final Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

The individual above has 3 copies of the CYP2D6 gene, assuming that all 3 copies code for normal function enzymes, the CYP2D6 phenotype assignment would be an –

A

UM

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2
Q

– is one of the rare pharmacogenes where people can inherit more than
two copies of the gene

A

CYP2D6
(COPY NUMBER VARIATION)

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3
Q

Some individuals may carry just one copy of the CYP2D6 gene,
Commonly reported as –* allele, which means the allele is —

A

*5 allele
deleted

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4
Q

The function of CYP2D6 / 2D7 hybrids depends on the — variants present in the hybrid gene and is for the most part still under investigation

A

-CYP2D6
-this is called the Hybridization of the CYP2D6 gene with the CYP2D7 pseudogene, where parts of the CYP2D6 gene are often deleted.
-CYP2D6 / 2D7 hybrids can also be on the same chromosome strand with a normal copy of the CYP2D6 gene.
-It is important to know whether the genetic testing laboratories can identify CYP2D6 hybrids

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5
Q

1/2 duplication
means

A

Means the patient has a *2 variant and more than 2 copies of the CYP2D6 gene, but it is not known how many extra copies the patient has

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6
Q

1xN/2

A

Means the patient has more than 2 copies of the CYP2D6 gene, and that the *1 allele is duplicated, but it is unknown how many duplicated copies exist

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7
Q

(1/2)xN

A

Means the patient has three or more copies of the CYP2D6 gene but it is unknown which allele is duplicated and how many copies the patient actually has

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8
Q

what are the values of the activity score system used to assign CYP2D6 phenotypes (from UM to PM)

A

-UM >2.25
-NM 1.25<x<2.25
-IM 0 <x<1.25
-PM 0

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8
Q

what are the values of the activity value system used to assign CYP2D6 enzyme functional status

A

-Increased function: >1
-Normal function: 1
-Decreased function: 0.25 and 0.5
-No function: 0

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9
Q

The CYP2C19*17 allele is characterized by — CYP2C19 enzyme function

A

increased
-Unlike CYP2D6, the CYP2C19 RM and UM phenotypes are assigned in the presence of increased function alleles instead of having multiple copies of a gene.

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10
Q

Polymorphism in the promoter region of the CYP2C19 gene increases —

A

transcription

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11
Q

what are genotype definitions of UM compared to RM for CYP2C19

A

-UM: increased act compared to RM and have 2 increased fucn alleles.
-RM: inc act compared to NM but less than UM: has combinations of normal func and increased func alleles.

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12
Q

— allele frequencies are dependent on race and ethnicity
-which are the most common variants

A

-CYP2C19
- *2 and *3 alleles (principal nonfunctional alleles
)

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13
Q

CYP2C19 are present in the following races:
-*2 allele:
–% of Asians
–% of Caucasians and African Americans

-*3 allele:
–% of Asians
–% of Caucasians and African Americans

-PM phenotype
–% of Asians
–% of Caucasians and African Americans

A

-*2 allele:
30% of Asians
15% of Caucasians and African Americans

-*3 allele:
8% of Asians
less than 1% of Caucasians and African Americans

-PM phenotype
25% of Asians
~5% of Caucasians and African Americans

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14
Q

The CYP2C19 —— allele shares the same promoter region SNP as the increased function CYP2C19*17 allele (-806C>T)

A

no function *4B

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15
Q

It is important to test for — in addition to – to make an accurate CYP2C19 allele assignment

A

-1A>G (in *4B)
- -806C>T

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16
Q

the activity score system is used to assign CYP2C9 phenotypes

A

-NM: 2
-IM: 1 or 1.5
-PM: 0 or 0.5

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17
Q

Each CYP2C9 allele is assigned an activity value that will contribute to the final activity score number

A

-normal function 1
-decreased function 0.5
-no function 0

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18
Q

— enzymes are located both in the gut and the liver
-Patients who express the CYP3A5 gene are CYP3A5 – and – metabolizers.
-Patients who do not express the CYP3A5 gene are CYP3A5 – metabolizers

A

CYP3A5
-normal and intermediate
-poor

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19
Q

-It is common for individuals of – descent to express CYP3A5
enzymes.
-It is common for individuals of – descent NOT to have any
CYP3A5 enzymes (PM)

A

-African
-European

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20
Q

— phenotype is the low-risk phenotype: no dosage adjustments are required for patients with this phenotype.

