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Applied Anatomy > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What muscle attaches to the acromion of the scapular spine?

A

Acromial part of the deltoideus muscle

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2
Q

You used a Rosenthal needle in lab to obtain a bone marrow aspirate from the proximal humerus. What is another application of needle placement in this location? Hint-it is often used in young kittens or puppies

A

The needle placement in this location can also be used for intra-osseous administration of fluids in a young puppy or kitten that has very small veins or poor blood pressure.

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3
Q

List two neoplasms that you could find located on the digit.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma, osteosarcoma, synovial cell sarcoma, soft tissue sarcoma, mast cell tumor

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4
Q

When performing a digit amputation, what is the name of the joint that is disarticulated?

A

The metacarpophalangeal joint

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5
Q

What is the main goal of an orthopedic examination?

A

To localize pain

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6
Q

During your orthopedic examination of a 10-year-old MN Golden retriever, you elicit bone pain of the proximal humerus. You are concerned about a potential bone lesion. Give 2 potential rule outs for a dog of this signalment.

A

primary bone tumor, fracture, arthritis, fungal osteomyelitis

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7
Q

A 3-year-old Fs Cocker spaniel presents with potential shifting leg lameness in the forelimbs. You palpate joint effusion in multiple joints on your orthopedic examination. What are two diagnostic tests that you would want to perform on the fluid?

A

Cytology, fluid analysis, culture

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8
Q

The right adrenal gland is ______________ to the caudate process of the caudate liver lobe.

A

dorsal

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9
Q

The lesser omentum is ______________ to the papillary process of the caudate liver lobe.

A

ventral

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10
Q

The gallbladder is to the ______________ of the quadrate liver lobe.

A

right

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11
Q

The left lobe of the pancreas is in the ______________ leaf of the greater omentum.

A

dorsal

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12
Q

The ascending colon is ______________ to the transverse colon.

A

orad

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13
Q

what organ is located in the mesoduodenum

A

right limb of pancreas

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14
Q

“Flick”, a 2 yr old M Heeler, ingested some straight sewing needles. One of the needles penetrated the stomach and lodged in the lesser omentum. Describe the (1) attachments of the lesser omentum and (2) how you will expose the lesser omentum during your abdominal explore to find the needle.

A

(1) The lesser omentum is attached caudally to the lesser curvature of the stomach and cranially to the liver.

(2) To see the lesser omentum, retract the stomach caudally and elevate the left liver lobes ventrally.

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15
Q

A thrombus is identified in the celiac artery via ultrasound. Which organs will the arterial supply be impacted?

A

duodenum, liver, pancreas R & L limbs, spleen, stomach

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16
Q

Main site for bile to exit from the biliary tree in the dog

A

Major duodenal papilla

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17
Q

Main site for bile to exit from the biliary tree in the cat

A

Major duodenal papilla

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18
Q

Main site for endocrine pancreatic secretions to exit the pancreas in the dog

A

Pancreatic vein

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19
Q

Main site for endocrine pancreatic secretions to exit the pancreas in the cat

A

Pancreatic vein

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20
Q

Main site for exocrine pancreatic secretions to exit the pancreas in the dog

A

Minor duodenal papilla

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21
Q

Main site for exocrine pancreatic secretions to to exit the pancreas in the cat

A

Major duodenal papilla

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22
Q

If you were a drop of bile, list the structures you would enter or pass through, in chronological order, from the moment you leave the liver to when you exit the biliary tree. Assume the body will not be eating until several hours after you leave the liver.

A

Liver –> hepatic duct –> common bile duct –> cystic duct –> gallbladder –> cystic duct –> common bile duct –> major duodenal papilla –> duodenum

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23
Q

List the 3 classic components of brachycephalic airway syndrome that can be treated surgically

A
  1. Stenotic nares: treatment is rhinoplasty
  2. Elongated soft palate - treatment is staphylectomy
  3. Everted laryngeal saccules - treatment is resection of everted saccules
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24
Q

stage 3 laryngeal collapse due to end-stage BOAS (Brachycephalic Obstructive Airway Syndrome) later in life, and this collapse could not be repaired surgically, the back-up, salvage surgical procedure that could be done to establish a patent airway is

A

permanent tracheostomy

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25
Q

Make a numbered list (in chronological order) of each tissue layer you will go through when you perform a temporary tracheostomy. After each layer, indicate in parentheses (1) if that layer will be cut or retracted, and (2) in which direction this incision or retraction will take place.

