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Pharm Final Kent State 2022 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Emergency medication for anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine

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2
Q

For blood pressure you would use a ____ dose of dopamine.

A

High Dose

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3
Q

What drug would you use for orthostatic hypotension?

A

Midodrine

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4
Q

What drugs would you use for MG?

A

“stigmines”

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5
Q

Why would you use pyridostigmine?

A

No unwanted CNS effect

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6
Q

What medication would you use in a cholinergic crisis?

A

Atrophine

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7
Q

What are the two drugs for alzheimers? Which inhibits Ache?

A

Donepezil*, memantine

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8
Q

What drug do we use for urinary retention?

A

Bethanechol Chloride

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9
Q

What is the purpose of Levodopa-Carbadopa?

A

Increase dopamine to treat parkinson’s disease.

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10
Q

Which combo drug for Levo-Carb is highly protein bound, inhibits COMT and AE is rhabdo?

A

Tolcapone

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11
Q

What is atrophine?

A

muscarinic agonist

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12
Q

Which drug would you use for urine spasticity?

A

Oxybutynin

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13
Q

What drugs would you use for IBS?

A

Lina, Lupi, Dicyclomine Hydrochlorine

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14
Q

What is a “pril” what are two main side effects?

A

ACE-I; hyperkalemia, ace cough

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15
Q

What are “sartans” , how many doses would you take for CHF?

A

ARBs; bind to angio II, 2 doses

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16
Q

What are “dipine” drugs, what dont they effect? What is the main concern?

A

Calcium Channel Blocker, HR, Hypotension

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17
Q

What is the suffix for beta-blockers? What do they treat. Black box warning?

A

“olol” HTN, glaucoma, dysrhythmia ; tiltrate over 14 days

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18
Q

Which drugs would you administer for a hypertensive crisis?

A

Nitroprusside, Hydralazine

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19
Q

What are the two sodium channel blockers? Why aren’t they used?

A

Quinidine, lidocane ; worsen dysrhytmia

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20
Q

What is an adverse effect of potassium channel blockers? What are the 4 drugs. When are they indicated?

A

Pulmonary/Hepatic Toxicity;
Sotalol, ibutilide, amiodarone, dofetilide
IV tachy

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21
Q

Which emergency drug converts SVT to NSR by depressing AV conduction?

A

Adenosine

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22
Q

What kind of drug is nitroglycerin? How long does it take to absorb?

A

Nitrate ; rapid 1-4min

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23
Q

What drug is used for first-line angina?

A

Ranolazine

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24
Q

Which drug is a potent vasoconstrictor used for shock? What labs to monitor?

