Final

Question 1

Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the

a. ramus of the mandible.
b. maxillary foramina.
c. mandibular foramen.
d. condylar process.
e. mental foramina.

Answer 1

mental foramina

Question 2

Sinus inflammation is called

a. encephalitis.
b. asthma.
c. postnasal drip.
d. sinusitis.
e. congestion.

Answer 2

sinusitis

Question 3

Name the fontanelles found on the infant skull. Why aren’t they labeled on the adult skull? (Figure 7-16)

a. frontal, parietal, occipital, and sphenoid; they became foramen
b. sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they became foramen
c. coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous; they fused and are not on the adult skull
d. sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull
e. superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull

Answer 3

sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull

Question 4

What is the purpose of the secondary curves?

a. accommodate the abdominal organs
b. accommodate the thoracic organs
c. form a humpback
d. shift the weight of the body to permit an upright posture
e. accommodate the pelvic organs

Answer 4

shift the weight of the body to permit an upright posture

Question 5

The second cervical vertebra is called the

a. axis.
b. atlas.
c. primum.
d. apex.
e. cervix.

Answer 5

axis

Question 6

Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

a. coxal bones
b. tibia
c. scapula
d. clavicles
e. sacrum

Answer 6

sacrum

Question 7

The anterior surface of the scapula is smooth and concave. The name of the concave depression is the

a. supraspinous fossa.
b. subspinous fossa.
c. subscapular fossa.
d. infraspinous fossa.
e. glenoid fossa.

Answer 7

subscapular fossa.

Question 8

Use Figure 8-1 to answer the following question: Identify the structure labeled “7.”

a. scapular process
b. spine of scapula
c. acromion
d. scapular notch
e. coracoid process

Answer 8

spine of scapula

Question 9

Which of the following processes is not found on the ulna?

a. coronoid process
b. olecranon
c. trochlea
d. styloid process of ulna
e. radial notch

Answer 9

trochlea

Question 10

The trochlea is located on the

a. humerus.
b. tibia.
c. ulna.
d. radius.
e. scapula.

Answer 10

humerus.

Question 11

The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.

a. capitulum
b. coronoid process
c. olecranon process
d. styloid process
e. radial tuberosity

Answer 11

styloid process

Question 12

The pubic and ischial rami encircle the

a. obturator foramen.
b. greater sciatic notch.
c. pubic symphysis.
d. lesser sciatic notch.
e. acetabulum.

Answer 12

obturator foramen.

Question 13

One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the

a. coxal bones.
b. patellar surface of the femur.
c. distal epiphysis of the femur.
d. pubic ramus.
e. neck of the femur.

Answer 13

neck of the femur.

Question 14

The ________ is a large sesamoid-shaped bone sometimes called the kneecap.

a. talus
b. patella
c. cuboid
d. fibula
e. navicular

Answer 14

patella

Question 15

The lateral malleolus is found on the

a. femur.
b. fibula.
c. calcaneus.
d. tibia.
e. patella.

Answer 15

fibula.

Question 16

Use Figure 8-3 to answer the following question: Identify the area of the femur most likely to fracture.

a. 8
b. 9
c. 7
d. 1
e. 3

Answer 16

1

Question 17

A ligamentous connection such as an antebrachial interosseous membrane is called a

a. synchondrosis.
b. synostosis.
c. symphysis.
d. gomphosis.
e. syndesmosis.

Answer 17

syndesmosis

Question 18

Dense fibrous connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n)

a. syndesmosis.
b. synostosis.
c. synchondrosis.
d. amphiarthrosis.
e. gomphosis.

Answer 18

gomphosis.

Question 19

Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged?

a. The matrix begins to break down.
b. The exposed surface appears rough.
c. Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue.
d. Friction in the joint increases.
e. All of the answers are correct.

Answer 19

All of the answers are correct.

Question 20

The surface of articular cartilage is

a. flat.
b. slick.
c. smooth.
d. rough.
e. both slick and smooth.

Answer 20

both slick and smooth.

Question 21

The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a ________ joint.

a. saddle
b. pivot
c. condylar
d. gliding
e. hinge

Answer 21

saddle

Question 22

Curling into the “fetal position” ________ the intervertebral joints.

a. extends
b. hyperextends
c. flexes
d. abducts
e. rotates

Answer 22

flexes

Question 23

Nodding your head “yes” is an example of

a. protraction and retraction.
b. flexion and extension.
c. pronation and supination.
d. circumduction.
e. lateral and medial rotation.

