Final Flashcards
(301 cards)
1
Q
What clinical examination confirms that a scoliosis is
structural rather than functional?
a. Adam test
b. Stork test
c. Spinal Palpation
d. Static postural assessment
A
a. Adam test
2
Q
You see an anteater sign. What pattern of tarsal coalition does this represent?
a. Talonavicular
b. Calcaneocuboid
c. Talocalcaneal
d. Calcaneonavicular
A
d. Calcaneonavicular
3
Q
Your patient has 2/5 strength of the wrist flexors. What nerve root?
A
C7 nerve root
4
Q
What imaging modality is the gold standard for the
evaluation of bone density?
a. MRI
b. Bone scan
c. CT
d. DEXA
e. Radiographs
A
d. DEXA
5
Q
The distal femurs demonstrate and Erlenmeyer flask
deformity.The patients T-score is +2.0. What is the first
item on your differential?
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Thalassemia
c. Sickle Cell
d. Cushings Disease
A
a. Osteopetrosis
6
Q
Rickets and hyperparathyroidism coexist in what
condition?
a. Hypervitaminosis D
b. Ehlers Danlos
c. Hypophosphatasia
d. Renal osteodystrophy
A
d. Renal osteodystrophy
7
Q
What is the name of the system for grading skeletal
maturation based on the iliac apophysis
a. Cobb
b. Riser
c. Greulich and Pyle
d. Nash-Moe
A
b. Riser
8
Q
A new mom presents with SI pain. There are triangular
Fock of sclerosis in a bilateral asymmetric distribution.
What is the diagnosis?
a. PI Ilium
b. Ankylosing Spondylitis
c. Osteitis Condensans ilii
d. Psoriatic arthritis
A
c. Osteitis Condensans ilii
9
Q
A 35 year old underwater welder presents with a stippled
lesion in the medullary cavity of the proximal humeral
metaphysis. The lesion has a serpiginous contour. Which
should be the first item on your differential?
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Enchondroma
c. Medullary Infarct
A
c. Medullary Infarct
10
Q
Which condition should you suspect when a PA chest
radiograph reveals a pectus excavating and a 4-5cm
thoracic aorta?
a. Marfan syndrome
b. Klippel Feil syndrome
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Progressive systemic sclerosis
A
a. Marfan syndrome
11
Q
You suspect your patient has a non-emergent abdominalaortic aneurysm. What is the most appropriate imaging
follow-up?
a. MRI w/ contrast
b. Doppler with ultrasound
c. CT angiogram
d. Radiographs
A
b. Doppler with ultrasound
12
Q
Which arthritis, when untreated, has the greatest
association with Osteonecrosis?
a. Progressive systemic sclerosis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
A
d. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
13
Q
What imaging tool is the definitive diagnostic test for
complex regional pain syndrome?
a. SPECT Scanning
b. 3 phase bone scan
c. MRI w/ contrast
d. Radiographs
A
b. 3 phase bone scan
14
Q
What is the minimum Meyerding grade for bilateral facet
dislocation?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
A
c. 3
15
Q
Which injuries are associated with child abuse? SELECT
ALL THAT APPLY
a. Skull fractures
b. Rib fractures
c. Metaphyseal corner fractures
d. Multiple fractures in various stages of healing
e. No correct answer listed
A
a. Skull fractures
b. Rib fractures
c. Metaphyseal corner fractures
d. Multiple fractures in various stages of healing
16
Q
Which MRI pulse sequence is most sensitive for edema?
a. T1
b. Proton density
c. STIR
d. T2
A
c. STIR
17
Q
A geographic lytic expansile lesion is present in the distalfemoral metaphysis of a 32yo patient. There is a short zoneof transition, no periosteal reaction, no matrix pattern andno soft tissue mass. The lesion grows directly to thetrochlear groove. What is the diagnosis?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. GCT
c. Fibrous Dysplasia
d. Plasmacytoma
A
b. GCT
18
Q
Intoxication with which mineral is associated with gout?
a. Lead
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Tin
A
a. Lead
19
Q
An 8 year old presents with 5 weeks of ankle pain.
Radiographs reveal a geographic lytic lesion in the
medullary cavity of the distal tibial metaphysis. There is noperiosteal reaction, no matrix calcification and no softtissue mass. Past medical history is remarkable for
pneumonia 8 weeks ago. What is the diagnosis?
a. SBC
b. Brodies Abscess
c. Enchondroma
d. Chondroblastoma
A
b. Brodies Abscess
20
Q
What condition is a well established cause of
Osteonecrosis?
a. Marfan Syndrome
b. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Anabolic steroid treatment
d. Caisson disease
A
d. Caisson disease
21
Q
Your patient has torticollis. Radiographs reveal globular
calcification immediately inferior to the anterior arch of
C1. What is the diagnosis?
a. Idiopathic torticollis
b. Atlantoaxial rotary subluxation
c. Unilateral facet dislocation
d. Hydroxyapatite deposition disease
A
Hydroxyapatite deposition disease
22
Q
What is the biggest clinical concern in a patient with a
degenerative spondylolisthesis?
a. Radiculopathy
b. Instability
c. Fracture
d. Central Stenosis
A
Central Stenosis
23
Q
Which condition is hall marked by bony horns growing
off the posterior aspect of the ilia?
a. Congenital dysraphism
b. Osteoonychodystrophy
c. Cleidocranial dysostosis
d. Renal osteodystrophy
A
Osteoonychodystrophy
24
Q
Which portion of the SI joints best demonstrates the
erosive changes of ankylosing spondylitis?
a. Lower/sacral
b. Upper/Iliac
c. Upper/sacral
d. Lower/iliac
A
c. Upper/sacral
25
What is the radiographic latent period for osteomyelitis of the distal radius?
a. 7-10 days
b. 14-17 days
c. 1-3 days
d. 21+ days
a. 7-10 days
26
Which feature helps distinguish hemophilia from JCA?
a. Ballooning of the epiphysis
b. Increased intercondylar notch
c. Osteopenia
d. Uniform joint space loss
b. Increased intercondylar notch
27
What is the MRI findings for a hemangioma?
a. High T1, High T2
b. High T1, Low T2
c. Low T1, Low T2
d. Low T1, High T2
a. High T1, High T2
28
Why does a cervical spine burst fracture have a higher rate
of neurologic compromise than a lumbar spine burst
fracture?
a. Inherent size of spinal canal
b. The flexion/distraction mechanism
c. More columns are disrupted
d. The presence of the spinal cord
d. The presence of the spinal cord
29
Which findings are more common in thalassemia than insickle cell anemia? MARK ALL THAT APPLY 1-4.
a. Hair on end skull
b. Osteonecrosis
c. Erlenmeyer flask deformity
d. H-shaped vertebra
e. No correct answer listed
a. Hair on end skull
c. Erlenmeyer flask deformity
30
Which organism is the most common to cause
osteomyelitis in a user of IV heroin?
a. P. Aeruginosa
b. E. coli
c. S. aureus
d. Y. pestis
c. S. aureus
31
A 53 year old underwater welder presents with a
stippled medullary lesion in the proximal humeral
metaphysis. What should be the first item on the
differential diagnosis list?
a. Medullary infection
b. Enchondroma
c. Chondrosarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
32
Which is the primary diagnostic criteria for Scheuermann
disease?
a. 3 segments with 5 degrees of wedging
b. Hypomobility of the thoracic spine
c. Numerous schmorls nodes
d. 30 degrees or greater thoracic kyphosis
a. 3 segments with 5 degrees of wedging
33
What is the most common organism to cause
osteomyelitis?
a. Y. Pestis
b. P. aeruinosa
c. P. carnii
d. S. Aureus
d. S. Aureus
34
Which cervical spine manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis
is the most clinically significant?
a. Increased ADI
b. Pencil sharpened spinous processes
c. Disc space loss
d. Stair step deformity
a. Increased ADI
35
Your patient has positive Ottawa criteria for the knee.
Radiographs reveal an obliquely oriented radiolucent
line in the patella, with corticated margins. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Bipartite patella
b. Osteochondritis dissecans
c. Vertical patellar fracture
d. Chondromalacia patella
a. Bipartite patella
36
Which of these conditions represents an absolute
contraindication to HVLA manipulation of the spine and
extremities?
a. Ehlers Danlos
b. Achondroplasia
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Cervical ribs
Ehlers Danlos
37
Which condition does NOT have generalized osteopenia as a radiographic finding?