A

Norepi ; ALT, AST

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25
What drug is used for extraversion?
Phentolamine
26
What drug is a cardiac glycoside? TI? Common side effect?
Digoxin, .8-2ng/mL , yellow/green visual disruptions
27
What is the antidote for Digoxin?
Digifab
28
By increasing Ca++ in the heart, this drug decreases pre/afterload.
Milrinone
29
When is Nesiritide contraindicated?
SBP < 90
30
Which drug allows ventricular filling?
Ivabradine
31
Which lab value would you run for Heparin? What is the antidote for Heparin?
aPTT Protamine Sulfate
32
Which lab value would you run for Warfarin? What is the antidote for Warfarin?
INR/PT Vitamin K
33
What is the antidote for Dabigatron?
Idarucizumab
34
What is clopidogrel contraindicated in?
PUD
35
What dose of Aspirin is used for prevention of thrombi?
81mg
36
Which anti-platelet is used for intermittent claudication?
Cilostazol
37
Which thrombolytic destroys clots post PE, CVA?
Altepase
38
What is the purpose of a statin? When to administer? Side effect?
Decrease LDL, VLDL ; 80% in stool HS Myalgia's , rhabdo
39
Which dyslipidemic decreases absorption of drugs and fat soluble vitamins?
Cholestyramine
40
Which drug increases HDL and is contraindicated in gallbladder disease?
Fibrates
41
Which drug is used for familial hypercholesterima?
Alirocumab
42
What are poeitin drugs are used for? When are they contraindicated?
Increasing HGB, HCT by inducing erythrocytes In normal renal function or HGB <12g
43
What is Filgrastim used for?
Stim WBC in neutropenia
44
What drug would you use for anemia?
Ferrous z-track between meal ; not with milk, egg, or antiacid
45
What is the most potent diuretic? When would you use this med? How many ml/min should you push?
Furosemide PE, CHF - desired rapid effect 20ml/min
46
Which diuretic is used first line for HTN?
"Thiazide" Hydrochlororthiazine Metolozone
47
Used for HD, liver ascites and hyperaldosterone, what drug is potassium sparing? What kind of diet? Onset? Black box?
Spirolactone Low K+ tumorigenic
48
Which diuretic is osmotic, used to decrease h2o and electrolyte reabsorption? What is it to treat?
Mannitol Intraocular/Intracranial pressure
49
What is the antidote for mannitol?
Hyaluronidase
50
This diuretic is used for glaucoma, acts at the aqueous humor and AE is metabolic acidosis.
Acetazolamide
51
Which drugs are decongestants? What do they do? Black box?
Pseudoephedrine, Oxymetazoline Vasoconstriction Rebound congestion, only use 3-5 days
52
Which drug is an expectorant?
Guanifenesin
53
This mucolytic is used for cystic fibrosis and is an antidote for acetaminophen OD.
Acetylcysteine
54
What do antihistamines treat?
Symptoms not hypersensitivity
55
Which drug is a H1 antagonist for allergies?
Diphenhydramine !CNS depression - watch older adult
56
Why would Fexofenadine or Cetirisine be perfered over an H1 antagonist?
bind peripherally, dont cross BBB safer in older adults
57
Which drug would you use for an acute asthma attack?
Albuterol
58
What should you ask a patient before prescribing Theophylline?
Do you smoke?
59
Which drug do you need to rinse your mouth after use? Why?
Belcomethazine - cotricosteroid Can cause candidia
60
What is the black box for montelukast?
Neuropathic events
61
Which drug is a mast cell stabilizer used for prophylaxis?
Cromolyn
62
What is the black box for Omalizumab?
anaphylaxis
63
Which insulin can be administered IV?
Regular
64
Which drug antidiabetic is the first choice for type 2 diabetes?
Metformin Treat PCOS Does not cause hypoglycemia BB >80 Hold 48hr pre/post contrast
65
What is the black box warning for Rosiglitaxone?
CHF, MI
66
Which diabetic drug limits insulin release to balance insulin? AE effects?
Sitagliptin, upper respiratory effects
67
Which diabetic drug has a black box warning for severe hypoglycemia when used with insulin?
PRAMLINITIDE
68
Which drug excretes the right amount of insulin? What is the black box warning?
Exenatide; thyroid cancer
69
What should the nurse use caution with when administering Canagliflozin?
Hypotension, dizziness
70
Which drug is anorexiant by slowing norepi and seratonin?
Phentermine
71
What is the purpose of Orlistat?
decrease 30% of fat and the absorption of calories AE: incontinence
72
Which drug neutralizes gastric acid?
Mylanta
73
Which drug blocks HCL? What is an adverse effect?
Cimetide Arrhythmia
74
Which drug is the most potent to treat peptic ulcer disease by preventing gastric acid release? When should you take it?
Omeprazole ACHS
75
Which two drugs inhibit mucosal damage from NSAID's?
Misoprostal - abortionifact Sucralfate
76
What are the two treatments for H. Pylori?
Triple - amoxicillian+ clarithromycin - acid reliever Quad - bismuth
77
When should you not administer Promethazine? What are adverse effects?
Children under 2, sub q CNS depressants, liver failure
78
What is purpose of hydroxyzine?
Block histamine CTZ
79
Which drug does not produce drowsiness? what is AE effect?
Ondansetron Prolonged QT wave
80
What drug would you use for someone who is undergoing chemotherapy? Why?
Aprepitant Treated delayed n/v
81
Which laxative is bulk-forming, needing a full glass of water with administration, and takes 12-24hr to work?
Psyllium
82
What drug is a cathartic that irritated the GI mucosa to produce a rapid response works in 6-12 hours?
Bisacodyl
83
When would you use a saline catharitic?
bowel prep, takes 30-60 minutes ! electrolyte imbalance
84
What is the purpose of using diphenoxylate with atropine as an antidiarrheal?
slows peristalsis 45-60min ! infectious cause

Pharm Final Kent State 2022 (1 decks)

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