Answer 23

flexion and extension.

Question 24

The movement of a body part upward is called

a. abduction.
b. extension.
c. elevation.
d. supination.
e. protraction.

Answer 24

elevation.

Question 25

The anterior longitudinal ligament is

a. a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
b. a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
c. a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
d. a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum.
e. a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.

Answer 25

a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.

Question 26

The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves

a. abduction.
b. flexion.
c. extension.
d. adduction.
e. both flexion and extension.

Answer 26

both flexion and extension.

Question 27

The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments.

a. fibular collateral
b. popliteal
c. patellar
d. cruciate
e. tibial collateral

Answer 27

cruciate

Question 28

Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?

a. maintain body temperature
b. produce movement
c. maintain posture
d. guard body entrances and exits
e. All of the answers are correct.

Answer 28

All of the answers are correct.

Question 29

Nerves and blood vessels that service a muscle fiber are located in the connective tissues of its

a. sarcomere.
b. perimysium.
c. sarcolemma.
d. myofibrils.
e. endomysium.

Answer 29

endomysium.

Question 30

Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called

a. myomeres.
b. sarcomeres.
c. fascicles.
d. myofibrils.
e. myoblasts.

Answer 30

myoblasts.

Question 31

Muscle fibers differ from “typical cells” in that muscle fibers

a. have many nuclei.
b. lack mitochondria.
c. lack a plasma membrane.
d. are very small.
e. have large gaps in the cell membrane.

Answer 31

have many nuclei

Question 32

The protein that is found in the Z line of a sarcomere is called

a. actinin.
b. actin.
c. nebulin.
d. titin.
e. myosin.

Answer 32

actinin.

Question 33

Thick filaments are made of the protein

a. actin.
b. titin.
c. myosin.
d. tropomyosin.
e. nebulin.

Answer 33

myosin.

Question 34

The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. What is the correct sequence of these events?

1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.
2. The free myosin head splits ATP.
3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.
5. Calcium ion binds to troponin.
6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.

a. 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5
b. 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3
c. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2
e. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2

Answer 34

3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2

Question 35

The sequence of processes that links the action potential to contraction is called

a. cross bridge formation.
b. neuromuscular junction.
c. action potential propagation.
d. excitation-contraction coupling.
e. sliding filament theory.

Answer 35

excitation-contraction coupling.

Question 36

Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur.
1. Cross-bridge detachment
2. Cross-bridge formation
3. Active site exposure
4. Myosin reactivation
5. Calcium ions bind troponin
6. Myosin head pivoting

a. 3,5,2,6,1,4
b. 5,3,2,6,1,4
c. 5,3,2,6,4,1
d. 5,3,6,2,4,1
e. 5,3,6,2,1,4

Answer 36

5,3,2,6,1,4

Question 37

The point in a muscle twitch when the troponin is bound to calcium is called the

a. contraction phase.
b. stimulus phase.
c. isotonic period.
d. latent period.
e. relaxation phase.

Answer 37

contraction phase.

Question 38

Creatine phosphate

a. is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration.
b. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.
c. is only formed during strenuous exercise.
d. can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction.
e. cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP.

Answer 38

acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.

Question 39

The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.

a. slow
b. fast
c. intermediate
d. high-density
e. anaerobic

Answer 39

slow

Question 40

Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles.

a. pennate
b. bipennate
c. circular
d. convergent
e. parallel

Answer 40

circular

Question 41

________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation.

a. Parallel
b. Convergent
c. Straight
d. Circular
e. Pennate

Answer 41

Convergent

Question 42

The fulcrum of a lever system is the

a. joint.
b. bone.
c. load.
d. muscle.
e. resistance.

Answer 42

joint.

Question 43

Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to

a. abduct the forearm.
b. flex the forearm.
c. adduct the forearm.
d. extend the forearm.
e. extend the carpals.

Answer 43

extend the forearm.

Question 44

A type of muscle whose action opposes that of another muscle is called a(n)

a. prime mover.
b. agonist.
c. synergist.
d. antagonist.
e. fixator.

Answer 44

antagonist.

Question 45

Which muscle is named for either shape or size?

a. vastus lateralis
b. pectoralis major
c. deltoid
d. latissimus dorsi
e. All of the above are named for shape or size.