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Osteomalacia
a. Osteopetrosis
38
Multiple geographic lytic lesions with hazy internal
calcification is present in the proximal femurs, with an
accompanying bilateral shepherds crook deformity in a
52yo. What is the diagnosis?
a. Paget’s disease
b. Enchondromatosis
c. Blow out METS
d. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
a. Paget’s disease
39
Which finding in the hands and feet is strongly suggestive
of acromegaly?
a. Spade tufts
b. Arachnodactyly
c. Trident hand
d. Supernumerary epiphysis
a. Spade tufts
40
AP and lateral bilateral knee views on a 20yo demonstrate excessive bowing of the femurs and tibiae. Mild generalized osteopenia is noted. In the distal tibiae, there are radiolucent lines extending approximately 1/3 of the way through the bone. What is the diagnosis?
a. Osteomalacia
b. Paget’s disease
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Rickets
A. Osteomalacia
41
Which type of Modic change is characterized by high T1
and low T2 signal on MRI
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
d. 2
42
On a 12yo patient, the AP ankle demonstrates a fracture through the tibial epiphysis, running into the growth plate. On the lateral view there is a metaphyseal fracture of the tibia, also running into the growth plate. What type of salter Harris fracture is described?
a. 4
b. 1
c. 2
d. 5
e. 3
a. 4
43
A bone is noted extending from the Lamina of C5 to the
greater angle of the scapula. This is seen in frequent
association with which condition?
a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Cleidocranial dysplasia
c. Klippel Feil syndrome
d. TOS
c. Klippel Feil syndrome
44
Which of the 5 cervical lines is the most reliable to
determine the presence of a spondylolisthesis?
a. Anterior body line
b. Posterior body line
c. Spinous tip line
d. Spinolaminar line
e. Prevertebral soft tissues
b. Posterior body line
45
Which feature aids in distinguishing Myositis Ossificans
from osteosarcoma?
a. Zonal phenomenon
b. Attachment to bone
c. Soft tissue ossification
d. Biopsy
a. Zonal phenomenon
46
Soft tissue infection with clostridium perfringens will
demonstrate which of the 4 radiographic densities?
a. Water
b. Fat
c. Air
d. Metal
e. Bone
c. Air
47
Your patient has decreased sensation along the lateral
aspect of the leg, running anterior to the lateral malleolus, and extending along the dorsum of the foot. Which disc herniation(s) would be consistent with the finding? MARK ALL THAT APPLY 1-6 ANSWERS.
a. L4/L5 foraminal
b. L4/L5 subarticular
c. L5/S1 foraminal
d. L3/L4 subarticular
e. L5/S1 subarticular
f. L3/L4 foraminal
b. L4/L5 subarticular
c. L5/S1 foraminal
48
What is the most likely location in the musculoskeletal
system for tuberculosis to disseminate?
a. Knee
b. Skull
c. Shoulder
d. Spine
d. Spine
49
A football player presents with severe neck pain, after
tackling an opponent while leading with his helmet.
Radiographs reveal anterior wedging of C6, as well as
convex posterior body margin. What is the diagnosis?
a. Compression fracture
b. Extension teardrop fracture
c. Burst fracture
d. Flexion teardrop fracture
a. Compression fracture
50
Your patient has a 23 degree right convexity from T1-T6
and a 34 degree left convexity from T6-T11. What term
would be applied to this finding?
a. Double structural
b. Double idiopathic
c. Double primary
d. Double major
c. Double primary
51
There is a fracture fragment at the anterior inferior body margin of C6. What is the mechanism of injury?
a. Rotation
b. Flexion
c. Lateral flexion
d. Extension
B. Flexion
52
Your patient presents with back pain 2 weeks after
abdominal surgery. Radiographs are normal. What is the best follow up imaging?
a. CT
b. CT with contrast
c. MRI with contrast
d. MRI
C. MRI w contrast
53
The idea behind imaging decision making is to decrease
population radiation dose as much as possible. What is the
term applied to this concept?
a. AMAP
b. ALARA
c. SCIWORA
d. ROFL
b. ALARA
54
In what paragraph of the radiology report would the
following statement go: A rib is noted arising from C7 onthe left?
a. A
b. BC
c. S
a. A
55
Which condition has Wormian bones and osteopenia as
the primary findings?
a. Cleidocranial dysplasia
b. Melorheostosis
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
56
Frontal radiographs demonstrate a short segment, high
angles scoliosis. Which of these would you expect to find in the apical region?
a. Lateral hemivertebra
b. Posterior scalloping
c. Tall vertebra
d. Twisted ribbon ribs
a. Lateral hemivertebra
57
What is the threshold for translational instability in the
lumbar spine?
a. 2.0mm
b. 2.5mm
c. 3.0mm
d. 3.5mm
e. 4.0mm
f. 4.5mm
g. 5.0mm
f. 4.5mm
58
A 14 year old patient has a left lumbar scoliosis.
Radiographs reveal a sclerotic right pedicle of L2. What is the etiology of the scoliosis?
a. Idiopathic
b. Developmental
c. Tumor-related
d. Functional
b. Developmental (pedicle agensis leads to contra sclerosis)
59
Which radiographic appearance is most suggestive of
chronic osteomyelitis?
a. Geographic lytic lesions
b. Laminated periosteal reaction
c. Permeative Osteolysis
d. Wavy solid periosteal reaction
d. Wavy solid periosteal reaction
60
Select all conditions with posterior vertebral body
scalloping as a feature?
a. Achondroplasia
b. AAA
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. No correct answer listed
a. Achondroplasia
61
According to the most up to date evidence based
information, what is the best imaging to determine the
presence of an active fatigue fracture of the pars
interarticularis?
a. SPECT
b. CT
c. Oblique radiographs
d. MRI
a. SPECT
62
What is the term applied to pain associated with a
lumbosacral transitional segment?
a. Clasp knife syndrome
b. Klippel Feil syndrome
c. Bertolotti syndrome
d. Maigne syndrome
c. Bertolotti syndrome
63
What condition has an epiphyseal osteochondroma as a feature?
a. Brahma bull
b. Maffucci syndrome
c. Trevor disease
d. Osteochondromatosis
c. Trevor disease
64
Numerous hyperpigmented cutaneous Macule’s with a
smooth outer border are consistent with what condition?
a. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
b. Paget disease
c. Neurofibromatosis
d. Conradi Hunermann Disease
c. Neurofibromatosis
65
What is the term applied to the bone demonstration
permeative Osteolytic in osteomyelitis?
a. Sequestrum
b. Involucrum
c. Sinus
d. Cloaca
b. Involucrum
66
Select 2 conditions which both have generalized
osteoporosis and Osteonecrosis as features?
a. Marfans
b. Cushings
c. Acromegaly
d. Sickle cell anemia
b. Cushings
d. Sickle cell anemia
67
What imaging follow up should be preformed on patients with neck pain and a congenital fusion?
a. Diagnostic ultrasound
b. Computed tomography
c. Flexion/extension radiographs
d. MRI with contrast
c. Flexion/extension radiographs
68
What would you include on the differential for a clavicle
in 2 separate prices, both ends having smooth well rounded corticated margins?
a. No correct answer listed
b. HPT
c. Non-union fracture
d. PTOC
e. Cleidocranial dysplasia
e. Cleidocranial dysplasia
69
A vascular necrosis of the lunate is associated with which of the following?
a. Lunate dislocation
b. Scapholunate dissociation
c. Negative ulnar variance
d. Fischer fracture
e. No correct answer listed
c. Negative ulnar variance
70
Which metabolic arthritis is associated with “crowned
dens syndrome”?
a. HADD
b. Gout
c. Ochronosis
d. CPPD
d. CPPD
71
A 14 year old track athlete presents with complaints of
“patellar tendinitis”. Radiographs demonstrate
fragmentation of the apex of the patella. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Sinding Larsen Johansson
b. Van neck
c. Blount
d. Osgood schlatter
A. Sinding Larsen Johansson
72
When involving the cervical spine, which condition is
frequently associated with dysphasia?
a. DISH
b. Facet DJD
c. SCM
d. OCI
a. DISH
73
Which of these would be a cause of a functional scoliosis?
a. Neurofibromatosis Type 1
b. Leg length inequality
c. Cerebral palsy
d. Moderate DJD
b. Leg length inequality
74
Following a FOOSH injury, your patient has numbness of the thumb, index and middle fingers. What injury do you suspect?
a. Scaphoid fracture
b. Lunate dislocation
c. Cole’s fracture
d. Gamekeeper injury
b. Lunate dislocation
75
A 13 year old running athlete presents complaining of
progressively worsening leg pain. Radiographs reveal
cortical thickening in the tibial diaphysis. There are no
other abnormalities. Which do you suspect?
a. Fatigue fracture
b. Torus fracture
c. Insufficiency fracture
d. Stress fracture
a. Fatigue fracture
76
The L2 vertebral body is wedged anteriorly. The posterior body margin is concave.The posterior elements are intact. There is a step defect in the anterior body cortex. What is the diagnosis, and is this acute or old?
