Final Flashcards
(125 cards)
1
Q
You are seeing a patient with Alzheimer’s disease for the first time and will be deciding whether or not to give them medication to help with the disease. Please note that the patient is already susceptible to gingivitis and has slight gingival overgrowth. Choose the correct statement:
a. You will prescribe them a cholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine and potentially consider NMDA receptor antagonists if it doesn’t work
b. You will prescribe phenytoin because it has the appropriate MOA and doesn’t have side effects such as gingival overgrowth
c. You will give them a Tylenol and wish them the best of luck
d. You will prescribe interferon alpha or beta because it has the appropriate MOA, slows disease progression and is self-injectable so it’s easier for the patient to use
A
a. You will prescribe them a cholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine and potentially consider NMDA receptor antagonists if it doesn’t work
2
Q
You have a patient coming in today at 1:35 pm, during lunch break you decide to be the great doctor that you are and review their medical history chart. On the chart it’s mentioned that the patient has dementia and that it’s potentially due to Lewy bodies. What pathological finding will help you verify this diagnosis?
a. Reduced CSF and cortical atrophy [with knife like gyrus] on the frontal portion of the brain on scans
b. Reduced DA (dopamine) transporter uptake in basal ganglia (can be seen on the SPECT/PET scan)
c. Abnormal MIBG myocardial scintigraphy (cardiac imaging)
d. B and c only
A
D
3
Q
Which Neurotransmitter is most responsible for movement (motor control) and is released from the substantia nigra?
a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Glutamate
d. GABA
A
A
4
Q
Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste in the anterior ⅔ of the tongue?
II
VII
X
XII
A
B
5
Q
Which medication is most used to treat bipolar and euphoric mania?
a) Paroxetine (SSIRs)
b) Lithium carbonate
c) Nardil (MPIs)
d) Alprazolam
A
B
6
Q
A 30-year-old patient comes to our Dental office and mentions she has optic neuritis and feels fatigue, muscle spasm most of the days, and depression. She is using methylprednisolone as the medication. What might this patient have?
a) MS
b) Parkinson
c) Stroke
d) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
A
A
7
Q
Where is CSF produced?
• Choroid plexus
• Pons
• Dura mater
• Thalamus
A
A
8
Q
What is the flow of CSF?
• lateral ventricles->third ventricle-> fourth ventricle->subarachnoid space.
• fourth ventricle-> third ventricle-> lateral ventricle-> subarachnoid space.
• Subarachnoid space-> lateral ventricle -> third ventricle-> fourth ventricle.
• Lateral ventricle-> third ventricle-> subarachnoid space-> fourth ventricle
A
A
9
Q
A patient comes in with for a class 2 MOD #30 restoration. You take a look at their chart and notice that they had a stroke 3 months ago. What should you do/what precautions should you take?
a. Continue with the planned treatment
b. Not treat the patient because stroke patients shouldn’t receive elective dental care within 6 months of their stroke
c. Provide the patient with preventative aspirin and warfarin in case they have a stroke in your chair
d. Preemptively restrain the patient in case they have a stroke in your chair
A
B
10
Q
What is the pathology of Parkinson’s disease?
a. Damage to upper/lower motor neurons
b. Accumulation of neurofibrillary tau tangles & beta-amyloid plaques in the brain
c. Demyelination of axons in the CNS
d. Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra1
A
D
11
Q
What is Skinner’s philosophy behind behaviorism in psychology?
A) Behavior is reinforced by rewards or punishment
B) Behavior is dictated by how we think
C) Behavior is innate
D) Behavior cannot be changed
A
A
12
Q
What is the most “dangerous” brain cancer in adults?
A) Medulloblastoma
B) Ependymomas
C) Astrocytoma
D) GBM
A
D
13
Q
Inclusion body myositis is associated with the following condition(s):
a. Steven Johnson Syndrome (SJS)
b. Lupus and Rheumatoid Arthritis
c. Lupus and HIV
d. HIV or Hep-C
A
D
14
Q
Neck tongue syndrome is provoked by:
a. Sudden rotary head movement
b. Compression or irritation of C2 nerve root
c. Damage to lingual afferent fibers traveling in the hypoglossal nerve
d. All of the above
A
D
15
Q
A 36-year-old farmer usually experiences a tremor at rest, slowness of movements and postural instability. Which of the following clinical features is he most likely to exhibit if his physician tells him he has degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in his substantia nigra?