Answer 45

All of the above are named for shape or size.

Question 46

The origin of the frontalis muscle is the

a. forehead.
b. mandible.
c. occipital bone.
d. frontal bone.
e. epicranial aponeurosis.

Answer 46

epicranial aponeurosis.

Question 47

Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle?

a. elevates the mandible
b. depresses the larynx
c. elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible
d. elevates the larynx
e. depresses and retracts the tongue

Answer 47

elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible

Question 48

A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in

a. chewing.
b. blowing.
c. spitting.
d. kissing.
e. frowning.

Answer 48

chewing.

Question 49

Which of these is true about the muscle named levator palpebrae superioris?

a. originates at the back of the orbit and raises the upper eyelid
b. elevates the eyebrow
c. raises the upper eyelid
d. lifts the scapula
e. originates at the back of the orbit

Answer 49

originates at the back of the orbit and raises the upper eyelid

Question 50

The thick, flat sheet of tendon deep to the scalp is called the

a. calcaneal tendon.
b. plantar aponeurosis.
c. linea alba.
d. retinaculum.
e. epicranial aponeurosis.

Answer 50

epicranial aponeurosis.

Question 51

Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachii?

a. olecranon process of the ulna
b. medial epicondyle of the humerus
c. base of the second metacarpal
d. infraglenoid tuberosity of the scapula
e. lateral condyle of the humerus

Answer 51

olecranon process of the ulna

Question 52

Which of these muscles produces lateral rotation at the hip?

a. gluteus maximus
b. piriformis
c. obturator internus
d. obturator externus
e. All of the answers are correct.

Answer 52

All of the answers are correct.

Question 53

The Sartorius is innervated by which nerve?

a. sciatic
b. tibial
c. fibular
d. obturator
e. femoral

Answer 53

femoral

Question 54

The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.

a. efferent
b. peripheral
c. afferent
d. central
e. autonomic

Answer 54

central

Question 55

________ carry motor information to peripheral effectors.

a. Unipolar neurons
b. Interneurons
c. Efferent neurons
d. Afferent neurons
e. Multipolar neurons

Answer 55

Efferent neurons

Question 56

The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is the

a. synapse.
b. telodendria.
c. collateral.
d. hillock.
e. axolemma.

Answer 56

synapse.

Question 57

________ carry sensory information to the CNS.

a. Interneurons
b. Afferent neurons
c. Efferent neurons
d. Motor neurons
e. Multipolar neurons

Answer 57

Afferent neurons

Question 58

Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the

a. transport of neurotransmitters within axons.
b. formation of myelin sheaths.
c. formation of ganglia.
d. repair of axons.
e. formation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Answer 58

formation of cerebrospinal fluid.

Question 59

When potassium channels open and the ions diffuse through the membrane,

a. the membrane will depolarize to threshold.
b. the inside of the membrane will become more negative.
c. the membrane will become depolarized.
d. the inside of the membrane will become more positive.
e. there will be almost no effect on transmembrane potential.

Answer 59

the inside of the membrane will become more negative.

Question 60

The all-or-none principle states that

a. the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential.
b. all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
c. only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
d. all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.
e. only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.

Answer 60

all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.

Question 61

Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?

a. Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase.
b. Neurons would depolarize more rapidly.
c. The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
d. The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal.
e. None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function.

Answer 61

The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.

Question 62

Use Figure 12-2 to answer the following question: Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Answer 62

4

Question 63

The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the ________ period.

a. stationary
b. relative refractory
c. resting
d. lag
e. absolute refractory

Answer 63

absolute refractory

Question 64

The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is

a. magnesium.
b. calcium.
c. chloride.
d. potassium.
e. sodium.

Answer 64

calcium

Question 65

Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain that is important in learning and memory?

a. gamma aminobutyric acid
b. glutamate
c. serotonin
d. noradrenaline
e. glycine

Answer 65

glutamate

Question 66

The molecule responsible for making cyclic AMP is called

a. adenosine.
b. G-protein.
c. adenylate cyclase.
d. anandamide.
e. adenosine synthase.

Answer 66

adenylate cyclase.

Question 67

The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system.

a. autonomic
b. central
c. somatic
d. afferent
e. peripheral

Answer 67

central

Question 68

Enlarged area of the spinal cord from which nerves to the shoulder and upper limbs arise.

a. thoracic region
b. cervical enlargement
c. lumbar enlargement
d. conus medullaris
e. sacral region

Answer 68

cervical enlargement

Question 69

Spinal nerves are

a. involuntary.
b. purely sensory.
c. interneuronal.
d. purely motor.
e. both sensory and motor.