a. Chance fracture
b. Compression fracture
c. Acute
d. Burst fracture
e. Old
b. Compression fracture
77
Which conditions should be included in a widened medial hip joint space in a pediatric patient?
a. SCFE
b. Septic Arthritis
c. LCP
d. Osteoid osteoma
e. No correct answer listed
c. LCP
78
You suspect acromegaly. What imaging should be ordered
a. MRI with pituitary protocol
b. CT of the brain
c. MRI of the brain with contrast
d. Lateral skull radiographs
a. MRI with pituitary protocol
79
Your patient has unilateral sacroiliac irregularity and
sclerosis, and also complains of hand pain and stiffness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Enteropathic arthritis
b. Reactive arthritis
c. Psoriatic arthritis
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Psoriatic arthritis
80
What is the most common geographic lytic lesion in the foot?
a. Non-ossifying fibrous
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst
d. Enchondroma
d. Enchondroma
81
An AP and frog leg hip radiograph on an 8 year old
reveals sclerosis, flattening and fragmentation of the
femoral head. What is the diagnosis?
a. SCFE
b. Kholers
c. Chandlers
d. Legg Calve Perthes
d. Legg Calve Perthes
82
The technetium 99-MDP used in bone scintigraphy is
taken up by which type of bone cell?
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoclasts
c. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoblasts
83
You note conduit wall calcification in the 3 view hand
radiograph of your patient, What is the underlying cause?
a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Complex regional pain syndrome
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Reynaud phenomenon
c. Atherosclerosis
84
A 7 year old patient has an eccentric, geographic lytic
lesion in the distal tibial metaphysis. There is a narrow
zone of transition, ground glass matrix, no soft tissue mass. The x-ray was taken because the child has twisted their ankle. What is the diagnosis?
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Non-ossifying fibrous
c. Fibrous cortical defect
d. Fibrous xanthoma
c. Fibrous cortical defect
85
Which imaging modality does not utilize ionizing
radiation?
a. Bone scan
b. Ultrasound
c. Radiographs
d. Computed tomography
b. Ultrasound
86
A 54 year old patient has a 3cm blastic lesion in the
sacrum. The lesion is found to be warm on bone scan. What is the diagnosis?
a. Blastic METS
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Enostoma
d. Osteoma
c. Enostoma
87
Which is associated with shoulder impingement
syndrome?
a. Bankart fracture
b. Humeral pseudotumor
c. Cleidocranial dysplasia
d. Os acromiale
d. Os acromiale
88
Knee radiographs in a 32 year old reveal intracapsular effusion, as well as destruction of the subarticular cortex at the trochlear groove. What is the diagnosis?
a. PVNS
b. Septic arthritis
c. Primary SCM
d. GCT
D. GCT
89
What is the most common wrist fracture in a 65 year old
patient with a FOOSH injury
a. Torus
b. Colle’s
c. Scaphoid
d. Fischer
b. Colle’s
90
A subarticular lucent cleft is noted in the top of the
femoral head. What stage of AVN does this indicate?
a. Avascualr
b. DeformitY
c. Revascularization
d. Repair/remodeling
c. Revascularization
91
There is an anterior translation of C1 with an ADI
measuring 7mm. What has would you include in your
differential diagnosis?
a. Down syndrome
b. Jefferson fracture
c. Os Odontoideum
d. Odontoid Agenesis
e. Rheumatoid arthritis
f. No correct answer listed
a. Down syndrome
b. Jefferson fracture
e. Rheumatoid arthritis
92
You detect an ivory vertebra in a 61 year old. There is no anterior scalloping. There is no vertebral enlargement. The cortex is normal thickness. What is the first item on your differential?
a. Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Idiopathic
c. Paget’s disease
d. Metastatic disease
d. Metastatic disease
93
Lumbar radiographs reveal generalized osteopenia,
widened bilateral SI joints and several soft tissue
calcification. A rheumatoid panel is negative. What is the diagnosis?
a. Acromegaly
b. Scleroderma
c. Enteropathic arthritis
d. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hyperparathyroidism
94
Lumbar radiographs on a 38 year old demonstrate a
missing pedicle at L2 on the right. The contralateral pedicle is mildly enlarged. Which should be the first diagnosis on the differential list?
a. Agenesis
b. Myeloma
c. Diastematomyelia
d. Metastasis
a. Agenesis
95
There is motheaten osteolysis with a wide zone of
transition in the right ilium in a 57 year old female. There is no periosteal reaction, matrix pattern or soft tissue mass.
Select the correct differential.
a. Metastatic disease, multiple myeloma, lymphoma
b. Metastatic disease, lymphoma, multiple myeloma
c. Multiple myeloma, lymphoma, metastatic disease
d. Multiple myeloma, metastatic disease, lymphoma
Metastatic disease, multiple myeloma, lymphoma
96
AP and frogleg radiographs on a 5 year old patient
demonstrate a small femoral head, a steeply inclined
shallow acetabulum and a superolateral femoral
displacement. What is the diagnosis?
a. SCFE
b. SONK
c. LCP
d. DDH
d. DDH
97
A pediatric patient has bulbous costochondral junctions. Which condition do you suspect?
a. Chondrodysplasia punctata
b. Hemophilia
c. Rickets
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Hemophilia
98
A skiers thumb is a disruption of which ligament?
a. Radial collateral ligament at the MCP
b. Ulnar collateral ligament at the MCP
c. Radial collateral ligament at the IP
d. Ulnar collateral ligament at the IP
b. Ulnar collateral ligament at the MCP
99
The laminae of L5 are present however do not unite posteriorly, which is the most appropriate conclusion?
a. Spondyloschiesis
b. Spina bifida occulta
c. Congenital block vertebra
d. Omovertebral bone
e. Clasp knife deformity
b. Spina bifida occulta
100
Which of the following are an absolute contraindication to adjusting the upper cervical spine? Select all that apply.
a. Os Odontoidium
b. Os terminale of bergman
c. Pathologically increased ADI
d. Agenesis of the odontoid
e. C2-3 block vertebra
a. Os Odontoidium
c. Pathologically increased ADI
d. Agenesis of the odontoid
101
Which of the following is the most common form of hemiverteba?
a. Ventral
b. Lateral
c. Dorsal
d. Superior
e. Inferior
b. Lateral
102
Which of the following is the most likely conclusion when 1 vertebral segment has 3 pedicles?
a. Ventral hemivertebra
b. Dorsal hemivertebra
c. Lateral hemivertebra
d. diastomatomyelia
e. klippel-feil syndrome
c. Lateral hemivertebra
103
Which of the following is not associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome?
a. Congenital block vertebra greater than 2 vertebral levels
b. Omovertebral bone
c. Plantar calcaneal enthesopathy
d. Urological abnormalities
e. Sprengels deformity
c. Plantar calcaneal enthesopathy
104
Which of the following is often associated with diastomatomyelia?
a. Butterfly vertebra
b. Lateral hemivertebra
c. Ventral hemivertebra
d. Dorsal hemivertebra
a. Butterfly vertebra
105
Which of the following is considered a variant of a schmorls node?
a. Butterfly vertebra
b. Lateral hemivertebra
c. Ventral hemivertebra
d. Dorsal hemivertebra
e. Limbus bone
e. Limbus bone
106
Which of the following is associated with Turner's syndrome? Select all that apply.
a. Madelung Deformity
b. Omovertebral bone
c. Sprengels deformity
d. brachymetacarpia
e. stylohyoid ligament ossification
a. Madelung Deformity
d. brachymetacarpia
107
. Bilateral ribs are articulating with a vertebra near the CT junction with transverse processes oriented superiorly, which of the following is most appropriate? Select all that apply.
a. Cervical ribs
b. Thoracic ribs
c. Normal finding
d. Lumbar ribs
e. Pathological finding
b. Thoracic ribs
c. Normal finding
108
. Eagle's syndrome is associated with which of the following?
a. Spondyloschiesis
b. Stylohyoid ligament ossification
c. Posterior ponticulum
d. Omovertebral bone
e. Cervical ribs C7
b. Stylohyoid ligament ossification
109
A Lumbosacral transitional segment is noted with left sided articulation and right sided spatulation without articulation nor fusion, which of the following Castellvi classifications is appropriate?
a. 1
b. 2A
c. 2B
d. 3A
e. 4
E. 4
110
A Lumbosacral transitional segment is noted with left sided fusion and right sided spatulation without articulation nor fusion, which of the following Castellvi classifications is appropriate?
a. 1
b. 2A
c. 2B
d. 3A
e. 4
D. 3A
111
A Lumbosacral transitional segment is noted with left sided fusion and right sided spatulation with articulation, which of the following Castellvi classifications is appropriate?