A. Confusion
B. Rigidity
C. Acute optic neuritis
D. Ptosis
A
B
16
Q
A stroke patient went to your dental clinic for a procedure. How will you manage this patient?
A. Prescribe aspirin for post-op dental care.
B. Use gingival retraction cord impregnated with epinephrine.
C. Use 2 mL of local anesthetic with 1:100,000 epinephrine.
D. Treat the patient one month after his stroke.
A
C
17
Q
Which is not a component of Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy?
A. Cognitive
B. Behavioral
C. Emotional
D. Physical
A
D
18
Q
What approach could a dentist take to help patients with needle anxiety/phobia?
A. Motivational therapy
B. Behavior therapy
C. Flooding therapy
D. Exposure therapy
A
D
19
Q
A 23-year-old college student from UCLA came to your office during his winter break. He has not visited a dental office for 5 years because he is nervous with all dental procedures. Patient tells you that his body is always shaky during all dental procedures due to anxiety. What can you do to help this patient?
A. Prescribe SSRI, such as Citalopram (Celexa)
B. Prescribe SSNI, such as Desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)
C. Prescribe Benzodiazepine, such as Alprazolam (Xanax)
D. Establish rapport by telling patient he will be fine because you have superior skills comparing to dentists graduated from UCLA
E. Tell patient to study harder and transfer to USC
A
C
20
Q
Which of the following is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord?
A. Dopamine
B. Glycine
C. Gama-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D. Acetylcholine
A
B
21
Q
Unusual and eccentric thoughts and behavior (psychoticism), interpersonal detachment, and suspiciousness are characteristics of the DSM-5’s __________ personality disorder.
Schizotypal
Narcissistic
Avoidant
Borderline
A
A ??? Double check
22
Q
Which of the following has been linked with weight gain and type two diabetes?
A. MAOI
B. Carbamazepine
C. SSRI
D. SGA
A
D look up what it is
23
Q
Which of the following deficiencies has been linked with the mood disorder etiology?
A. Melatonin
B. Glutamate
C. GABA
D. Oxytocin
A
C
24
Q
Similar to #8 What is the order in which CSF circulates throughout the brain?
A. Lateral ventricles 3rd ventricle 4th Ventricle dural venous sinuses subarachnoid space
B. Lateral ventricles 3rd ventricle 4th ventricle subarachnoid space dural venous sinuses
C. Dural venous sinuses lateral ventricles 3rd ventricle 4th ventricle subarachnoid space
D. 4th ventricle 3rd ventricle lateral ventricles subarachnoid space dural venous sinuses
A
B
25
As a medical doctor, your patient comes into the ER with a fever, headache, and neck pain. His CSF panel shows that is CSF is cloudy, WBC is raised, and the differential is neutrophilic. What is his likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. HSV-1 encephalitis
C. Viral meningitis
D. Ebola
A
26
The fear of having a panic attack in a place where escape is not possible describes which mental health condition?
A. Agoraphobia
B. Social Anxiety Disorder
C. Specific Phobia
D. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
A
27
“Purging” is described as a recurrent, inappropriate compensatory behavior aimed at preventing weight gain following an episode of binge eating. Purging is characteristic of which eating disorder?
Anorexia
Binge Eating Disorder
Orthorexia
Bulima Nervosa
D
28
Which of these is not associated with Parkinsonian Symptoms?
Postural instability
Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Essential Tremor
D
29
The cranial nerve associated with motor to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is:
Facial Nerve
Trigeminal Nerve
Glossopharyngeal Nerve
Hypoglossal Nerve
D
30
Which correctly describes the function of the type of glial cell?
A. Neuron - Transmit nerve impulses
B. Oligodendrocytes - Myelinate neurons in the CNS
C. Satellite Cells – Transmit impulses from PNS to CNS
D. Ependymal Cells – Maintain the Blood Brain Barrier
B
31
Which of the following descriptions of touch receptors is incorrect?