A

Skin (incise craniocaudally)

Subcutaneous tissue (cut craniocaudally)

Cutaneous m. (cut craniocaudally)

Subcutaneous tissue (cut craniocaudally)

Sternohyoid muscles (retract laterally)

Annular ligament between tracheal rings 3 & 4 or 4 & 5 (transverse incision, right to left or left to right).

NOTE: there is often subcutaneous tissue on either side of the cutaneous muscle, so be prepared for this.

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26
Q

how to place bilateral tubes for nasal 02

A

You mark the tubes at a length equal to the distance from the tip of the nose to the ipsilateral MEDIAL CANTHAS and direct each tube in a VENTROMEDIOCAUDAL direction as you insert into the nostril.

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27
Q

Steps for placing a cerclage wire for a mandibular symphyseal fracture

A

The hypodermic needle is placed in a ventrodorsal direction. The hypodermic needle is passed on the lateral side of the mandible. The wire is passed through the needle in a dorsoventral direction. The wire is passed caudal to the visible portion of the lower canine teeth. The wire twist is located ventral to the mandibular symphysis.

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28
Q

The location where the distal end (i.e. the end that is inside the esophagus) of the esophagostomy tube should be when you complete the procedure

A

Measure the tube so that it will end up in the mid-thoracic region. You do not want it to sit close to or in the gastroesophageal sphincter where it can stimulate reflux. The esophagus is fairly dorsal, so your selection should be in the dorsal 1/3 of the thorax.

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29
Q

Which of the following best describes the main path(s) the distal end of the esophagostomy tube (i.e. the end that ends up inside the esophagus) will take from the time you grasp it with your Carmalt and pull it into the esophagus until the procedure is complete?

A

Orad then aborad

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30
Q

List at least two top differential diagnoses for the diffuse, bilateral muffled heart& lung sounds.

A

Pneumothorax

Hemothorax

Diaphragmatic hernia

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31
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Prior to thoracocentesis, the pneumothorax compromised Tardis’s respiration in part by making the pressure in the thoracic cavity more positive than normal.

A

true

32
Q

Name two arteries associated with the chest wall that you need to avoid when performing thoracocentesis. For each artery, describe its location and how you will minimize the risk of damaging it during thoracocentesis.

A

(1) Intercostal artery - located immediately caudal to rib; avoid it by placing needle in the middle to caudal portion of the intercostal space.

(2) Internal thoracic artery - runs parallel to the sternum between the sternum and costochondral junction; avoid it by inserting needle dorsal to the costochondral junction.

33
Q

explain (1) the situation that must exist to create a tension pneumothorax and (2) why a tension pneumothorax is usually more severely/rapidly life threatening than a non-tension pneumothorax.

A

(1) To get a tension pneumothorax, the hole through which air is entering thorax has formed in such a way that it acts as a one-way valve. Air can enter but cannot exit the thoracic cavity through this hole. (Note- this hole can be in chest wall or it can be in lung or intra-thoracic trachea/bronchi).

(2) Because air cannot escape the thoracic cavity, intrathoracic pressure builds and builds to the point where the chest is fully expanded and the animal can no longer effectively move the chest wall to ventilate the lungs. This ever-increasing pressure also decreases pre-load and limits cardiac filling, decreasing cardiac output and blood pressure. Tension pneumothorax can be rapidly fatal.

In both tension and non-tension pneumothorax, the intrapleural pressure is more positive than normal due to presence of air. However, unlike tension pneumothorax in which the intrapleural pressure is ever-increasing, this pressure is relatively stable in non-tension pneumothorax because either (a) the hole through which air entered has sealed or (b) the hole is still open and air can move both in and out of the thoracic cavity (thus intrathoracic pressure equilibrates with atmospheric pressure).

Emergency treatment for tension pneumothorax - perform continuous thoracocentesis until a chest tube can be placed (ASAP) and hooked up to a continuous suction device that pulls air out of the thoracic cavity faster than it is moving into the thoracic cavity.

Most cases of traumatic pneumothorax, whether tension or not, respond to medical management (removing air via thoracocentesis or chest tube, as appropriate) and do not need surgery. Typically treatment starts with thoracocentesis, but if pneumothorax recurs more than 1-2 more times, or if tension pneumothorax is present, a chest tube is placed for intermittent or continuous aspiration of air (as appropriate).

34
Q

Other than a dressing or bandage, list 2 separate steps you will take when placing the tube to help prevent room air from tracking along the outside of the tube into the chest and worsening the pneumothorax.