a. 1
b. 2A
c. 2B
d. 3A
e. 4
4
112
Which of the following is the most common rib anomaly?
a. Srb's anomaly
b. Lushka's bifurcated rib
c. Missing rib
d. Twisted ribbon ribs
e. Partial agenesis of the first rib
b. Lushka's bifurcated rib
113
Which of the following is characteristic of, or associated with congenital hip dysplasia? Select all that apply.
a. Superolateral dislocation of the femur
b. Shallow acetabulum
c. Osacetabuli
d. Putti's triad
e. Large femoral capital epiphysis
a. Superolateral dislocation of the femur
b. Shallow acetabulum
d. Putti's triad
114
Which of the following tarsal coalitions has been associated with an anteater nose appearance?
a. Talocalcaneal
b. Naviculocuneiform
c. calcaneocuboid
d. calcaneonavicular
e. cuboid-cuneiform
d. calcaneonavicular
115
An osseous fragment is visualized at the superolateral aspect of the patellas bilaterally, which is the most likely conclusion?
a. Transverse patellar fractures
b. Stellate patellar fractures
c. Vertical patellar fractures
d. Bipartite patellae
e. Typical patellae appearance
d. Bipartite patellae
116
A ballet dancer has been experiencing pain at the posterior aspect of the left ankle while practicing, which of the following is the most likely finding upon conventional radiographic exam of the ankle?
a. Fractured cuneiform
b. Os supranaviculare
c. Os subfiblare
d. Ostibialeexternum
e. Os trigonium
e. Os trigonium
117
A bony growth is visualized proximal to the elbow upon radiographic examination, the growth is pointing toward the elbow. ~~~~~~~is the most likely diagnosis and ~~~~~nerve is most commonly affected?
a. Pedunculated osteochondroma, ulnar
b. Supracondylar process, radial
c. Supracondylar process, median
d. Pedunculated osteochondroma, median
e. Pedunculated osteochondroma, radial
c. Supracondylar process, median
118
Which of the following is the most common carpal coalition?
a. lunotriquetral
b. scapholunate
c. scaphotrapezium
d. trapeziotrapezoid
e. lunocapitate
a. lunotriquetral
119
Which of the following are best visualized on the lateral projection of each respective body region? Select all that apply.
a. Horizontal Sternal fracture
b. Horizontal coccyx fracture
c. Horizontal sacral fracture
d. Jones fracture
e. Vertical patellar fracture
a. Horizontal Sternal fracture
b. Horizontal coccyx fracture
c. Horizontal sacral fracture
120
. Which of the following is the view of the knee in which a Lipohemarthrosis can be visualized?
a. AP
b. Medial oblique
c. Cross table lateral
d. lateral
e. merchant
c. Cross table lateral
121
Which of the following is also known as Piedmont's fracture?
a. Galeazzi
b. Monteggia
c. Nightstick
d. Triquetral
e. Fifth metacarpal neck
a. Galeazzi
122
. Which of the following is the most common carpal bone to fracture?
a. Trapezium
b. Lunate
c. Scaphoid
d. Triquetrum
e. Capitate
c. Scaphoid
123
. Which of the following carpal bones is most susceptible to injury?
a. Trapezium
b. Lunate
c. Scaphoid
d. Triquetrum
e. Capitate
c. Scaphoid
124
Which of the following is the most common carpal bone to dislocate?
a. Trapezium
b. Lunate
c. Scaphoid
d. Triquetrum
e. Capitate
b. Lunate
125
Which of the following carpal bone fractures is also known as a Fischer fracture?
a. Trapezium
b. Lunate
c. Scaphoid
d. Triquetrum
e. Capitate
d. Triquetrum
126
Which of the following is the most common fracture of the elbow in adults?
a. Capitellum
b. Radial head
c. Olecranon
d. Supracondylar
e. Trochlea
b. Radial head
127
Which of the following represents the most common radiographically occult fracture?
a. Rib
b. Scaphoid
c. Radial head
d. 3 rd metatarsal shaft
e. Talar dome
b. Scaphoid
128
Which of the following represents the most common location for Osteochondritis dissecans?
a. Talar dome
b. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
c. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
d. Capitellum
e. Rib
b. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
129
. Which of the following is also known as Kocher's fracture?
a. Radial head
b. Capitellum
c. Trochlea
d. Ulnar head
e. Olecranon
b. Capitellum
130
Which of the following is the most common elbow fracture in a pediatric patient?
a. Capitellum
b. Radial head
c. Olecranon
d. Supracondylar
e. Trochlea
d. Supracondylar
131
Which of the following locations of the scaphoid most predisposes it to AVN when fractured?
a. Waist
b. Proximal pole
c. Distal pole
b. Proximal pole
132
Which of the following is/are eponyms for a radial styloid fracture? Select all that apply.
a. Fischer
b. Hutchinson
c. Chauffeur
d. Barton
e. Backfire
b. Hutchinson
c. Chauffeur
e. Backfire
133
Which of the following is/are eponyms for a posterior distal radius intra-articular fracture? Select all that apply.
a. Rim
b. Barton
c. Backfire
d. Kocher
e. Colles
a. Rim
b. Barton
134
Which of the following muscles avulses from the AllS?
a. Sartorius
b. Rectus femoris
c. Hamstrings
d. Adductors
e. Tensor fascia lata
b. Rectus femoris
135
Which of the following is the most common muscle/group of muscles to develop myositis ossifcans?
a. Supraspinatus
b. lnfraspinatus
c. Quadriceps
d. Hamstrings
e. Adductors
c. Quadriceps
136
Which of the following is the appropriate eponym for a comminuted fracture of the base of the first metacarpal?
a. Rolando
b. Bennet
c. Boxer
d. Barroom
e. Skiers thumb
a. Rolando
137
Which of the following ligaments is most likely disrupted in DlSl?
a. lunotriquetral
b. capitohamate
c. radial collateral ligament
d. scapholunate
e. TFCC
d. scapholunate
138
Which of the following is the eponym for a distal radial fracture with posterior angulation?
a. Smith
b. Kocher
c. Fischer
d. Colles
e. Barton
d. Colles
139
Which of the following radiographic signs is most specific of an intra-articular fracture?
a. Anterior fat pad sign of the elbow
b. Posterior fat pad sign of the elbow
b. Posterior fat pad sign of the elbow
140
Which is the most common location of a shoulder dislocation?
a. Subclavicular
b. Subcoracoid
c. lnfraglenoid
d. lntrathoracic
e. Posterior
b. Subcoracoid
141
Which of the following is associated with the most common type of shoulder dislocation? Select all that apply.
a. Bankart fracture
b. Hatchet fracture
c. Body of the scapula fracture
d. Clavicle fracture
e. Flap fracture
a. Bankart fracture
b. Hatchet fracture
e. Flap fracture
142
Which of the following parts of the clavicle is most commonly fractured?
a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Middle
d. Distal
e. Conoid tubercle
c. Middle
143
Which of the following ribs is most commonly fractured in benchpressers?
a. Rib 1
b. Rib 2
c. Rib 3
d. Rib 4
e. Rib 8
b. Rib 2
144
Which of the following tendons do the sesamoids adjacent to the first metatarsal lie?
a. Flexor hallicus longus
b. Flexor hallicus brevis
c. Extensor hallicus
d. Abductor hallicus
e. Adductor hallicus
b. Flexor hallicus brevis
145
. Which of the following is the eponym for a talar fracture?
a. Hutchinson
b. Backfire
c. Anteater
d. Jones
e. Aviator
e. Aviator
146
. A spiral fracture through the diaphysis of the tibia is noted with no evidence of fibular involvement, which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Toddler fracture
b. Tillaux fracture
c. Trampoline fracture
d. Aviator fracture
e. Kocher fracture
a. Toddler fracture
147
. Which of the following is also commonly present with a segond fracture? Select all that apply.
a. ACLtear
b. PCL tear
c. Lateral meniscus tear
d. Medial meniscus tear
e. MCL tear
a. ACLtear
d. Medial meniscus tear
E. Mcl
148
Vertical fractures though the superior and inferior pubic rami in addition to contralateral SI joint dislocation, which is the most appropriate diagnosis?
a. Duverney fracture
b. Straddle fracture
c. Sprung pelvis
d. Malgaigne fracture
e. Bucket handle fracture
e. Bucket handle fracture
149
. Which of the following is the most appropriate eponym for an iliac wing fracture?
a. Malgaigne fracture
b. Duverney fracture
c. Sprung pelvis
d. Bucket handle fracture
e. Straddle fracture
b. Duverney fracture
150
Which of the following is the 2 nd most common fracture of the lumbar spine?
a. Transverse process fracture
b. Simple compression fracture
c. Pars interarticularis fracture
d. Burst fracture
e. Chance fracture
a. Transverse process fracture
151
Which of the following demonstrates the empty vertebra appearance?
a. Transverse process fracture
b. Simple compression fracture
c. Pars interarticularis fracture
d. Burst fracture
e. Chance fracture
e. Chance fracture
152
Which of the following demonstrates the double spinous sign?
a. Hangman fracture
b. Burst fracture
c. Chance fracture
d. Posterior arch fracture
e. Clay shovelers fracture
e. Clay shovelers fracture
153
Which of the following is the most common location for a teardrop fracture?
a. C2
b. C3
c. C4
d. C5
e. C6
a. C2
154
Which is the most appropriate salter harris classification for a fracture of the epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5
d. Type 4
155
Which salter harris classification involves a fracture that demonstrates a Thurston Holland fragment?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
e. Type 5
b. Type 2
156
. Which of the following is/are also known as an osteoclastoma? Select all that apply.
a. Brown tumors of hyperparathyroidism
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Giant cell tumor
d. Chondroblastoma
e. Simple bone cyst
a. Brown tumors of hyperparathyroidism
c. Giant cell tumor
157
. Which of the following is also known as Codman's tumor?