A. Meissner corpuscle - at the superficial layer of skin, senses fine touch
B. Pacinian corpuscle - at the deep layer of skin, senses skin stretch
C. Ruffini endings - at the deep layer of skin, senses skin stretch
D. Merkel cells - at the superficial layer of the skin, senses pain, pin-point receptive fields
B
32
Which cranial nerve (CN) is responsible for carrying sensory information regarding smell to the brain?
CN 1
33
Which neurotransmitter is both excitatory AND inhibitory?
Dopamine
34
Which is not characteristic of 2nd generation of anti-psychotic drug?
a. An example of medicine is aripiprazole and olanzapine
b. It primarily blocks the D2 receptor only
c. It is less likely to cause EPS and tardive dyskinesia compared to FGA
d. It is more likely to cause metabolic abnormalities such as weight gain
B
35
Which is not a method for treating anxiety disorder in general, including different types of pharmacotherapy and psychotherapy modalities?
a. Prescribe Benzodiazepines
b. Give a nitrous oxide in the Dental setting
c. Perform cognitive behavioral therapy
d. Prescribe lithium bicarbonate
d
36
Where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Medulla
c. Spinal cord
d. Right before synapsing with the lower motor neuron
B
37
In which dementia do you see cortical atrophy and ballooning of the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles?
a. Lewy Body dementia
b. Alzheimer’s dementia
c. Fronto-temporal dementia
d. Vascular dementia
C
38
-Who is most likely to develop Multiple Sclerosis?
a. Young adults, ages 20s and 30s
b. Over 60s
c. Children, younger than 18
d. None of the above
A
39
What are some factors NOT associated with Multiple Sclerosis?
a. Hormones
b. Vitamin D
c. Tobacco Use
d. Alcohol
D
40
What disease is associated with frontal temporal dementia?
a. ALS
b. Parkinson’s
c. Epilepsy
d. Stroke
a
41
What is the most common fatal viral encephalitis worldwide?
a. Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSV-1)
b. Japanese encephalitis
c. Ebola virus
d. Zika Virus
A
42
Which of the following lab results might be indicative of a patient with Multiple Sclerosis?
a. Significant decrease in platelet count
b. High levels of IgG antibodies in CSF
c. Presence of tau and beta amyloids
d. Consistent low blood glucose levels
B
43
Which of the following statements is true about neuro-related malignancies?
a. The majority of brain tumors in children occur around the cerebrum and meninges.
b. Oral squamous cell carcinoma frequently metastasizes to the brain.
c. In adults, metastatic tumors are the most common type of malignancy in the brain, while glioblastomas are the most common primary brain malignancy in adults.
d. Glioblastomas are easy to treat and have a relatively higher survival rate when compared with pituitary tumors.
C
44
What is the most common eating disorder in the United States?
a. Anorexia
b. Bulimia
c. Binge eating
d. Orthorexia
C
45
Where is ‘Organ of Corti’?
Eye
Brain
Ear
Mouth
Ear
46
A patient reports that they eat exclusively bacon and Texas toast. Coincidentally, 2 months ago they had a stroke affecting the left temporal and parietal area of their brain. What is the most likely type of stroke that they had?
Unstable angina
Ischemic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
Coronary heart disease
Ischemic
47
While doing a typical scaling and root planning for your patient with moderate periodontitis, you notice their gingiva seem to be bleeding excessively. You suspect that your patient neglected to tell you something, so you ask if they have started taking any new medications. They respond, “oh yeah, my doctor put me on Warfarin a couple weeks ago!” How does this explain what you are seeing?
a. It doesn't. Warfarin does not have any side effects that we know of
b. Warfarin is sometimes prescribed to treat strokes, and strokes are known to cause excessive bleeding for up to 6 months after the event
c. Warfarin is an anticoagulant and causes blood-thinning, leading to easier bleeding and slower clotting
d. Warfarin is an antiplatelet and causes blood-thinning, leading to easier bleeding and slower clotting
C
48
Say there is a virus that specifically targets one type of touch receptor and wipes all of those out in the body. Upon being infected with the virus, you notice that you no longer can tell when your skin is stretching, such as when you open your hand or clench it. What type of nerve ending does this virus likely target?