Answer 69

both sensory and motor.

Question 70

The loss of feeling and movement of the legs is termed

a. spinal transection.
b. paraplegia.
c. spinal shock.
d. hemiplegia.
e. quadriplegia.

Answer 70

paraplegia.

Question 71

The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord, seen easily in microscopic spinal cord cross sections, are called

a. horns.
b. wings.
c. fibers.
d. pyramids.
e. tracts

Answer 71

horns.

Question 72

Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following question: Identify the structure labeled “1.”

a. anterior white column
b. lateral white horn
c. posterior white column
d. median commissure
e. lateral white column

Answer 72

posterior white column

Question 73

Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs are collectively called

a. posterior rami.
b. gray rami.
c. white rami.
d. sympathetic nerves.
e. anterior rami.

Answer 73

sympathetic nerves.

Question 74

In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise?

a. sacral
b. cervical
c. brachial
d. cranial
e. lumbar

Answer 74

brachial

Question 75

Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following question: Identify the structure labeled “6.”

a. anterior root
b. autonomic nerve
c. sympathetic ganglion
d. rami communicantes
e. posterior root ganglion

Answer 75

sympathetic ganglion

Question 76

In ________, one neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons.

a. convergence
b. parallel processing
c. divergence
d. serial processing
e. reverberation

Answer 76

divergence

Question 77

The neural “wiring” of a single reflex is called a(n)

a. reflex arc.
b. ramus.
c. circuit.
d. ganglion.
e. tract.

Answer 77

reflex arc.

Question 78

Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order: 1) motor neuron activation, 2) sensory neuron activation, 3) sensory receptor activation, 4) Information processing, 5) effector response.

a. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
b. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
c. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
d. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
e. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Answer 78

3, 2, 4, 1, 5

Question 79

Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex?

a. a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts
b. normal in newborns
c. clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected
d. flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked
e. abnormal in adults

Answer 79

clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected

Question 80

What structures make up the brainstem? (Figure 14-1)

a. cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon
b. hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus
c. midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
d. pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum
e. diencephalon, midbrain, cerebellum

Answer 80

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

Question 81

The lateral ventricles are found

a. between the pons and the midbrain.
b. in the cerebral hemispheres.
c. in the spinal cord.
d. in the diencephalon.
e. in the cerebellar hemispheres.

Answer 81

in the cerebral hemispheres.

Question 82

The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the

a. corpus callosum.
b. cerebral aqueduct.
c. falx cerebri.
d. septum pellucidum.
e. fornix.

Answer 82

septum pellucidum.

Question 83

Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the

a. falx cerebri.
b. cerebral aqueduct.
c. basal ganglia.
d. tentorium cerebelli.
e. septum pellucidum.

Answer 83

falx cerebri.

Question 84

Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following question: Identify the structure labeled “9.”

a. lateral ventricle
b. subarachnoid space
c. superior sagittal sinus
d. arachnoid granulation
e. dura mater

Answer 84

superior sagittal sinus

Question 85

If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected?

a. control of blood pressure
b. breathing
c. coordination
d. judgment
e. sleep patterns

Answer 85

breathing

Question 86

The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the

a. first four cranial nerves.
b. two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles.
c. superior and inferior colliculi.
d. cranial nerve IV.
e. our cerebral lobes.

Answer 86

superior and inferior colliculi.

Question 87

The folds of the surface of the cerebellum

a. are bathed in spinal fluid.
b. consist of axons and dendrites of neurons.
c. form a network of blood vessels over the brain.
d. are called sulci.
e. are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds.

Answer 87

are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds.

Question 88

Which hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms?

a. preoptic area
b. paraventricular nucleus
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus
d. tuber cinereum
e. autonomic nucleus

Answer 88

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Question 89

Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem?

a. production of a large volume of urine
b. an insatiable appetite
c. reduced ability to regulate body temperature
d. an intense thirst
e. an uncontrolled sex drive

Answer 89

reduced ability to regulate body temperature

Question 90

Which structure receives visual information before it reaches the visual cortex? (Figure 14-20)

a. lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
b. medial geniculate body of the thalamus
c. paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
d. supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus
e. ventral nucleus of the thalamus

Answer 90

lateral geniculate body of the thalamus

Question 91

The visual cortex is located in the

a. frontal lobe.
b. occipital lobe.
c. insula.
d. parietal lobe.
e. temporal lobe.