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Giant cell tumor
c. Osteoblastoma
d. Chondroblastoma
e. Enchondroma
d. Chondroblastoma
158
Which of the following is the most common benign bone tumor of the hands and feet?
a. Giant cell tumor
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Non-ossifying fibroma
d. Enchondroma
e. Simple bone cyst
d. Enchondroma
159
Which of the following is the most common benign bone tumor of the vertebral bodies?
a. Hemangioma
b. Enchondroma
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst
d. Osteoblastoma
e. Giant cell tumor
a. Hemangioma
160
Which of the following is the most common benign bone tumor of the sacrum (hint: also the most common benign bone tumor of the patella)?
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Simple bone cyst
c. Brown tumors of hyperparathyroidism
d. Giant cell tumor
e. Enchondroma
d. Giant cell tumor
161
. A 0.8cm nidus is visualized in the diaphysis of the tibia with significant surrounding sclerosis in an 11 year old male, what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. Brodie's abcess
c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Enchondroma
e. Chondroblastoma
c. Osteoid osteoma
162
A 1.4cm nidus is visualized in the proximal tibial metaphysis with mild surrounding sclerosis in a 13 year old female, pain NOT relieved by ASA, what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Osteoid osteoma
b. Brodie's abcess
c. Osteoblastoma
d. Fibrous cortical defect
e. Chondroblastoma
c. Osteoblastoma
163
A geographic lytic lesion is noted in the femoral head in a 15 year old male, what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Enchondroma
b. Chondroblastoma
c. Simple bone cyst
d. Non-ossifying fibroma
e. Eosinophilic granuloma
b. Chondroblastoma
164
. Which of the following is most common to present in epiphyses and apophyses of long bones?
a. Enchondroma
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Chondroblastoma
d. Simple bone cyst
e. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Chondroblastoma
165
Which of the following are findings associated with fibrous dysplasia? Select all that apply.
a. Ground glass matrix
b. Rind of sclerosis
c. Shepherd's crook deformity
d. Long lesion in a long bone
e. Fallen fragment sign
a. Ground glass matrix
b. Rind of sclerosis
c. Shepherd's crook deformity
d. Long lesion in a long bone
166
Which of the following is the most common primary malignant bone tumor of pediatrics?
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Ewing's sarcoma
e. Metastasis
b. Osteosarcoma
167
Which of the following primary malignant bone tumors is associated with cannon ball metastasis to the lungs?
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Ewing's sarcoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Synovial sarcoma
e. Malignant giant cell tumor
c. Osteosarcoma
168
Blister of bone is the buzz word most closely associated with which of the following?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. Simple bone cyst
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst
d. Non-ossifying fibroma
e. Chondroblastoma
d. Non-ossifying fibroma
169
Which of the following is associated with the buzz word raindrop skull?
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Metastasis
c. Osteochondroma
d. Enchondroma
e. Osteosarcoma
a. Multiple myeloma
170
Multiple lytic lesions of varying sizes are noted in the skull, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Osteolytic Metastasis
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Chordoma
d. Osteoblastic Metastasis
e. Osteoblastoma
a. Osteolytic Metastasis
171
. A soap bubbly, lytic, expansile lesion of the posterior elements of the spine is noted at C7, which of the following is least appropriate for your differential?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. Enchondroma
c. Giant cell tumor
d. Aneurysmal bone cyst
e. NO CHOICE E FOR THIS QUESTION
b. Enchondroma
172
A focal area of stippled calcification is visualized in the proximal humeral metaphysis in a 28 year old male, which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Giant cell tumor
c. Enchondroma
d. Chondroblastoma
e. Chondrosarcoma
c. Enchondroma
173
Fallen fragment sign is seen in 10 percent of which primary benign bone tumor?
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Enchondroma
c. simple bone cyst
d. osteoblastoma
e. aneurysmal bone cyst
c. simple bone cyst
174
Approximately 70% of which soap bubbly, lytic, expansile lesions evolve into multiple myeloma?
a. Enchondroma
b. Plasmacytoma
c. Giant cell tumor
d. Chondroblastoma
e. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Plasmacytoma
175
. Lichtenstein's rule applies to which primary malignancy of bone?
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Chondrosarcoma
c. Fibrosarcoma
d. Osteosarcoma
e. Ewing's sarcoma
c. Fibrosarcoma
176
The most common location for a chordoma is?
a. Clivus
b. C2 vertebral body
c. L5 vertebral body
d. Sacrococcygeal
e. Clavicle
d. Sacrococcygeal
177
The most common primary benign bone tumor of the clavicle is?
a. Simple bone cyst
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Giant cell tumor
d. Pagets disease
e. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
178
The most common primary benign bone tumor of the rib is?
a. Aneurysmal bone cyst
b. Fibrous cortical defect
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Simple bone cyst
e. Enchondroma
c. Fibrous dysplasia
179
. Which of the following lab findings are associated with multiple myeloma? Select all that apply.
a. M-spike
b. Reversal of the a-g ratio
c. Bence jones proteinuria
d. Normocytic, normochromic anemia
e. Hypercalcemia
a. M-spike
b. Reversal of the a-g ratio
c. Bence jones proteinuria
d. Normocytic, normochromic anemia
e. Hypercalcemia
180
A sclerotic cumulus cloud appearing lesion is present at the distal femoral metaphysis of a 19 year old male, which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Chordoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Ewing's sarcoma
e. Osteoblastoma
c. Osteosarcoma
181
An ivory vertebra is present at L3 with associated anterior vertebral body scalloping, which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Idiopathic
b. Hodgkin's lymphoma
c. Pagets disease
d. Osteoblastic metastasis
e. Bowel gas
b. Hodgkin's lymphoma
182
Which is the most likely diagnosis for an enlarged ivory L2 vertebral body with a picture frame appearance?
a. Idiopathic
b. Osteitis Deformans
c. Osteoblastic metastasis
d. Hodgkin's lymphoma
e. Normal finding
b. Osteitis Deformans
183
Which is the most likely diagnosis for an ivory vertebra that is not enlarged and does not demonstrate anterior vertebral body scalloping?
a. Idiopathic
b. Iatrogenic
c. Osteitis Deformans
d. Normal finding
e. Osteoblastic metastasis
e. Osteoblastic metastasis
184
Ollier's disease is the eponym for which condition?
a. Multiple osteomas
b. Multiple bone islands
c. Multiple osteochondromas
d. Multiple enchondromas
e. Multiple chondroblastomas
d. Multiple enchondromas
185
Hereditary multiple exostosis is the eponym for which condition?
a. Multiple osteomas
b. Multiple bone islands
c. Multiple osteochondromas
d. Multiple enchondromas
e. Multiple chondroblastomas
c. Multiple osteochondromas
186
A patient with gardner's syndrome has a high risk for which of the following?
a. Malignancy of the colonic polyps
b. Esophageal web
c. Cushings syndrome
d. Gastric ulcers
e. Rheumatoid arthritis
a. Malignancy of the colonic polyps
187
The most common primary bone tumor is?
a. Osteochondroma
b. Enchondroma
c. Chondroblastoma
d. Osteoid osteoma
e. Osteoblastoma
a. Osteochondroma
188
The most common benign bone tumor of the nasal sinuses is?