Ruffini endings
Merkel cells
Meissner corpuscles
Pacinian corpuscles
Ruffini
49
Patients with this disease should avoid taking haloperidol and other first-generation antipsychotics.
a- Alzheimer’s disease
b- Parkinson’s disease
c- Huntington’s disease
d- Lewy Body Disease
D
50
With which one of these Parkinson’s Disease medications should you limit the dose of vasoconstrictor to two carpules of 1:100,000 Epinephrine?
a- COMT inhibitor (Entacapone)
b- MAO-B inhibitor (Selegiline and Rasagiline)
c- Carbidopa/Levodopa
d- Dopamine agonist (Pramipexole and Ropinorole)
a
51
Which of the following medications and disease incorrectly matched?
1. FGA - schizophrenia
2. SNRI - MDD
3. Anticonvulsant - schizophrenia (answer)
4. Benzodiazepine - anxiety
3
52
A 42- year old male patient rarely expresses his emotion. He doesn’t seem to be interested in engaging a conversation with you or any other people. He refuses any physical touch unless it’s necessary. What disorder can explain his condition?
1. Schizoid (answer)
2. Paranoid
3. Anti-social
4. Avoidant
1
53
31-year-old patient comes into the ER with acute stroke 3 hours after the onset. What emergency treatment should be used to treat this patient?
(A) Tissue plasminogen activator (tpa)
(B) Thrombectomy
(C) Metronidazole and tetracycline
(C) Brain surgery
A
54
Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of ALS patient?
(A) Extraocular muscle dysfunction
(B) Drooping of palate
(C) Weak Cough
(D) Weakness of bulbar muscles
A
55
A recently healthy patient has reported that they had a manic episode last month and then it was followed by a Major Depressive Episode. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be the diagnosis for this patient?
a. Bipolar 1
b. Bipolar 2
c. Cyclothymia
d. Schizoid personality disorder
a
56
A patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and has been taking Lithium- Disulfate as a mood stabilizer. The patient has come in to get their wisdom teeth out and you are considering what actions to take for post-operative pain management. Which of the following drugs cause Lithium toxicity when taken in tandem with Lithium-Disulfate?
A. Phenothiazines
B. Xanax (Alprazolam)
C. NSAIDS
D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
C
57
Which of the following neurotransmitters can serve an inhibitory function?
Histamine
Norepinephrine
Glutamate
Dopamine
d. Dopamine
58
Contracting which of the following viruses would most commonly results in Parkinsonian features?
Japanese encephalitis virus
Dengue Virus
West Nile virus
Ebola virus
A. JEV
59
You ask your patient what their typical diet consists of. They explain that they decided a few months ago that they would begin to eat healthy. Originally, eating ‘healthy’ meant increasing the amount of fruits and vegetables in their daily intake. Now, the patient will only eat raw fruits and vegetables that they have washed as they don’t trust others to wash or prepare things as well as they do. Hearing this, you would consider this patient as potentially having what condition?
A. Anorexia
B. Bulimia
C. Orthorexia
D. None of the above
C
60
A patient cannot be diagnosed with anti-social personality disorder before the age of 18. Prior to turning at least 18, what is the patient considered to have?
A. Bipolar 1 Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
C. Tardive Dyskinesia Disorder
D. Schizophrenia
B
61
Which neurotransmitters have not been implicated in etiology of mood disorders?
A- Serotonin
B- Norepinephrine
C- Glycine
D- dopamine
C
62
Which of the following is not a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A- delusion
B- disorganized speech
C- hallucination
D- alogia
D
63
Which of the following psychotic disorder symptoms is not considered a delusion?
a. Paranoid
b. Asociality
c. Grandiose
d. Erotomanic
b.
64
A 60-year-old male, who is an accomplished conductor and practitioner of martial arts, presents with weakness and atrophy of their quadriceps and forearm flexor and extensor muscles. They first noticed weakness in their hands when conducting and slight difficulty when walking around 10 years ago. They noted that it has gradually gotten worse. Additionally, they now have slight dysphagia. What disease do they most likely have?