A

(1) Tunnel the tube through the SQ so that the entry into the skin is not directly over the entry into the chest. (2) Place pursestring suture in skin around entry site of tube. (3) Do not make incision any bigger than the diameter of the tube.

(Note: Promptly closing the bulldog clamp is important to prevent worsening of pneumothorax due to air entry through the tube, but does not affect air tracking in along outside of tube)

35
Q

Flail chest occurs when there are at least 1 fractures in each rib of the flail segment. The flail segment moves 2 on inspiration and 3 on expiration. To increase comfort and improve ventilation, lay the animal down on the 4 side of the thorax as the flail segment.

A
  1. 2
  2. medial
  3. lateral
  4. ipsilateral
36
Q

true or false: rib fractures will need to be surgically repaired in order to protect the lungs from repeated injury by the fractured bones.

A

false.
It is uncommon to need to surgically address fractured ribs. In most cases the rib fragments are still stabilized by muscle/pleura attachments so that when the chest expands, the fractured rib moves outward too. While the expanding lung may contact the broken end of the rib, the simultaneous outward movement of the rib fragment and the relative pliability of the lung decrease the risk that the lung will be impaled on the rib during breathing. Perforation of the lung by a fractured rib is more likely to occur at the time of injury when the forces are greatest than during post-trauma breathing.

37
Q

Distal end of a Thoracostomy tube

A

ventrolateral rib cage, in between ribs 4 & 5

38
Q

Distal end of a Nasal oxygen tube

A

medial canthas/lacrimal duct

39
Q

Distal end of a Nasogastric tube

A

caudal to the 13th rib

40
Q

Distal end of a Esophagostomy tube

A

dorsolateral rib cage, between 7 & 8 ribs

41
Q

Trace the blood flow from the descending aorta to the jejunum and then continue tracing it until it has gone through a PDA and into the vessel beyond it.

A

Descending aorta - cranial mesenteric artery - jejunal artery - jejunum - jejunal vein - portal vein - liver - hepatic vein - caudal vena cava - right atrium - right ventricle - pulmonary artery - lung - pulmonary vein - left atrium - left ventricle - descending aorta - PDA - pulmonary artery

42
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The venous drainage of the prostate gland goes to the portal system.

A

false

43
Q

Describe how to view the DORSAL aspect of the left limb of the pancreas when performing an abdominal explore.

A

Elevate both leaves of the greater omentum, reflect them cranioventrally, and look at the dorsal aspect of the left lobe of the pancreas in the craniodorsal aspect of the deep leaf.

44
Q

Most cases of GDV begin with the pylorus moving

A

dorsally and to the left.

45
Q

Gastropexy procedure

A

suture the pyloric antrum of the stomach to the right body wall

46
Q

The most efficient way to find an abdominal cryptorchid is to

A

trace the ipsilateral ductus deferens to the cryptorchid testicle by first locating the ductus deferens dorsal to the bladder.

47
Q

What causes the palpable (and sometimes audible) pop when performing an Ortolani maneuver in a dog with hip laxity?

A

As we put proximal force into the lax hip, it results in subluxation (dorsally). As we abduct the limb, this subluxation is forced to reduce and the head of the femur falls back into the acetabulum, resulting in a palpable and sometimes audible pop .

48
Q

The cranial cruciate ligament originates on the 1 surface of the -2 femoral condyle and runs distally and diagonally to insert on the 3 portion of the intercondylar area of the tibia. A complete tear of the cranial cruciate ligament allows 4 movement of the tibia relative to the femur and allows 5 rotation of the tibia relative to the femur.

A
  1. Caudomedial
  2. lateral
  3. craniomedial
  4. cranial
  5. internal
49
Q

how to perform a cranial drawer sign on the right stifle.

A

The left hand would be on the distal femur with the thumb on the lateral fabella and the index finger on the patella. The right hand would be on the proximal tibia with the thumb on the fibular head with the index finger on the tibial tuberosity.

50
Q

Describe the movement of the tibia with respect to the femur when performing the drawer sign in a dog with a torn cranial cruciate ligament.

A

Relative to the femur, the tibia would move cranially and rotate internally.

51
Q

The adrenal glands are ____________ to the ipsilateral kidney.

A

craniomedial

52
Q

The papillary process of the caudate liver lobe is ____________ to the caudate process of the caudate liver lobe.

A

craniomedial

53
Q

The portal vein is ____________ to the right lobe of the pancreas.

A

dorsal

54
Q

The cecum is ____________ to the ileum.