— are the high-risk phenotypes
Dosing modifications may be necessary for certain medications for patients with these phenotypes

A

-CYP3A5 PM
-CYP3A5 IM and NM phenotypes

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21
Q

– polymorphisms have been associated with reduced glucuronidation in patients who have inherited decreased or no function variants

A

UGT1A1

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22
Q

— genotyping is used o diagnose Gilbert and Crigler-Najjar syndromes

A

UGT1A1

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22
Q

-– Gilbert syndrome
Decreased — activity (~30% of normal)
Patients who have – function variants (-,-,-)
– Crigler-Najjar syndrome (types 1 and 2)
Type 1: — of UGT1A1 activity
Type 2: — enzyme activity

A

– Gilbert syndrome
Decreased hepatic UGT1A1 activity (~30% of normal)
Patients who have two decreased function variants (*6, *28, *37)
– Crigler-Najjar syndrome (types 1 and 2)
Type 1: almost complete absence of UGT1A1 activity
Type 2: severely decreased but detectable UGT1A1 enzyme activity

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23
UGT1A1 expression is regulated by the number of --- repeats in the promoter region of the gene
thymine-adenine (TA)
24
UGT1A1 – Normal function alleles carry -- TA repeats – The decreased function variants are characterized by -- TA repeats – The increased function variant *-- is characterized by -- TA repeats (this condition is typically benign)
-6 (*28) -7 -*36 - 5
25
UGT *6 allele is more common in -- decent *28 is less common in -- -*36 and *37 are more common in africants -*60 allele is -- function more common in ---
-asians -asians -africans -normal function: african americans
26
DPYD activity score
-NM: 2 -IM: 1 or 1.5 PM: 0 or 0.5
27
DPYD activity value
-N fucntion: 1 -dec func: 0.5 -no func: 0
28
Each DPYD allele is assigned an activity --- that will contribute to the final activity --- number
value that will contribute to --score.
29
--- starting doses of warfarin are recommended in individuals carrying a decreased function allele (CYP4F2*3)
higher
30
CYP4F2 is not involved in the metabolism of ---, and it plays a role in ---- which explains why patients need altered doses of --
-warfarin -vitamin K oxidation -warfarin
31
the ---- gene belongs to solute carrier organic anion transporter family
SLCO1B1 member 1B1
32
which is the membrane-bound transporter expressed in the liver to remove many substrates from blood - these substrates include
SLCO1B1 or OATP1B1 - Substrates include many endogenous and xenobiotic compounds including HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins), bilirubin, and methotrexate
33
rs4149056 is -encoded by: --- gene -on chromosome --- kilobases --- exons -confers --- function for several substrates - associated with ---
-encoded by: SLCO1B1 gene -on chromosome 12 - 109 kilobases - 15 exons -confers REDUCED function for several substrates - associated with simvastatin-induced myopathy
34
associated with simvastatin-induced myopathy
rs4149056 encoded by SLCO4149056 *5 and *15: NO FUNCTION ALLELES due to low elimination of statin leading to muscle weakness
35
--- is merging and renaming alleles
PharmVar
35
--- is merging and renaming alleles
PharmVar
36
-SLCO1B1*1 (or *1A) allele: common in ---- -SLCO1B1*1B allele: common in --- -SLCO1B1*5 & SLCO1B1*15 alleles: --- function alleles containing the rs4149056 variant associated with simvastatin-induced myopathy -SLCO1B1*2 & *3: --- function alleles -SLCO1B1*14 & *35: --- function alleles
SLCO1B1*1 (or *1A) allele: common in Caucasians SLCO1B1*1B allele: common in Africans SLCO1B1*5 & SLCO1B1*15 alleles: no function alleles containing the rs4149056 variant associated with simvastatin-induced myopathy SLCO1B1*2 & *3: no function alleles SLCO1B1*14 & *35: increased function alleles
37
what are genotypes for the following SLCO1B1 phenotypes: -IF: -NF: -DF: -PF:
-IF: 1 or more inc func alleles -NF: 2 norm func alleles -DF: 1 norm func and 1 no func alleles -PF: 2 no func alleles
38
------ occur commonly for drug target proteins, including receptors, enzymes, and ion channels
Genetic polymorphisms
39
---- gene: major metabolizing enzyme for S warfarin and vitamin K oxidoreductase (VKOR).
CYP2C9
40
Warfarin inhibits ---, thus preventing the formation of reduced vitamin K1, which is a necessary cofactor for --- and activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X, (F2, F7, F9 and F11) and proteins C and S.
-VKOR γ-carboxylation
41
A common SNP in the VKORC1 regulatory region, -----, significantly contributes to the interpatient variability in warfarin response, as it modulates VKORC1 gene expression
c.1639G>A genotypes: -AA high sens 3mg/d -AG int sens 5mg/d -GG low sens 6-7mg/d
42
