final Flashcards

1
Q

Penicillin effect against what bacteria

A

gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Penicillin main adverse effect is?

A

allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cephalosporin is categorized into?

A

generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens as the generation of cephalosporins increase?

A

increase effectiveness against gram negative bacteria
increase resistance to beta lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are you watching for when a pt has 3+ watery stools/24hrs

A

C.diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vancomycin used to treat?

A

MRSA and C.diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vancomycin adverse effect?

A

renal failure
ototoxicity
“Red Man Syndrome” (IV)
Thrombophlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tetracyclines are alternative to?

A

alternative to pcn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tetracycline adverse effects

A

binds to calcium (developing teeth)
teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Macrolides are alternative to?

A

PCN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Macrolide adverse effects

A

CYP inhibitor
QT prolongation
GI upset
Superinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aminoglycoside gentamicin not absorbed where?

A

in the GI tract, (must be given parenterally)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aminoglycoside gentamicin IV dosed by?

A

weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Aminoglycoside gentamicin NTI?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aminoglycoside gentamicin adverse effects

A

irreversible ototoxicity
nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sulfamethoxazole and silver sulfadiazine adverse effects

A

stevens-johnson syndrome
allergy
renal damage is crystals form
teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Trimethoprim adverse effects

A

itching and rash - common
hyperkalemia
teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) adverse effects

A

Gi effects
avoid in last trimester
rare hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

first line TB drugs

A

isoniazid and rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

isoniazid adverse effects

A

peripheral neuropathy (common)
hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rifampin adverse effects

A

CYP enzyme inducer
harmless red orange color of bodily fluids
hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fluoroquinolone (Ciprofloxacin) consideration - ANTB

A

dairy inhibits absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fluoroquinolone (Ciprofloxacin) adverse pain - ANTB

A

tendonitis/ achilles rupture
CYP enzyme inhbitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl) adverse effects - ANTB