Answer 91

occipital lobe.

Question 92

Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient stick out their tongue?

a. abducens
b. facial
c. vagus
d. glossopharyngeal
e. hypoglossal

Answer 92

hypoglossal

Question 93

Which motor pathway directs a faster response: voluntary or involuntary? (Figure 15-1)

a. involuntary
b. voluntary

Answer 93

involuntary

Question 94

General sense receptors are typically the

a. cell bodies of sensory neurons.
b. axons of sensory neurons.
c. dendrites of sensory neurons.
d. dendrites of motor neurons.
e. axons of motor neurons.

Answer 94

dendrites of sensory neurons.

Question 95

Central adaptation refers to

a. increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus.
b. a change in motor receptivity of a neuron.
c. the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated.
d. a characteristic of phasic receptors.
e. inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.

Answer 95

inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.

Question 96

A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as

a. transduction.
b. adaptation.
c. transformation.
d. exhaustion.
e. negation.

Answer 96

adaptation.

Question 97

Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called

a. thermoreceptors.
b. chemoreceptors.
c. baroreceptors.
d. nociceptors.
e. proprioceptors.

Answer 97

baroreceptors.

Question 98

________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure.

a. Proprioceptors
b. Baroreceptors
c. Nociceptors
d. Chemoreceptors
e. Hair cells

Answer 98

Baroreceptors

Question 99

For the last few weeks, you have had an odd sensation on your upper thigh. When you touch the naked skin, it feels very strange, like you are touching your skin through layers of cloth. The surrounding area feels normal. Your doctor thinks that this may be related to spinal nerve damage related to a herniated disc. The doctor calls this change in sensation

a. anesthesia.
b. paresthesia.
c. kinesthesia.
d. hypesthesia.
e. synesthesia.

Answer 99

paresthesia.

Question 100

All of the following pathways require third-order neurons synapsing in the thalamus except

a. the anterior spinothalamic tract.
b. the lateral spinothalamic tract.
c. the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts.
d. the cuneate fasciculus.
e. the gracile fasciculus.

Answer 100

the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts.

Question 101

Which neuron delivers sensations to the CNS?

a. first-order
b. fourth-order
c. sensory receptor
d. third-order
e. second-order

Answer 101

first-order

Question 102

Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy?

a. stroke
b. multiple sclerosis
c. cerebral palsy
d. paralysis
e. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Answer 102

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Question 103

Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract synapse with neurons in

a. the spinothalamic tract.
b. the dorsal root ganglia.
c. the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
d. autonomic ganglia.
e. the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.

Answer 103

the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.

Question 104

Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called ________ neurons.

a. preganglionic
b. upper motor
c. somesthetic
d. postganglionic
e. lower motor

Answer 104

lower motor

Question 105

The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following?

a. somatic division
b. craniosacral division
c. lumbosacral division
d. resting division
e. thoracolumbar division

Answer 105

thoracolumbar division

Question 106

A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n)________ neuron.

a. upper motor
b. postganglionic
c. lower motor
d. preganglionic
e. somatomotor

Answer 106

preganglionic

Question 107

The body’s first tissue response to any injury is

a. inflammation.
b. bleeding.
c. shivering.
d. regeneration.
e. fever.

Answer 107

inflammation.

Question 108

Voluntary movements are carried out by the contraction of

a. cardiac muscle.
b. skeletal muscle.
c. nonstriated muscle.
d. smooth muscle.
e. all types of muscle.

Answer 108

skeletal muscle.

Question 109

Growth of cartilage by accumulation of new matrix around chondrocytes that are embedded in existing matrix is called ________ growth.

a. transitional
b. appositional
c. transformational
d. interstitial
e. intrasitional

Answer 109

interstitial

Question 110

Cells that are flat and thin are classified as

a. blasts.
b. cuboidal.
c. transitional.
d. squamous.
e. columnar.

Answer 110

squamous.

Question 111

The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the

a. gap junction.
b. tight junction.
c. hemidesmosome.
d. desmosome.
e. zonula adherens.

Answer 111

gap junction

Question 112

Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except

a. detection of sensations.
b. protection of underlying tissue.
c. synthesis of vitamin C.
d. maintenance of body temperature.
e. excretion of salts and wastes.