Warfarin dose requirements vary by ancestry, with higher dose requirements among individuals of --- ancestry and lower requirements among patients of --- ancestry compared with patients of European (AG) ancestry. -this variability is explained by
-African GG -asian AA -VKORC1 genotype frequency
43
There are two common nonsynonymous SNPs in the --- at codons 49 (p.Ser49Gly) and 389 (p.Arg389Gly).
ADRB1 - these SNPs also appear to modulate blood pressure and clinical responses to ß1receptor blockade
44
The ----- and ----- SNPs are in strong linkage disequilibrium
Ser49Gly and Arg389Gly
45
The Ser49Arg389 haplotype is associated with an increased risk for death among patients with ---- -this risk can be abolished with --- ttt
coronary heart disease -atenolol
46
--- patients who were--- for the Ser49Arg389 haplotype were found to have greater blood pressure reductions with metoprolol, compared with carriers of the Gly49 and/or Gly389 alleles
-Hypertensive -homozygous
47
Among patients with heart failure, the Arg/Arg389 genotype was associated with greater improvements in left ventricular ejection fraction with carvedilol and metoprolol treatment
---Arg/Arg389 ADRB1
48
Although a common polymorphism, ---, results in lower protein expression, its contribution to individual differences in opioid response is unclear (OPRM1)
A118G
49
The evidence associated with the OPRM1 gene is ranked as CPIC level --, meaning that no prescribing action is recommended based on genotype results.
level C
50
HLA genes are highly polymorphic with --- alone having over 1500 identified alleles
HLA-B
51
diplotype definition: presence of 1 or 2 ---- alleles mean positive HLA phenotype and absence of the --- allele mean negative HLA phenotype
HLA-B*57:01
52
-HLA-B*57:01 test has a positive predictive value of --% for immunologically confirmed hypersensitivity: Some HLA-B*57:01 positive patients can be safely treated with ---- -HLA-B*57:01 genotype test has a high negative predictive value (> --%)
-~50% - abacavir ->99%
53
Some clinical laboratories in Asia are offering more comprehensive HLA testing for certain drug-induced --- diseases:
-skin - Carbamazepine: HLA-B*15:08, HLA-B*15:11, HLA-B*15:21
54
which HLA is the most common serotype in Southeast Asia
HLA-B*15:02
55
The RYR1 gene contains instructions for the body’s cells to produce a protein called the ryanodine receptor (RyR1) which is important for --- function
muscle
56
The --- gene provides instructions for making the main piece (subunit) of a structure called a calcium channel in the skeletal muscles.
CACNA1S
57
Variations in the RYR1 and CACNA1S genes are associated with the development of ----- in patients exposed to which drugs
-malignant hyperthermia -Succinylcholine: Depolarizing muscle relaxants and -Fluorinated inhaled anesthetics: halothane, isoflurane, desflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane
58
Mutations of the RYR1 AND CACNA1S genes are ---; patients are susceptible to developing malignant hyperthermia when one variant allele is inherited
autosomal dominant
59
implications for family members of patients who develop malignant hyperthermia
- Pharmacogenomic testing for RYR1 and CACNA1S can help determine susceptibility -Education of a high-risk result implications on family members could be done in conjunction with genetic counselors
60
-mt-RNR1 is a gene in the mitochondrial DNA that codes for the ----
-12S ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
61
Certain genetic variations in the mt-RNR1 gene lead to changes in the shape of the ribosome, which can make the human ribosome look more like bacterial ribosomes, ---------- interferes with bacterial protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit, resulting in a defective bacterial cell membrane
Aminoglycosides - Certain variations in the mt-RNR1 gene cause the human ribosome to look more like bacterial ribosomes * Aminoglycosides lose their specificity for bacterial ribosomes, bind to human ribosomes
62
presence of high risk variant (m.1555A>G) leads to
aminoglycoside-induced hearing loss (Mt-RNR1 variations) -Confirmatory mt-RNR1 genotyping of each family member is not required
63
Genetic material is extracted from the nucleus when the cell at --- (during sell division)
prometaphase because at this stage, the genetic material is condensed and appears as road shape structure called chromosomes
64
2q34 refers to:
Chromosome 2, long arm, region3 and band 4
65
banding technique uses --- stain where each chromosome shows distinct alternate light and dark bans, and Each arm is divided into numbered regions (e.g. 1. 2, 3. …) from centromere outward * In each region the bands are numerically ordered
Gimsa
66
what type of chromosomal abnormality leads to 3n(69) triploidy
Euploidy numerical cytogenic or chromosomal abnormality