a. Osteoid osteoma
b. Osteoma
c. Osteoblastoma
d. Chondroblastoma
e. Giant cell tumor
b. Osteoma
189
A 15 year old male twisted his ankle during a soccer match, radiographs were obtained demonstrating a blister of bone appearance in the distal tibial metaphysis, eccentrically located, which is the most appropriate diagnosis?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Fibroxanthoma of bone
d. Non-ossifying fibroma
e. Fibrous cortical defect
d. Non-ossifying fibroma
190
A geographic lucent lesion is seen in the calcaneus with a target sequestrum, which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Enchondroma
b. lntraosseous lipoma
c. Simple bone cyst
d. Chondroblastoma
e. Osteoblastoma
b. lntraosseous lipoma
191
Approximately 90% of metastatic lesions to the skull are?
a. Lytic
b. Mixed lytic/blastic
c. Blastic
a. Lytic
192
Blow out metastasis would most likely be from which primary location?
a. Kidney
b. Adrenal glands
c. Thyroid gland
d. Skin
e. All of the above choices are correct
e. All of the above choices are correct
193
Acral metastasis develops most commonly due to which primary location?
a. Bronchogenic
b. Breast
c. Kidney
d. Brain
e. Bowel
a. Bronchogenic
194
. A super scan is described in relation to which imaging modality and is due to which pathology?
a. Bone scan, multiple myeloma
b. MRI with contrast, metastasis
c. CT, giant cell tumor
d. Bone scan, metastasis
e. Bone scan, giant cell tumor
d. Bone scan, metastasis
195
Which of the following is 'cold' on a bone scan?
a. Enostoma
b. Metastasis
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Osteosarcoma
e. Osteoid osteoma
c. Multiple myeloma
196
Which of the following demonstrates cortical saucerization of a diaphysis of a long bone and a laminated periosteal reaction?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Ewing's sarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Metastasis
e. Multiple myeloma
b. Ewing's sarcoma
197
Which of the following has been associated with crossing open growth plates of long bones
although on a rare occasion?
a. Giant cell tumor
b. Enchondroma
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst
d. Simple bone cyst
e. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst
198
According to Yochum and Rowe, which of the following are characterized as 'the great
imitators of bone pathology'? Select all that apply.
a. Paget disease
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Neurofibromatosis
d. Chordoma
e. Osteoma
a. Paget disease
b. Fibrous dysplasia
c. Neurofibromatosis
199
In which of the following would a patient present with skin lesions characterized as 'coast of
california'?
a. Paget disease
b. Von reckinghausen's disease
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Fibrous cortical defect
e. McCune Albright syndrome
b. Von reckinghausen's disease
200
Which of the following may present with twisted ribbon ribs and dumbbell IVF?
a. Neurofibromatosis
b. Paget disease
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Non-ossifying fibroma
e. McCune Albright syndrome
a. Neurofibromatosis
201
Which of the following has a possible etiology of a viral infection?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. Chondroblastoma
c. Giant cell tumor
d. Fibrous dysplasia
e. Paget disease
e. Paget disease
202
Which of the following is characterized by enchondromatosis in addition to soft tissue
hemangiomas?
a. McCune Albright syndrome
b. Gardner's syndrome
c. Maffuci's syndrome
d. Ollier's disease
e. Mazabraud syndrome
c. Maffuci's syndrome
203
Which of the following is considered common sources of fibrosarcoma due to malignant
degeneration? Select all that apply.
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Paget disease
c. Bone infarction
d. Non-ossifying fibroma
e. Fibrous cortical defect
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Paget disease
c. Bone infarction
204
Which of the following is/are also known as Ankylosing spondylitis? Select all that apply.
a. Marie strumpell disease
b. Bechterews disease
c. Mazabraud syndrome
d. Forestier's disease
e. McCune Albright syndrome
a. Marie strumpell disease
b. Bechterews disease
205
Which of the following is also known as Forestier's disease?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Scleroderma
c. DISH
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
e. SLE
c. DISH
206
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis when there is a decrease in medial
femorotibial joint space while the lateral femorotibial joint space is maintained?
a. Erosive osteoarthritis
b. DJD
c. RA
d. AS
e. Psoriatic arthritis
b. DJD
207
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis when trolley track sign is present in a
patient with crohns disease?
a. AS
b. Enteropathic arthropathy
c. DJD
d. RA
b. Enteropathic arthropathy
208
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a patient that demonstrates
acro-osteolysis and soft tissue retraction of the pads of the fingers as visualized on conventional radiography?
a. Scleroderma
b. SLE
c. RA
d. Gout
e. CPPD
a. Scleroderma
209
A patient with haygarths nodes most likely has which inflammatory condition?
a. AS
b. RA
c. Enteropathic arthropathy
d. DJD
e. Gout
b. RA
210
A lateral knee projection that demonstrates intra-articular loose body calcifications that are
the same size as each other, suprapatellar in location would warrant which likely diagnosis?
a. CPPD
b. Gout
c. Secondary SCM
d. Bakers cyst
e. Primary SCM
e. Primary SCM
211
A left foraminal disc herniation between C6-C7 would affect which nerve root?
a. Left C6
b. Right C6
c. Right C7
d. Left C7
e. Left C8
d. Left C7
212
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with chondrocalcinosis of the
medial meniscus of the knee?
a. HADD
b. SLE
c. Scleroderma
d. Pseudogout
e. Gout
d. Pseudogout
213
Pellegrini Steida can be classified as? Select all that apply.
a. Myositis ossificans
b. HADD
c. CPPD
d. Gout
e. SLE
a. Myositis ossificans
214
Which of the following is characterized by alignment abnormalities without evidence of
osseous erosions?
a. Scleroderma
b. SLE
c. Gout
d. Pseudogout
e. Ochronosis
b. SLE
215
Which of the following is often characterized by the presence of corticated overhanging
margins?
a. Psoriatic arthritis
b. Scleroderma
c. Ochronosis
d. Gout
e. RA
d. Gout
216
A patient presents with calcification of the intervertebral discs and upon urinalysis it is
discovered that their urine turns dark brown/black, what is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Ochronosis
b. Gout
c. CPPD
d. Wilsons disease
e. Hemochromatosis
a. Ochronosis
217
Which of the following is characteristic of DJD?
a. Uniform loss of joint space
b. Heberden's nodes
c. Haygarths nodes
d. Pencil in cup deformity
e. Ray pattern
b. Heberden's nodes
218
Marginal erosions are visualized at the metacarpal heads as well as the ulnar styloid, which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Gout
b. Enteropathic arthropathy
c. RA
d. AS
e. Psoriatic arthritis
c. RA
219
Both SI joints demonstrate fusion with long standing history of low back pain and decreased
ROM, which of the following is least appropriate for your differential?
a. AS
b. Enteropathic arthritis
c. RA
d. Psoriatic arthritis
e. Reactive arthritis
c. RA
220
A patient has spondylophytes, which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. RA
b. Enteropathic arthropathy
c. Ochronosis
d. DDD
e. Psoriatic arthitis
d. DDD
221
Which of the following modic changes demonstrate the finding of hemispheric
spondylosclerosis on conventional radiography?
a. Modic 1
b. Modic 2
c. Modic 3
d. Modic4
e. Modic 5
c. Modic 3
222
A left paracentral disc herniation of L5-S1 will most likely affect which nerve root?
a. Left L5
b. Left S1
c. Right L5
d. Right S1
e. All left sacral nerve roots
b. Left S1
223
Synovial cysts are most common to occur at which vertebral level?
a. L5-S1
b. L4-15
c. L3-L4
d. L2-L3
e. L1-L2
b. L4-15
224
Which of the following is commonly present in patients with DISH?
a. AS
b. RA
c. OPLL
d. HADD
e. CPPD
c. OPLL
225
Marginal syndesmophytes are suggestive of which of the following?
a. AS and SLE
b. AS and Enteropathic arthritis
c. Psoriatic arthritis and scleroderma
d. SLE and scleroderma
e. CPPD and HADD
b. AS and Enteropathic arthritis
226
Non-marginal syndesmophytes are most suggestive of which of the following?
a. Reactive arthritis and SLE
b. Psoriatic arthritis and RA
c. Psoriatic arthritis and reactive arthritis
d. AS and enteropathic arthritis
e. RA and enteropathic arthritis
c. Psoriatic arthritis and reactive arthritis
227
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis with a finding of gull wing deformity?
a. RA
b. AS
c. CPPD
d. HADD
e. Erosive osteoarthritis
e. Erosive osteoarthritis
228
DJD of the wrist is most common at which joint?
a. 1 st carpal metacarpal joint
b. Scapholunate articulation
c. Lunotriquetral articulation
d. 2 nd carpal metacarpal joint
e. 5 th carpal metacarpal joint
a. 1 st carpal metacarpal joint
229
DlSH is most common at which spinal sections?
a. CT junction
b. TL junction
c. LS junction
d. Sl joints
e. Upper cervical spine
b. TL junction
230
OPLL is most common at which vertebral segments?