A

ETOH - sever vomiting
Cyp enzyme inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Fluconazole (DIflucan) is what
antifungal for candida infections
26
what does amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) do
prevents bacteria from breaking down beta lactam ring
27
Cimetidine uses- histamine 2 receptor antagonist
ulcers Gerd
28
Cimetidine adverse effects- histamine 2 receptor antagonist
BBB--> CNS disturbances elderly renal impairment
29
Omeprazole adverse effects- PPI
3 months: magnesium deficiency 12 months : osteoporosis 36 months: B12 deficiency
30
Sucralfate Mucosal protecting agent uses
acute or chronic ulcer treatment
31
Sucralfate Mucosal protecting agent adverse effects
no significant system adverse effects
32
antacids adverse effects
calcium and magnesium = constipation magnesium = diarrhea
33
misoprostol prostaglandin analog adverse effects
teratogenic diarrhea, abdominal pain
34
misoprostol prostaglandin analog uses
only approved for prevention of NSAID- induced gastric ulcers
35
docusate sodium (Colace) - laxative goal
produce soft stool in 1-3 days
36
lovastatin uses - GM-CoA reductase inhibitors
Hypercholesterolemia
37
lovastatin adverse effects
myopathy and rhabdomyolysis hepatotoxicity teratogenic
38
Colesevelam - bile acid sequestrant uses/used with
hypercholesterolemia - used with statins
39
Colesevelam adverse effects
GI med interactions (take alone)
40
Ezetimibe does what
blocks absorption of cholesterol in small intesitne
41
fibrates: Gemfibrozil uses
TGL reduction, HDL increase nice side effect
42
Gemfibrozil adverse effects
GI, watch for gallstones myopathy hepatotoxicity displaces warfarin from albumin
43
nitroglycerin uses
all forms of Angina
44
adverse effects of nitroglycerin
headache orthostatic hypotension reflex tachycardia
45
nitroglycerin interactions
other HTN drugs erectile dysfunction drugs contraindicated beta blockers/CCB: verapamil and diltiazem
46
beta blocker uses
stable/unstable angina HTN tachycardia post MI stage fright
47
beta blocker adverse effects
bradycardia reduced cardiac output
48
Ranolazine - ranexa uses
stable angina - does not reduced heart rate, blood pressure, or vascular resistance
49
Ranolazine - ranexa adverse effects
watch for ventricular dysrhythmias and HTN
50
Calcium channel blockers verapamil and diltiazem uses
stable and variant angina
51
stable angina treatment
organic nitrates beta blockers ccb
52
variant angina treatment
organic nitrates ccb
53
unstable angina
organic nitrates oxygen beta blocker anti-platelets
54
Heparin uses
prevent DVTS okay with pregnancy
55
adverse effects of heparin
bleeding
56
heparin monitored with
aPTT = 40 seconds normal on heparin = 60-80 seconds
57
if heparin overdose occurs give
protamine sulfate by IV injection
58
enoxaparin (Lovenox) - anticoagulant uses
prevents DVTs
59
benefits of lovenox
doesnt require aPTT monitor can be used at home fixed time dosing
60
warfarin (Coumadin) not used when
thrombotic emergencies
61
warfarin (Coumadin) used when
long term prevention of thrombosis
62
therapeutic INR of warfarin
2.0-3.0
63
must monitor what for warfarin
blood clotting
64
what food affect INR levels of warfarin
mayo green leafy canola and soybean oils
65
in case of overdose of warfarin do what
small doses of vitamin K
66
aspirin adverse effect
bleeding
67
antidote to aspirin overdose
sodium bicarb
68
clopidogrel (Plavix) is what
antiplatelet
69
Thrombolytic alteplace (aTP) uses
acute MI, stroke, PE
70
what is captopril and lisinopril?
ace inhibitor
71
what to watch for with ace inhibitors
- first dose hypotension - cough (common) - hyperkalemia - teratogenic - once daily dosing
72
what are candesartan and olmesartan
angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
73
what to watch for with ARBs
same as ACEs but no cough
74
Calcium Channel Blockers examples
nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem
75
nifedipine (Procardia) uses
HTN angina may be combine with a B-blocker to reduce reflex tachycardia
76
nifedipine adverse effect
reflex tachycardia flushing dizziness/headache
77
verapamil and diltiazem uses
HTN, angina, dysrhythmias
78
verapamil and diltiazem adverse effects
constipation bradycardia and heart blocks flushing dizziness/headache
79
Hydralazine is what and is used for what
vasodilator HTN
80
hydralazine adverse effects
reflex tachycardia fluid retention
81
Minoxidil is what and used when
vasodilator used when other anti HTN drugs don't work
82
minoxidil adverse effects
angina reflex tachycardia fluid retention hypertrichosis
83
sodium nitroprusside is what and given when?
vasodilator given IV for HTN emergencies
84
sodium nitroprusside adverse effects
orthostatic hypotension fluid retention cyanide poisoning (liver disease)
85
Clonidine is what
a centrally acting HTN drug
86
Clonidine adverse effects
hypotension drowsiness xerostomia (dry mouth) rebound HTN risk for abuse
87
treatment of respiratory acidosis
sodium bicarb
88
treatment of respiratory alkalosis
breathe in exhaled CO2 benzo (sedation)
89
trmt of metabolic acidosis
sodium bicarb
90
tmt of metabolic acidosis
IVF 0.9% NS + KCL infusion of hydrochloric acid `
91
Furosemide (Lasix) is what and used for what
loop diuretic used when significant fluid excess exists
92
furosemide (lasix) adverse effects
hyponatremia, hypokalemia dehydration/hypovolemia/hypotension avoid during pregnancy PO and IV
93
furosemide (lasix) interactions
digoxin lithium k-sparing diuretics
94
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is what and used for what
thiazide diuretic HTN moderate edema
95
HCTZ adverse effects
hyponatremia, hypokalemia (less severe than loops) hypovolemia (less severe than loops) avoid during pregnancy PO only
96
HCTZ interactions
same as furosemide
97
what is spironolactone and used for
potassium-sparing diuretic HTN edema HF tmt of primary hyperaldosteronism Polycystic ovarian syndrome
98
spironolactone adverse effects
gynecomastia menstrual irregularities impotence hirsutism deepening of voice
99
what is triamterene and used for
HTN and edmea, added on to loop or thiazide to maintain potassium
100
triamterene adverse effects
not well tolerated, n/v, leg cramps, dizziness
101
what is mannitol and used for
osmotic diuretic ICP IOP
102
adverse effects of mannitol
peripheral edema headache n/v potential hypovolemia
103
what is used to treat HF
diuretics, ACEs, BB, Digoxin
104
Digoxin NTI range:
0.5-0.8 ng/mL
105
Digoxin adverse effect
dysrhythmias toxicity
106
Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI's)
Sacubitril/Valsarten (Entresto)
107