*Hint: They were a patient presentation we had on October 11th*
Alzheimer's Dementia
Inclusion body myositis
Miller-Fisher variant of AIDP
Facioscapulohumeral Dystrophy
B
65
What is the primary brain tumor of adults that is most concerning due to its aggressiveness and fast progression?
a. Glioblastoma Multiforme
b. Meningioma
c. Medulloblastoma
d. Ependymoma
a.
66
You are walking with your crush wondering how they feel about you, when they brush your hand lightly. You blush and your mind wanders. Before your brain started planning your wedding, the fine touch sensory information was conveyed to your brain via which pathway?
Spinothalamic tract
DCML tract
Corticospinal tract
Corticobulbar tract
B
67
#Similar to 11 Which one of the following conducted trials with animals by having them press a bar to receive food, in order to observe reinforcement and punishment?
A. BF Skinner.
B. Mouse Jones.
C. Miller.
D. Beck.
A
68
Schizophrenia has multiple theories of etiology, one of which is the genetic component of the disease. Which of the following is correct regarding the chance of acquiring schizophrenia in twins?
A. There is a 1:100 chance in twins.
B. There is no association in this group.
C. If a twin has schizophrenia then the other twin will get it as well.
D. There is a 1:2 chance of developing schizophrenia in twins.
D
69
This type of touch receptors is used when you are drilling in D1 and feeling the vibrations of your handpiece and is found to have a ____ receptive field:
Pacinian; large
Pacinian; small
Merkel; large
Merkel; small
A
70
Long Term Potentiation involves the release of ____ which aids in removing the ____ blockade
Glutamate; Magnesium
GABA; Magnesium
Glutamate; Calcium
GABA; Calcium
A glut and mag
71
What inflammatory neuropeptide does not lead to neurogenic inflammation that could cause a headache?
Somatostatin
72
What is the name of the eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating, lack of self-control and swollen parotid gland?
A. Bulimia
B. Anxiety
C. OCD
D. Depresion
A
73
A mental disorder that involves recurrent and persistent thoughts, images, urges that are intrusive and unwanted?
Depression
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Schizophrenia
Anxiety
B ob comp
74
What is the combination of words was Dr. Sipol’s tasked to remember during the physical examination lecture?
Happy blue table
75
Which of the following inflammatory neuropeptides released tends to lead to neurogenic inflammation?
a. Calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP), Neurokinin A, Substance P (SP)
b. Calcitonin, Neurokinin A, Substance P (SP)
c. Calcium, Calcitonin, Oxytocin
d. Oxytocin, Insulin, and Glucago
a
76
A 30-year-old patient comes in the office for a filling on tooth #30. In the patient’s history, it states that they have been diagnosed with depression for several years and are taking SSRIs. Which of the following below is something that you should consider before starting your procedure?
a. When using anesthetic, you should be careful of the amount of epinephrine, because it can cause a hypertensive reaction. Limit to 2 cartridges of 1 : 100,000 epinephrine & avoid more concentrated forms of epinephrine.
b. When using anesthetic, you should be careful of the amount of epinephrine, because it can cause a hypotensive reaction. Limit to 2 cartridges of 1 : 100,000 epinephrine & avoid more concentrated forms of epinephrine.
c. When using anesthetic, you should be careful of the amount of epinephrine, because it can cause a hypertensive reaction. Limit to 1 cartridge of 1 : 100,000 epinephrine & avoid more concentrated forms of epinephrine.
d. When using anesthetic, you should be careful of the amount of epinephrine, because it can cause a hypotensive reaction. Limit to 1 cartridges of 1 : 100,000 epinephrine & avoid more concentrated forms of epinephrine
A
77
Among the following movement disorders, which one is categorized as hypokinetic?
Huntington Disease
Wilson’s disease
Parkinson’s Disease
Tourettes
c park
78
A new young female patient presents to you with discoloration of teeth and erosion. They tell you they are always tired and do excessive exercise every day. You notice they have broken blood vessels on their face, swollen parotid glands, and have calluses on their knuckles (Russell’s sign). Which of the following is most likely to explain the patient's condition?
Bulimia Nervosa
Multiple Sclerosis
Binge Eating disorder
Iron deficiency
A bul
79
Loss of vision can be debilitating for patients. Which of the following eye diseases are reversible with treatment?