a. C2-C4
b. C7-T2
c. T7-T10
d. T12-L2
e. L1-L3
a. C2-C4
231
Which is the most likely etiology of atrophic neuropathic arthropathy in the shoulder?
a. ldiopathic
b. latrogenic
c. syringomyelia
d. diabetes
e. neurosyphilis
c. syringomyelia
232
Which of the following is most likely to cause pencil sharpened spinous process appearance
and erosions of the odontoid process?
a. AS
b. CPPD
c. Ochronosis
d. RA
e. SLE
d. RA
233
Loss of the superior component of the femoroacetabular joint space is most likely due to ____ whereas loss of the axial component of the femoroacetabular joint space is most likely due to ____ ?
a. DJD, Gout
b. RA, DJD
c. RA, Gout
d. DJD,RA
e. CPPD, SLE
d. DJD,RA
234
Bilateral protrusio acetabuli has what eponym?
a. Brim sign
b. McCune Albright syndrome
c. Romanus sign
d. Mazabraud syndrome
e. Otto's pelvis
e. Otto's pelvis
235
Still's disease is also known as which of the following?
a. AS
b. RA
c. JCA
d. SLE
e. HADD
c. JCA
236
Which of the following is also known as calcific tendonitis?
a. CPPD
b. HADD
c. Scleroderma
d. Ochronosis
e. Gout
b. HADD
237
Bird like facies is characteristic of ~~~~~~whereas mouse like facies is characteristic of
~~~~~~?
a. RA, JCA
b. JCA,SLE
c. JCA, Scleroderma
d. RA, CPPD
e. CPPD, RA
c. JCA, Scleroderma
238
DIP joint involvement in 80% of patients with psoriatic arthritis when which other finding is
also present?
a. Elevated acid phosphatase
b. Rheumatoid factor
c. Antinuclear antibodies
d. Greater than 20 nail pits
e. Elevated alkaline phosphatase
d. Greater than 20 nail pits
239
Which of the following is not associated with reactive arthritis?
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Polyarthritis
c. Ungual tuft resorption
d. Urethritis
e. Bilateral asymmetric sacroiliitis
Conjunctivitis
c. Ungual tuft resorption
240
Which of the following is not associated with progressive systemic sclerosis?
a. Calcinosis cutis
b. Telangectasia
c. Raynaud's
d. Esophageal stricture
e. Reversible subluxations
e. Reversible subluxations
241
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a patient demonstrating sclerosis of the articular surface of the ilium at the right SI joint without evidence of erosion?
a. Osteitis Condensans llii
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Enteropathic arthopathy
d. Reactive arthritis
e. Rheumatoid arthritis
a. Osteitis Condensans llii
242
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a patient excreting homogentisic acid in their urine?
a. Gout
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Ochronosis
d. SLE
e. Scleroderma
c. Ochronosis
243
Which of the following is the correct order of the progression of ankylosing spondylitis of a
vertebral body?
a. Romanus lesion, barrel shaped vertebra, squared vertebral body, shiny corner sign
b. Shiny corner sign, barrel shaped vertebra, squared vertebral body, romanus lesion
c. Romanus lesion, squared vertebral body, barrel shaped vertebra, shiny corner sign
d. Shiny corner sign, romanus lesion, barrel shaped vertebra, squared vertebral body
c. Romanus lesion, squared vertebral body, barrel shaped vertebra, shiny corner sign
244
Which of the following is the most common microorganism to cause acute suppurative
osteomyelitis?
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Staphylococcus aureus
245
Which of the following organisms has been found to cause septic arthritis more commonly
in IV drug abusers than the general population?
a. Salmonella
b. Klebsiella
c. Pseudomonas
d. Mycobacterium Tb
e. Clostridium
c. Pseudomonas
246
Which of the following is the synonym for septic arthritis in IV drug abusers?
a. Mainliner's syndrome
b. Wilkinson syndrome
c. Potts dz
d. Kummell's dz
e. Kohler's dz
a. Mainliner's syndrome
247
Which of the following organisms has been found to cause acute suppurative osteomyelitis
in pts with sickle cell disease?
a. Salmonella
b. Klebsiella
c. Pseudomonas
d. Mycobacterium Tb
e. Clostridium
a. Salmonella
248
Which of the following is not one of the five most common locations for septic arthritis in IV
drug abusers?
a. Spine
b. Sacroiliac joints
c. Sternoclavicular joint
d. Subtalar joint
e. Acromioclavicular joint
d. Subtalar joint
249
Which of the following terms represents periosteal new bone in acute suppurative
osteomyelits?
a. Sequestrum
b. Involucrum
c. Sinus tract
d. Cloaca
e. Marjolin's ulcer
b. Involucrum
250
How long, approximately, does it typically take for acute suppurative osteomyelitis in
extremities to show on conventional radiography?
a. 1 day
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 weeks
e. 1 month
b. 1 week
251
How long, approximately, does it typically take for acute suppurative osteomyelitis in the
spine to show on conventional radiography?
a. 1 day
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 weeks
e. 1 month
d. 3 weeks
252
Which of the following represents a subacute infection of bone?
a. Sequestrum
b. Marjolin's ulcer
c. Osteoblastoma
d. Osteoid osteoma
e. Brodie's abscess
e. Brodie's abscess
253
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis in a patient with night pain that
can be relieved by aspirin and upon radiographic examination had a 1.8cm lucent nidus with moderate surrounding sclerosis?
a. Osteoblastoma
b. Brodie's abscess
c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Osteoma
e. Enostoma
b. Brodie's abscess
254
Which is the organism that most commonly is responsible for a producing subcutaneous air
(gas gangrene)?
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium perfringens
255
Which of the following is not known for malignantly transforming to fibrosarcoma?
a. pagets
b. fibrous dysplasia
c. fibrous cortical defect
d. chronic osteomyelitis
e. bone infarctions
c. fibrous cortical defect
256
Which of the following choices is not true about tuberculosis?
a. It is the second most common infection in the world
b. It infects the spine in approximately 50% of cases with skeletal involvement
c. It is associated with a finding of a ranke complex upon chest radiography
d. It causes a decreased intervertebral disc height faster than with suppurative spinal osteomyelitis
e. When it affects the bones of the hand it is known as spina ventosa
d. It causes a decreased intervertebral disc height faster than with suppurative spinal osteomyelitis
257
Which TWO CHOICES of the following are most closely related to sickle cell disease (hint: 4
choices are known to occur with sickle cell disease but I'm looking for the two most common)?
a. osteonecroses
b. hair on end appearance of the skull
c. H-shaped vertebrae
d. Erlenmeyer flask deformity
e. Paintbrush metaphyses
a. osteonecroses
c. H-shaped vertebrae
258
Which of the following measurements of the abdominal aorta is considered dilatation but
not aneurysmal?
a. 5.5cm
b. 3-3.49cm
c. 3-3.49mm
d. 7mm
e. 7cm
b. 3-3.49cm
259
A finding of generalized osteopenia and Erlenmeyer flask deformity of the distal femurs
bilaterally is noted which of the following should be included on your differential? Select all that apply.
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Hemophilia
c. Thalassemia
d. Gaucher's
e. Osteopetrosis
a. Sickle cell anemia
c. Thalassemia
d. Gaucher's
260
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis with a finding of widening of the
intercondylar notch and ballooning of the epiphysis of the femur and no hand or wrist involvement?
a. Leukemia
b. Hemophilia
c. JCA
d. Sickle cell dz
e. Thalassemia
b. Hemophilia
261
Radiolucent metaphyseal bands is an associated finding in _____ while radiopaque
metaphyseal bands is an associated finding in _____?
a. Leukemia, thalassemia
b. Harris growth arrest lines, lead poisoning
c. Lead poisoning, leukemia
d. Leukemia, lead poisoning
e. Thalassemia, lead poisoning
d. Leukemia, lead poisoning
262
Which of the following is the eponym for AVN in the scaphoid?
a. Legg-calve-perthes
b. Kienbocks
c. Preisers
d. Blounts
e. Panners
c. Preisers
263
Which of the following fractures predisposes a pt to Diaz dz?
a. SCFE
b. Jones
c. Fischer
d. Kocher
e. Aviator
e. Aviator
264
Which of the following is not associated with causing AVN?
a. Pancreatitis
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Amyloidosis
d. Caissons
e. Exogenous steroid use
b. Sarcoidosis
265
Which of the following is the appropriate eponym for AVN of the humeral head?
a. Kohler
b. Kummel
c. Diaz
d. Hass
e. Panner
d. Hass
266
Which of the following eponyms represents a normal developmental finding?