A

aborad

55
Q

The prostate gland is ____________ to the rectum.

A

ventral

56
Q

The hepatic veins are ____________ to the diaphragmatic incision made for transdiaphragmatic cardiac massage.

A

dorsal

57
Q

The apex of the heart is ____________ to the base of the heart.

A

ventral

58
Q

The suspensory ligament is primarily ____________ to the ipsilateral kidney.

A

lateral

59
Q

Trace the blood flow from the descending aorta at the level of the diaphragm to the transverse colon and back again to your starting place in the descending aorta.- with a PDA and PSS

A

descending aorta - caudal mesenteric artery - transverse colon - caudal mesenteric vein - portal vein - gastroduodenal vein - left gastric vein - PSS - azygos vein - cranial vena cava - right atrium - right ventricle - pulmonary artery - PDA - descending aorta

Notes:
(1) The azygos vein can empty into the cranial vena cava (and then the right atrium) or the right atrium directly; either is acceptable answer.
(2) The caudal mesenteric vein can empty into the cranial mesenteric vein (and then the portal vein) or the portal vein directly; either is acceptable answer.
(3) The pink oral MM and cyanotic vulvar membranes are consistent with a right to left PDA. This reversal of flow is secondary to the pulmonary hypertension that develops over time as a left to right PDA keeps directing excess blood volume into the lungs. Eventually, the pulmonary vascular pressure exceeds the pressure in the systemic circulation, and flow through the PDA reverses direction.

60
Q

You expose the left gutter by holding the 1 in a 2 direction so that the viscera are kept out of the gutter by the 3. You locate the bleeding left testicular artery where it has retracted back to its normal site of origin off of the 4. The origin of the left testicular artery is 5 to the left kidney.

A
  1. descending colon
  2. ventromedial
  3. mesocolon
  4. aorta
  5. caudomedial
61
Q

List 6 structures that you should be able to palpate on your rectal exam of a normal dog

A

1) rectum, 2) anal sphincter, 3) anal sacs, 4) pelvic diaphragm, 5) urethra, 6) prostate, 7) pelvic canal

(You should palpate for enlarged sublumbar lymph nodes, but won’t feel them in a normal dog)

62
Q

rectal exam on a left-sided perineal hernia

A

Absence of support lateral to left rectal wall due to atrophy of pelvic diaphragm muscles (levator ani, coccygeus); can bend finger that is in rectum caudally and push perineal skin on left side out caudally.

63
Q

Chose the most appropriate 4 steps (in chronological order) for a retrograde urohydropulsion in an intact male dog?

A

Insert urethral catheter until the inserted end is just DISTAL to the urethrolith.

Assistant performs rectal exam and press VENTRALLY to occlude the PELIVC urethra.

Inject saline + lubricant into the urethral catheter, distending the urethra.

Assistant releases compression of the urethra WHILE YOU CONTINUE injecting.

64
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describe the location of the anal sacs?

A

deep to the external anal sphincter and superficial to the internal anal sphincter.

65
Q

The distal opening of the vagina is______________________ to the urethral tubercle.

A

dorsal

66
Q

The clitoral fossa is ______________________ to the urethral papilla.

A

caudal

67
Q

In the pelvic canal, the urethra is ______________________ to the vagina.

A

ventral

68
Q

During a prescrotal canine castration, you are holding the testicle ventrally out of the incision. When breaking down the gubernaculum, you avoid the testicular vessels, which are ______________ to the gubernaculum in this orientation.

A

cranial

69
Q

The anal sacs are ______________________relative to the rectal opening.

A

ventrolateral

70
Q

Consider a male dog with both testicles descended into the scrotum. At its most cranial point, the ductus deferens is located ______________________ to the ipsilateral ureter.

A

cranial

71
Q

menace response

A

Facial, Optic

72
Q

pupillary light reflex

A

Oculomotor, Optic

73
Q

palpebral reflex

A

Facial, Trigeminal

74
Q

patellar reflex

A

Femoral nerve, Nerve formed from L4-L6 spinal cord segments

75
Q

hindlimb withdrawal reflex

A

Sciatic nerve, Nerve formed from L6-S1 spinal cord segments

76
Q

upper motor neuron problem in the forelimb

A

spinal segments C1-C5, Increased spinal reflexes, increased muscle tone, disuse muscle atrophy

77
Q

lower motor neuron problem in the hindlimb

A

spinal segments L4-S1, decreased spinal reflexes, decreased muscle tone, neurogenic muscle atrophy

Applied Anatomy (1 decks)

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