67
what type of chromosomal abnormality leads to trisomy 21
Aneuploidy numerical cytogenic or chromosomal abnormality
68
what type of chromosomal abnormality leads to monosomy
Aneuploidy numerical cytogenic or chromosomal abnormality
69
----- is a rare condition where ovum is fertilized with 2 sperms, it is a type of --- chromosomal abnormality
-triploid -Euploidy numerical cytogenic or chromosomal abnormality
70
what are types of structural chromosomal abnormalities
-A-reciprocal translocation -B-robertsonian translocation
71
in B-robertsonian translocation, breaks occur close to the centromeres of ---- chromosomes (numbers---)
-acrocentric chromosomes (13, 14, 15, 21, 22)
72
-what are the cytogenic disorders involving autosomes --what are the cytogenic disorders involving sex chromosomes
-down synd (trisomy 21) -edwad synd (trisomy 18) -patau synd (trisomy 13) -sex chrom: kilnefelter synd (47, XXY)
73
Marfan syndrome is what type of chromosomal abnormality
-monogenic (single-gene) disease -autosomal dominant -FBN1 mutation on gene encoding for fibrillin (connective tissue) leading to skelatal, eyes and CVS system abnormality. clinical features: floppy mitral valve, tall stature and long fingers, aortic aneurysm & aortic dissection.
74
sickle cell anemia is what type of chromosomal abnormality
-monogenic (single-gene) disease -autosomal recessive -HBB gene mutation encoding for hemoglobin -LETHAL AS HOMOZYGOUS and heterozygous generally unaffected
75
Rett syndrome is what type of chromosomal abnormality
-monogenic (single-gene) disease -X-linked dominant -MECP2 gene mutation leading to brain damage -normal girl up tp 18 months where mental retardation appears such as regressive language and movement, microcephaly and seizures
76
Hemophilia A
-monogenic (single-gene) disease -X-linked recessive -F8 gene mutation leading to coagulation defect (factor Vlll) - leading to bleeding
77
DM, CHG, and HTN are what type of genetic abnormalities
Polygenic (Multiple-gene )Diseases
78
Multifactorial (Complex)Diseases are influenceed by both --- and ---
envoronment (AIDS, influenza, and measles) AND genetics (sickle cell and hemophilia A)
79
Mutagenicity is related to --- changes in DNA composition or chromosome structure
heritable
80
---- is a general term for any type of DNA damage, chromosomal alteration which may not always lead to a heritable mutation..
Genotoxicity
81
Not all exposures cause a mutagenic event as there are --- repair DNA systems present
biological
82
---- are also referred to as expression profiles
Transcriptomics
83
----—the study of how an individual’s genetic makeup affects gene expression, protein expression and activity, and metabolism in response to exposures to potentially toxic compounds. * -----—the study of how the genome as a whole responds to exposures to potentially toxic compounds. * -----—the evaluation of mRNA expression levels in cells or tissues. ----- are also referred to as expression profiles. ---- may be used in toxicological studies to evaluate the effects of an exposure on mRNA expression
TOXICOGENETICS TOXICOGENOMICS TRANSCRIPTOMICS
84
---- may be used in toxicological studies to evaluate the effects of an exposure on gene and mRNA expression. MRNA AND GENE
Proteomics: the study of the relative levels of protein expression and activity in animals, cells, or tissues.
85
--- may be used in toxicological studies to evaluate the effects of an exposure on protein expression and activity
Metabolomics the study of the relative production of metabolites in animals, cells, or tissues
86
---- is cellular division which occurs in non-reproductive (somatic cells)
Mitosis
87
---- is cell division which occurs in the reproductive (germ) cells
meiosis
88
Toxicogenomic data from ------ studies may be complemented by proteomics and metabolomics studies to evaluate the effects of an exposure
DNA microarray
89
-------- methods may replace microarrays genotyping methods for high-throughput genotyping.
next-generation DNA sequencing
90
statement
In the pharmaceutical industry, toxicogenomics is already able to predict the toxicities of many compounds, especially those that are hepatotoxins or nephrotoxins
91
Genes that influence drug toxicity have been generally grouped into one of three categories:
* those that code for drug-metabolizing enzymes * those that code for transporters * those that code for human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)
92
lower activity variants of the metabolizing enzymes CYP2C9 of warfarin CYP2C9*-, and CYP2C9*--, are at higher risk for over-anticoagulation or bleeding
CYP2C9*2, and CYP2C9*3
93
VKORC1 has several polymorphic alleles, and the ------ variant has been found to be significantly associated with dose variability and to contribute to the risk of patients experiencing over-anticoagulation or bleeding events