a. Diaz
b. Panner
c. Van Neck
d. Kienbock
e. Preiser
c. Van Neck
267
Which of the following is the most common artery to see conduit wall calcification in?
a. Femoral
b. Popliteal
c. Aorta
d. Common iliacs
e. Subclavian
c. Aorta
268
Avascular necrosis affects ______ while bone infarction is a term that describes involvement
in ______?
a. Epiphyses, apophyses
b. Apophyses, metaphyses
c. Metaphyses, epiphyses
d. Epiphyses, metaphyses
e. Metaphyses, diaphyses
d. Epiphyses, metaphyses
269
Which of the following are findings associated with hypovitaminosis D? select all that apply.
a. Ring epiphysis of wimberger
b. Pelkin spurs
c. Subperiosteal hemorrhage
d. White line of frankel
e. Paintbrush metaphyses
e. Paintbrush metaphyses
270
Which of the following is the most common etiology of generalized osteopenia?
a. Congenital
b. Metabolic
c. Senile
d. Vascular
e. Neoplasia
c. Senile
271
Which of the following T-scores is indicative of osteoporosis and which T-score is indicative
of a 4x increased risk of sustaining a fracture?
a. -2.5, -2
b. -2.5, -3
c. -3, -3
d. -2.5, -4
e. -3, -1
a. -2.5, -2
272
Which of the following should be included in a differential with a finding of
pseudofractures? Select all that apply.
a. Pagets
b. Osteomalacia
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Rickets
e. Neurofibromatosis
a. Pagets
b. Osteomalacia
d. Rickets
e. Neurofibromatosis
273
Which of the following findings is not associated with scurvy?
a. Scorbutic rosary
b. Pelkin spurs
c. White line of frankel
d. Cupping of the metaphyses
e. Trummerfeld zone
d. Cupping of the metaphyses
274
Which of the following is not associated with hyperparathyroidism?
a. Lingual tuft resorption
b. Subperiosteal resorption
c. Subperiosteal hemorrhage
d. Tumoral calcinosis
e. Widening of the SI joints
c. Subperiosteal hemorrhage
275
Which of the following is/are associated with hyperparathyroidism? Select all that apply.
a. Histiocytosis x
b. Pseudotumors
c. Brown tumors
d. Renal osteodystrophy
e. Sandwich vertebrae
c. Brown tumors
d. Renal osteodystrophy
276
Which of the following is not associated with acromegaly?
a. Prominent superior orbital ridge
b. Prognathism
c. Spade like ungual tufts
d. Posterior vertebral body scalloping
e. Tumoral calcinosis
e. Tumoral calcinosis
277
Which of the following should be included in your differential for posterior vertebral body
scalloping? Select all that apply.
a. Marfans
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Achondroplasia
d. Neurofibromatosis
e. Acromegaly
a. Marfans
c. Achondroplasia
d. Neurofibromatosis
e. Acromegaly
278
Which of the following is not true of Eosinophilic granuloma?
a. Typically occurs between 5-10 yoa
b. It is the most common occurring of the Langerhan's cell hystiocytoses
c. The skull is involved 95% of cases
d. Pancake vertebra may reconstitute the majority of its height
e. It is associated with a hole within a hole appearance in skull lesions
c. The skull is involved 95% of cases
279
Which of the following should be included on your differential for a finding of posterior
vertebral body scalloping? Select all that apply.
a. Marfans
b. Von Recklinghausens
c. Achondroplasia
d. Hodgkins lymphoma
e. Ehlers-danlos
a. Marfans
b. Von Recklinghausens
c. Achondroplasia
e. Ehlers-danlos
280
Which of the following presents with a bone within a bone appearance?
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Achondroplasia
c. Cleidocranial dysostosis
d. Osteopetrosis
e. Trevors disease
d. Osteopetrosis
281
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with otosclerosis, decreased
bone density, wormian bones and poor dentition?
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Cleidocranial dysostosis
c. Downs syndrome
d. Osteopetrosis
e. Nail-patella syndrome
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
282
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a pt with wormian bones, otosclerosis,
multiple levels of SBOs and approximately 45 teeth?
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Cleidocranial dysostosis
c. Downs syndrome
d. Osteopetrosis
e. Nail-patella syndrome
b. Cleidocranial dysostosis
283
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for a pt with an excessive amount of
dense bone 'flowing' along the peripheral aspect of the left femoral diaphysis?
a. Melorheostosis
b. DISH
c. Myositis ossificans
d. HADD
e. Osteopathia striata
a. Melorheostosis
284
Which of the following is the eponym was for dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica?
a. Conradi hunerman disease
b. Voorhoeves disease
c. Trevors disease
d. Osteopathia striata
e. Albers schonberg
c. Trevors disease
285
Which of the following is the eponym for osteopetrosis?
a. Conradi hunerman disease
b. Voorhoeves disease
c. Trevors disease
d. Osteopathia striata
e. Albers schonberg
e. Albers schonberg
286
Which of the following is characterized by stippling of the epiphyses of an infant which
resolves by the second year of life and the infant will develop identically to an achondroplast?
a. Conradi hunerman disease
b. Voorhoeves disease
c. Trevors disease
d. Osteopathia striata
e. Albers schonberg
a. Conradi hunerman disease
287
Which of the following is characterized by having an osteochondroma of an epiphysis?
a. Conradi hunerman disease
b. Voorhoeves disease
c. Trevors disease
d. Osteopathia striata
e. Albers schonberg
c. Trevors disease
288
Which of the following is least appropriate for a differential for a finding of Otto's pelvis?
a. RA pt on corticosteroids
b. Pagets
c. Fibrous dysplasia
d. Marfans
e. Melorheostosis
e. Melorheostosis
289
Which of the following is associated with a finding of iliac horns?
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Cleidocranial dysostosis
c. Downs syndrome
d. Osteopetrosis
e. Nail-patella syndrome
e. Nail-patella syndrome
290
Which of the following is not true of spondylolistheses?
a. MC at L5
b. L4 is the MC level for type III
c. C6 is the MC cervical spine level
d. Hangman fx is classified as a type II
e. Isthmic is the most common type
d. Hangman fx is classified as a type II
291
Which of the following is the MC used classification system for grading spondylolisthesis?
a. Salter-harris
b. Nash-moe
c. Meyerding
d. Wiltse
e. Cobb
c. Meyerding
292
Which of the following populations tends to have the highest percentage of
spondylolisthesis?
a. Caucasian
b. African american
c. Athletes
d. Gymnasts
e. Inuit
e. Inuit
293
Which of the following is the correct pairing of types of spondylolisthesis?
a. Type I isthmic
b. Type III traumatic
c. Type V dysplastic
d. Type II pathologic
e. Type VI iatrogenic
e. Type VI iatrogenic
294
Upon radiographic examination, a finding of 35% anterior migration of L4 on L5 with
evidence of severe facet arthrosis is note, which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?
a. L4, anterolisthesis grade 2 isthmic
b. L4, anterolisthesis grade 3 degenerative
c. L4, anterolisthesis grade 2 degenerative
d. L5, anterolisthesis grade 3 dyplastic
e. L5, retrolisthesis grade 1 pathologic
c. L4, anterolisthesis grade 2 degenerative
295
Which of the following scolioses is most concerning for possible underlying pathology?
a. Right thoracic
b. Left thoracic
c. Right lumbar
d. Left lumbar
e. Right thoracic and left lumbar
b. Left thoracic
296
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis for a pt with a curvature with
thoracic concavity to the left and lumbar concavity to the right?
a. Left thoracic and right lumbar Double major scoliosis
b. Right thoracic and left lumbar Double major scoliosis
c. Left thoracic and right lumbar Double minor scoliosis
d. Left thoracic and right lumbar Double primary scoliosis
e. Right thoracic and left lumbar Double primary scoliosis
b. Right thoracic and left lumbar Double major scoliosis
297
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis for a long C curvature and
hypertrophy of the gastrocnemius muscles bilaterally in a sedentary person?
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Lateral hemivertebra
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d. Short leg syndrome
e. Neurofibromatosis
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
298
Which of the following is the most common scoliosis?
a. Right thoracic
b. Left thoracic
c. Right lumbar
d. Left lumbar
e. Right thoracic and left lumbar
a. Right thoracic
299
Which of the following is the most common etiology of scoliosis?
a. Idiopathic
b. Congenital
c. Neuromuscular
d. Neurofibromatosis
a. Idiopathic
300
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a severe kyphoscoliosis
and dumbbell IVFs?
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Lateral hemivertebra
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d. Short leg syndrome
e. Neurofibromatosis
e. Neurofibromatosis
301
Which of the following is the most common idiopathic scoliosis?
a. Juvenile
b. Adolescent
c. Infantile
b. Adolescent