Cataracts
Glaucoma
Diabetic retinopathy
Age-related macular degeneration
A cataract
80
A patient in your dental chair with a diagnosis of epilepsy reports having an aura. Which of the following is she experiencing?
Focal seizure
Intense memory
Autonomic stimulation
Optical phenomenon
A foc seizure
81
A 28-year-old dental student believes that his ideas are the best but deep down he knows they aren’t. He talks about himself all the time and thinks he is the most talented dental student. He suffers from:
Avoidant disorder
Schizotypal disorder
Histrionic disorder
Narcissistic disorder
D narcissistic
82
Similar to #28 A patient is seeking treatment for their rest tremors, rigidity, akinesia, and postural instability. The patient most likely suffers from the following disorder
A. Parkinson
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Stroke
D. GBM
A park
83
What Anxiety Disorder is characterized by occurrence after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event(s)?
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Social Anxiety Disorder
Agoraphobia
A ptsd
84
Which is true of eating disorders?
A. Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating without purging
B. Binge eating disorder is characterized by obsessions with healthy eating with associated restrictive behaviors
C. Bulimia Nervosa is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating with purging
D. Orthorexia Nervosa is characterized by intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight
C
85
A 42-year-old male presents to the UW Emergency Room with an unstable mood. The nurses describe his behavior as deviating between volatile outbursts and calm. When the hospital can get in contact with his family, they describe the patient as having impulsively left the house after getting into a severe argument with his sister. What type of personality disorder does this patient exhibit?
A. Schizotypal
B. Borderline
C. Histrionic
D. Antisocial
B border
86
A psychiatrist is diagnosing a patient that has experienced an elevated/irritable mood that has lasted 3 days. The patient expresses that they have also been experiencing recent symptoms of insomnia, poor concentration, fatigue, and weight loss. Given the symptoms that the patient has, what is the possible mood disorder that the psychiatrist could diagnose the patient with?
A. Major Depressive Disorder
B. Cyclothymia
C. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder
D. Bipolar II
B
87
A patient comes into your dental clinic and as you begin talking with them, you find that they have been experiencing a lot of fatigue, a sore throat, and weight fluctuations. Upon exam, you notice that they have swollen parotid glands, erosion of their teeth, and calluses on the back of their knuckles. What is a possible cause of these findings?
Dental anxiety that has led to avoidance of care
Anorexia Nervosa
Bulimia Nervosa
Major Depressive Disorder
C
88
What is the first-line drug class that is used for Alzheimer’s dementia?
Interferon beta
Cholinesterase inhibitors
NMDA receptor antagonists
Dopamine agonists
B cholinester
89
What hyperkinetic disorder presents with Kaiser-Fletcher rings?
a. Dystonia
b. Parkinson’s Disease
c. Wilson’s Disease
d. Huntington Disease
C
90
Pain information is transmitted in what spinal tract?
a. DCML
b. Spinothalamic
c. Corticobulbar
d. Corticospinal
B
91
During a head and neck exam, you noticed swollen parotid glands in the cheek/neck area and Russell’s sign. Which of the following eating disorders are you suspecting the patient to have?
Anorexia
Bulimia
Binge-eating disorder
Orthorexia
B bulimia
92
Many epilepsy medications have dental complications. Which of the medications could lead to gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Valproic acid
Gabapentin
A phenytoin
93
A female patient enters the emergency room displaying unilateral weakness, speech difficulty, trouble walking, sudden visual difficulty, and a severe headache. The most likely cause of her symptoms is:
A. Botulin Toxin
B. Drug Overdose
C. Stroke
D. Myasthenia Gravis
C stroke
94
Which type of therapy was best recommended to address dental fears in a clinical setting for a patient afraid of needles?
A. Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change
B. Motivational Interviewing
C. Exposure Therapy
D. Pharmacologic Therapy (Use of drugs)
C exp
95
Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter associated with mood disorders?
a. Epinephrine
b. GABA
c. Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine
D
96
According to Little and Falace, which of the following can arise from antipsychotic drugs?
a. Agranulocytosis
b. Lichen planus
c. Heart attack
d. Weight gain
A
97
A patient you have been seeing for the past two years comes in reporting that recently they have been feeling extremely energetic, don't need to sleep that much and stopped taking their medications because they don't feel like themselves anymore. You would:
a. Be happy for the patient and continue with your treatment plan.
b. Diagnose the patient and prescribe lithium bicarbonate.
c. Become concerned a patient might have a manic episode and refer to a PCP or psychiatrist.
d . Reschedule the patient for another time.
C
98
A pediatric patient comes into your office and during history taking their mom notes that recently they noticed their child sometimes stares into space for a few seconds and then becomes totally normal again. The kid also reports having vivid visions of Scooby Doo sometimes.
You would:
a. Tell mom their kid’s right hemisphere is more developed and hence their kid is a dreamer.
b. Suspect generalized seizure and refer to a PCP.
c. Suspect too much GABA and Glycine stimulation and refer to PCP.
d. Tell mom that is totally normal and the child will outgrow it.
B
99
___________ is the dominant neurotransmitter in the Prefrontal cortex and depletion of it can contribute to the development of schizophrenia. Therefore, the majority of anti-psychotics target these types of receptors.
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Glutamate
B
100
Unique signs of Bulimia in comparison to other types of eating disorders include swollen parotid glands, sore throat and ________.
A. Russell’s sign
B. Obsession with healthy or righteous eating
C. Significant weight loss
D. Distorted body image
A
101
Your patient requires an extraction of #32. His medical history indicates he is on 1st Generation Antipsychotics to manage his schizophrenia and has had cardiac conditions in the past. When checking vitals, you read a blood pressure of 90/65 mmHg. What should you be mindful of?
a. Local anesthetics containing epinephrine can worsen his low blood pressure.
b. Explain to the patient that his medication can lead to weight gain and Type II Diabetes.
c. You are less worried about the sides effects of the drug like tardive dyskinesia
d. He should be restrained with straps during the procedure for safety
A
102
A patient has complained about anhedonia, fatigue, and insomnia for the last two weeks. Furthermore, he cannot recall or think clearly and has explained that he does not eat as much as he used to. Which of the following is not a suitable therapy?
Mono-Amine Oxidase Inhibitors
Selective Serotonin-Reuptake Inhibitors
Tricyclic Antidepressants
Lithium Bicarbonate
D lithium
103
A patient experiences a sudden weakness of his left face. Although he is able to raise his eyebrows and wrinkle his forehead, his left facial muscles are completely paralyzed. He is unable to close his left eye tight and the left corner of his mouth droops. Identify the most likely location of his nerve injury.
Left CN V
Left CN VII
Right CN VII
Right primary motor cortex
D
104
A patient complains of blurry vision and eye pain. Intriguingly, he reports that the color red appears less saturated these days than before. Also, he experiences an electric sensation shooting down the back whenever he flexes his neck. What else might you find during a thorough examination?
CSF testing reveals negative oligoclonal bands
CSF testing reveals reduced IgG index
Inability to abduct one eye
Afferent Pupillary Defect (APD) in one eye
D afferent
105
Signs/Symptoms of Anorexia include the following except:
a. Significant Weight Loss
B. Distorted Body Image
C. Intense fear/anxiety about gaining weight
D. Binging and purging
D
106
Dentists are responsible for looking for these signs in patients with eating disorders except:
a. Erosion
b. Lack of multivitamins and supplements
c. Fatigue
d. Enlarged parotid glands
B
107
A patient presents to your dental office for a dental cleaning. At the end of the visit the patient mentions that they have been experiencing numbness in their chin for the past 6 months. They have no history of cancer. What may be causing this?
Malignancy
ALS
MS
Parkinson’s
C MS
108
Your patient is very inquisitive and asks you to tell them what nerve is affected from Bell's Palsy. Their friend had recently had this happen to them and they wanted to know more about it. Which major nerve is affected?
