79
AW remodeling is
permanent structural change with progressive reduction in lung function
80
features of AW remodeling is
inflammation increased mucus production sub-epithelial fibrosis AW smooth muscle hypertrophy angiogenesis
81
what happens with repeated inflammatory episodes in AW remodeling
thickened AW firbosis
82
what are risk factors for developing asthma
atopic "allergic" response environmental triggers
83
what are clinical manifestations of asthma
wheezing increased cough accessory muscle use tachycardia diaphoresis pulsus paradoxus & severe retractions
84
how do you diagnose asthma
medical history physical exam PFT exhaled nitric oxide brochoprovocational challenge differential diagnosis
85
how you manage asthma
pharmacologic therapy control of triggers peak flow monitoring asthma action plan patient and family education
86
what is the pharmacologic therapy for asthma
long term control medication quick relief medication delivery system
87
how do you manage an exacerbation of asthma in the ED
assessment beta 2 agonist (continue neb) corticosteroid (oral, IV) hospitalization required- intubation, MV
88
explain exercise-induced bronchospasm
peaks 5-10 min after cessation of activity resolve spontaneously in 20-30 minutes hyperventilation of cool and dry air inhalation of beta 2 agonist 5-60 minutes before exercise 5-10 minute warm up
89
what is cystic fibrosis
genetic disorder - recessive Inherited autosomal recessive genetic disorder of the exocrine glands primarily affecting the respiratory, digestive and reproductive systems
90
what are complications of CF
thick, viscous secretions chronic obstruction, infection, inflammation of airways exocrine pancreatic insufficiency infertility in males elevated sweat chloride levels
91
what is epidemiology of CF
most common genetic disease among whites 1 in 28 are carriers median age at diagnosis: 5 months
92
genetic and molecular biology of CF
chromosome 7 defect parents are carriers of gene defect - 25% normal, 50% carrier, 25% acquire
93
how do you diagnose CF
sweat chloride testing CFTR mutation analysis nasal potential difference newborn screening
94
how do you treat CF
aerosol therapy airway clearance therapy antibiotics anti-inflammatory agents lung transplant small-molecule CFTR modulators
95
what are nonpulmonary manifestations of CF
UAW disorders GI disorders hepatobiliary disorders
96
what is prognosis of CF
improving outcomes median predicted age of survival: 38.3 years