c.1639G>A
94
During Korean War, the G6PD deficiency was found to be responsible for the severe hemolytic anemia suffered by some soldiers with the use of ------
Primaquine
95
medications that can cause hemolytic anemia in the presence of G6PD deficiency include
-Primaquine -antimicrobial Dapsone used to treat leprosy and -Rasburicase used to treat hyperuricemia in cancer patients
96
6-MP is metabolized to cytotoxic metabolites that cause significant adverse effects. * 6-MP is inactivated in part by thiol methylation catalyzed by the polymorphic thiopurine ------ enzyme. * Low-activity variants of the --- enzyme have been identified.
thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT)
97
Patients who are genetic -------- for the low-activity variant of TPMT have intermediate levels of TPMT activity, while those who are ---------- for the low-activity allele have low or no TPMT activity.
-heterozygotes -homozygotes
98
* Decreased TPMT activity puts patients at risk for developing significant -------- with azathioprine and 6-MP administration, because high levels of 6-MP are then available for metabolism to the cytotoxic metabolites that accumulate.
myelotoxicity
99
* A low-activity variant of UGT1A1, UGT1A1*28, has been identified and is associated with an increased risk of cancer patients developing severe ------- during ------- treatment due to increasing levels of SN-38.
-neutropenia -irinotecan
100
* Very serious dermatological reactions that include Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) can occur in some patients taking ----------
carbamazepine
101
An association has been found between the risk of developing SJS and TEN and the presence of a genetic variant of HLA-B, HLA-B*15:02 * This association appears to be most prevalent in patients of ------- ancestry.
Asian
102
HLA-B*57:01, has been found to be associated with a severe hypersensitivity reaction to --------.
abacavir -not SJS or TEN like carbamazepine, but a clinical syndrome involving multiple organs.
103
statement
* CPIC guidelines are designed to help clinicians understand HOW available genetic test results should be used to optimize drug therapy * – Not WHETHER tests should be ordered
104
Key assumption: * – Clinical high-throughput and ------- will become more widespread * – Clinicians will be faced with having patients’ genotypes available even if they did not order test with drug in mind
preemptive genotyping
105
which resources create gene/drug pairs guidelines that provide guidance on how to use eisting pharmacogenomic test results to optimize medication therapy
CPIC and DPWG
106
centralized database of genetic testing labs worldwide and their offering created via voluntary submissions
genetic testing registry (GTR)
107
searchable database of curated phg literature and information including clinical guidelines and drug labeling from around the world also includes imp pharmacogene summary and phg pathway diagrams
PharmGKB
107
online repository for pharmacogene nomeclature key info about imp phgenes
phrmacoene variation consortium (pharmVAR)
108
pharmGKB Strength of evidence
-level 1A: cpic pgx guidelines -level 1B: preponderance evid shows association -level 2A: qualifies for 2b where the variant is within a Very Important Pharmacogenes -level 2B: moderate evidence of an association – Level 3: single significant not yet replicated study or multiple studies but lacking clear evidence of an association * – Level 4: case report, non-significant study or in vitro, molecular or functional assay evidence only
109
Within the context of pharmacogenomics, testing involves searching for genetic variations linked to medication --- or --- rather than to disease susceptibility.
efficacy or toxicity
109
Currently there is no international standard for -----------.
genetic testing
110
In many instances, ----------- testing will carry little risk for ethical, legal, and social concerns.
pharmacogenomics
111
An individual may experience --------- from family, friends, and coworkers on knowledge that a specific disease will not respond to therapy or if one is identified as a “poor metabolizer” of a specific medication.
Stigmatization is defined as “a social process that begins with distinguishing and labelling some feature of a person such as occupation, disease, or skin color.”
112
Recent examples of potential “blockbuster” drugs that have been recalled from the market for adverse drug events or toxicity include --
cerivastatin, cisapride, alosetron, and troglitazone - The ability to recover R&D expenses from these market failures by reintroducing these agents for a targeted patient group would provide SHORT-term revenues for the industry