VIII
VI
VII
XI
C VII
109
Which of the following is not a method of treating anxiety disorders
Benzodiazepines (e.g., alprazolam, diazepam)
Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist (aka, beta-blockers like propranolol)
MAOIs
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) - less common in acute settings
C MAOIs
110
Which of the following is not a positive symptom of schizophrenia
A. Grandiose
B. Controlling
C. Referential
D Anhedonia
D
111
Wilson disease occurs due to a mutation in the ATPase copper transporter and is called the “Great Masquerader”. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Wilson disease?
Liver failure
Kayser-Fleischer rings
Dyskinesias
Sleep disturbances
D sleep
112
Parkinson’s disease is due to a dopamine deficiency. What part of the brain is affected that leads to this dopamine deficiency?
Substantia nigra
Third ventricle
Frontal cortex
Cerebellum
A Substancia nigra
113
The sodium-potassium pump plays an important role in the functions of the neuron. Without the sodium-potassium pump, the neuron would become
a. more sensitive because of accumulation of sodium ions.
b. more sensitive because of accumulation of potassium ions.
c. overfilled with sodium ions and unable to fire.
d. overfilled with potassium ions and unable to fire.
C
114
You have a patient in your dental chair showing facial paralysis. You are suspecting the patient might have Bell’s Palsy. You recall what you have learned in Mind, Brain, and Behavior foundations about similar clinical symptoms between Bell’s Palsy and Stroke. How would clinically differentiate Bell’s Palsy and Stroke to make a correct diagnosis? Choose the most correct answer that is the most useful for making your clinical diagnosis.
a. Bell’s Palsy affects a single nerve, but stroke is mostly caused by a blood clot that stops blood flow to the brain.
b. Bell’s Palsy is associated with Lower Motor Neuron lesion while Stroke is associated with Upper Motor Neuron lesion.
c. Stroke is typically more prevalent in age over 60 but Bell’s Palsy typically has a wider age group, 20-50s.
d. Patients with Bell’s Palsy have facial paralysis in the one side of their face if there is no delay of symptoms, but facial paralysis caused by Stroke will not affect upper facial muscles due to dual innervation originating on both sides of the brain.
D
115
PMDD patients should not take strong medications, but they are recommended to take healthy diet, regular exercise, and vitamins. However, this medication is allowed for PMDD patient.
MAOIs
TCAs
SSRIs
Benzodiazepines
C ssri
116
Schizophrenia patients have positive and negative symptoms. The positive symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. The delusion shows which part of the brain deficit?
Hippocampus
Temporal lobe
Parotid
Thyroid
B temp
117
Which epilepsy medication causes excessive bleeding?
A) Phenytoin
B) Valproic acid
C) Carbamazepine
D) Gabapentine
B
118
Parkinson’s disease is a deficiency in which of the following neurotransmitters?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Glycine
D) Acetylcholine
A
119
You are listening to your classmate rap and are hearing many different musical notes from the beat. How does your brain process this difference of pitch?
Tonotopic Organization
All cells process the same sounds at the same time, and more are recruited when the sound is louder.
Any cell that isn’t already processing a note will signal the brain of a new pitch.
Pitch Differentiation
A tonotopic
120
Your patient complains that their visual field is not quite as wide as it used to be, and after a neurologic physical exam, you realize that their peripheral vision in both eyes is gone. You refer them to their PCP to see if they have:
Age-Related Macular Degeneration
Diabetic Retinopathy
Glaucoma
Pituitary Adenoma
Pituitary Adenoma
121
1. A patient comes in exhibiting symptoms of encephalitis with Parkinson like symptoms. They have recently been traveling in India. What disease are they most likely to have?
West Nile Virus
Japanese Encephalitis
HSV-1
Neisseria Meningitidis
B Japanese
122
You have a patient who is on Carbamazepine for Epilepsy but also needs premed due to an artificial heart valve. What antibiotic do you NOT use?
Amoxicillin
Clindamycin
Erythromycin
Azithromycin
C erythro
123
Which of the following is not a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Avolition
Disorganized speech
Alogia
Diminished emotional expression
Disorganized speech
124
A patient comes in with schizophrenia and tells you that your front desk worker is in love with them because she asked them how their day was. Which type of delusion is this?
Erotomanic
Grandios
Referential
Control
Erotomanic
125
Homeostasis is a function of which brain component?
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Basal Ganglia
D. Brainstem
B