Sacubitril/Valsarten (Entresto) used when
in place of ACE or ARB
108
Sacubitril/Valsarten (Entresto) adverse effects
cough angioedema hyperkalemia teratogenic
109
adverse effects of Alpha 1 agonists
HTN bradycardia tissue necrosis
110
beta 1 agonists activation where
heart
111
beta 1 agonists adverse effects
tachycardia dysrhythmia angina
112
beta 2 agonist actvates where
lungs
113
beta 2 agonists adverse effects
hyperglycemia muscle tremors
114
dopamine receptor activation low doses does what
dilation of renal blood vessels improves GFR and urine output
115
dopamine receptor activation high doses doses what
Beta 1 and alpha 1 effects used for hemodynamic support
116
dopamine receptor activation adverse effects in high doses
dysrhythmias/tachycardia angina tissue necrosis
117
epinephrine receptor activates what? and used for what
all alpha and beta receptors - anesthesia - reverse AV heart block - anaphylaxis
118
alpha 1 blocker prototype:
prazosin
119
prazosin uses
Essential HTN BPH raynaud's disease reveral of overdose/toxicity
120
prazosin adverse effects
orthostatic hypotension reflex tachycardia nasal congestion inhibition of ejaculation
121
non-selective alpha blocker
phentolamine
122
phentolamine uses
pheochromocytoma tissue necrosis
123
phentolamine adverse effects
same as alpha 1 antagonists significan reflex tachycardia
124
beta 1 blocker uses
HTN stable angina tachycardia post MI migraines stage fright glaucoma
125
beta 1 blocker adverse effects
bradycardia reduced cardiac output Av heart block
126
beta 2 blocker uses
none
127
adverse effects of beta 2 blockers
bronchoconstriction inhibition of glycogenolysis
128
1st gen beta blocker : proranolol uses/ effects
stage fright. angina, HTN, MI beta 1 and 2 effects
129
2nd gen beta blocker : metoprolol uses and effects
HTN, angina, MI, HF beta 1 effects only
130
3rd gen beta blocker: carvedilol uses and effects
HTN, angina, MI, HF B1,B2, and A1 effects
131
bethanechol is what and used for what?
muscarinic agonists, used for non-obstructive urinary retention and GERD
132
adverse effects of bethanechol
bradycardia, hypotensions SOB increased salivation and GI motility
133
muscarinic agonist considerations
advise to take 1 hr before or 2 hrs after meals SLUDGE
134
muscarinic antagonists used to treat / effects
OAB bradycadria eye disorder motion sickness asthma can't poem
135
oxybutynin is what and used for what
muscarinic antagonist used for OAB tmt
136
oxybutynin adverse effects
anticholinergic effects don't give with other anticholinergic drugs
137
atropine is what used for what
muscarinic antagonists used for bradycardia, eye exams, cholinergic overdosse
138
adverse effects of atropine
can't poem
139
ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) used for
inhaler for asthma nasal spray for allergic rhinitis
140
azelastine (Astelin) and Olopatadine (Patanase) are what with what adverse effects
intranasal antihistamines nasal dryness, epistaxis, headaches
141
fluticasone (Flonase) and mometasone (Nasonex) are what with what effects
intranasal glucocorticoids most effective medication for allergic rhinitis mild adverse effects : dry mucosa, epistaxis, headache
142
adverse effects of decongestants
rebound congestions restlessness, anxiety, insomnia potential for abuse
143
inhaled corticosteroid does what
controls inflammation, for prevention of attacks not PRN use
144
adverse effects of glucocorticoids
mouth thrush dysphonia increase glucose level
145
SABAs are what and used when
rescue inhalers used PRN
146
LABAs are what and used when
not a rescue inhaler! its a controller must be combine with ICS
147
Oral B2 agonists used for when and examples
only long term control - not for acute attack albuterol, terbutaline
148
insulin lispro is what duration
short duration
149
lispro peaks when durates how long and is clear or cloudy
peaks 30 minutes, durates 6 hrs, clear suspension
150
regular insulin is what duration
short duration
151
regular insulin peaks when durates how long and looks how
peaks 1 hr, durates 10 hrs, clear suspension
152
regular insulin is only insulin given IV true or false
true
153
NPH is what duration
intermediate
154
NPH peaks when, durates how long and looks how
peaks 6 hrs, durates 24 hrs , cloudy suspension
155
can NPH be mixed with short acting insulins and how?
yes, clear before cloudy
156
long duration insulins
glargine, and detemir no peak never IV
157
ultra long
glargine (Toujeo) degludec
158
metformin adverse effects
gi effects b12 deficiency no hypoglycemia
159
adverse effects of sulfonylurea glipizide
hypoglycemia no alcohol
160
TZD pioglitazone adverse ffects
fluid retention (bad for HF pts.)
161
acarbose adberse effects
GI monitor for anemia monitor LFTs hypoglycemia
162
sitagliptin adverse effects
pancreatitis N/V belly pain
163
canagliflozin adverse effects
increased urination UTIs/fungal infections
164
Glucagon-like Peptide 1 GLP-1 : exenatide
gi effects hypoglycemia pancreatitis renal impairment
165
levothyroxine treats what
hypothyroidism
166
levothyroxine pt ed
take early AM on empty stomach generic/brand consistency regular lab monitoring report thyrotoxic symptoms
167
methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU) treat what
hyperthyroidism
168
methimazole and propylthiouracil (PTU) which one safer for preg
PTU
169
addisons is an insufficiency of what treated how
adrenal hormone treated with glucocorticoids
170
Levodopa : dopamine replacement considerations
food delays absorption (esp protein) loss of effect common
171
carbidopa/levodopa works as a and allows what
crossing guard and allows to give a lower dose of levodopa
172
entacapone/levodopa/carbidopa does what
extends half life of levodopa
173
pramipexole used when and adverse effects
alone in early stages with levodopa/carbidopa in advanced sleep attacks ok to take with meals
174
donepezil effects
cholinergic effects
175
rivastigmine considerations
available as a patch causes cholinergic effects
176
memantine considerations
potentiated effect: donepezil and memantine
177
interferon beta adverse effects
flu like symptoms bone marrow suppression
178
mitoxantrone adverse effects/considerations
IV infusion every 3 months hepatotoxicity bone marrow suppression cardiotoxicity teratogenic
179
cyclobenzaprine for what
spasms
180
baclofen, dantrolene, and diazepam for what
spasticity
181
aspirin side effects
GI renal impairment salicylism syndrome
182
ibuprofen adverse effects
renal impairment
183
tylenol (acetaminophen) adv effects and antidote
liver failure / acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)