Answer 112

synthesis of vitamin C.

Question 113

While assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it remains peaked. This is a sign of

a. water intoxication.
b. advanced skin cancer.
c. dehydration.
d. hydration intoxication.
e. malfunctioning elastin.

Answer 113

dehydration.

Question 114

Cyanosis signifies that a patient has

a. had too much sun.
b. been kept out of the sun.
c. an allergic reaction.
d. been exposed to cyanide.
e. oxygen-starved skin.

Answer 114

oxygen-starved skin.

Question 115

The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty.

a. axillary
b. sebaceous
c. ceruminous
d. apocrine sweat
e. merocrine sweat

Answer 115

apocrine sweat

Question 116

The combination of blood clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called ________ tissue.

a. fibrocytic
b. granulation
c. germinative
d. abscess
e. spinous

Answer 116

granulation

Question 117

Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ________ ganglia.

a. chain
b. collateral
c. prevertebral
d. adrenal
e. intramural

Answer 117

chain

Question 118

Which of the following bones is classified as “irregular” in shape?

a. patella
b. metatarsal
c. vertebra
d. ulna
e. frontal

Answer 118

vertebra

Question 119

Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers except

a. reduced circulation to the skin.
b. increased sweat secretion.
c. dilation of the pupils.
d. increased blood flow to skeletal muscles.
e. decreased heart rate.

Answer 119

decreased heart rate.

Question 120

Which of the following is true of osteoclasts?

a. Osteoclasts form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi.
b. Osteoclasts secretes protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix.
c. Osteoclasts are responsible for laying down osteoid.
d. Osteoclasts are located within lacunae.
e. Osteoclasts maintain protein and mineral content of matrix.

Answer 120

Osteoclasts secretes protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix.

Question 121

Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following might help deal with his problem?

a. a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue
b. a drug that increases cAMP levels in cardiac muscle tissue
c. a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle
d. a drug that blocks alpha-2 receptors in adipose tissue
e. a drug that blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue

Answer 121

a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue

Question 122

Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells results in

a. increased heart rate and force of contraction.
b. the decrease in ATP production.
c. inhibition of the heart muscle.
d. decreased force of contraction.
e. slower heart rate.

Answer 122

increased heart rate and force of contraction.

Question 123

Which of the following is a sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation?

a. dopamine
b. serotonin
c. norepinephrine
d. acetylcholine
e. nitric oxide

Answer 123

nitric oxide

Question 124

Parasympathetic stimulation

a. increases gastric motility.
b. causes the pupils to dilate.
c. increases heart rate.
d. causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate.
e. causes sweat glands to secrete.

Answer 124

increases gastric motility.

Question 125

Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the sympathetic division?

a. Preganglionic neurons are located between T1 and L2 of the spinal cord.
b. Preganglionic fibers are relatively short.
c. Postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
d. PNS ganglia are near the vertebral column.
e. The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.

Answer 125

The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.

Question 126

Which hormone increases calcium and phosphate ion absorption by the intestines?

a. estrogen
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid hormone
d. calcitriol
e. calcitonin

Answer 126

calcitriol

Question 127

A doctor places drops in the eyes to dilate the pupils for an examination. The type of drug that is used is a(n) ________ drug.
1. sympathomimetic
2. parasympathomimetic
3. adrenergic activating
4. cholinergic activating

a. 1, 2
b. 4
c. 2, 4
d. 1, 3
e. 3

Answer 127

1, 3

Question 128

A fracture of the bone across its long axis is called a ________ fracture.

a. comminuted
b. greenstick
c. compression
d. transverse
e. spiral

Answer 128

transverse

Question 129

Most long-term memories are stored in the

a. cerebral cortex.
b. thalamus.
c. pons.
d. cerebellum.
e. hypothalamus.

Answer 129

cerebral cortex.

Question 130

A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes making them brittle and compromises normal function is called

a. osteomalacia.
b. osteitis.
c. osteomyelitis.
d. osteoporosis.
e. osteopenia.

Answer 130

osteoporosis

Question 131

Which of the following is an inherited disease characterized by destruction of ACh-secreting and GABA-secreting neurons in the basal nuclei causing difficulty controlling movements?

a. schizophrenia
b. Huntington’s disease
c. senile dementia
d. Parkinson’s disease
e. Alzheimer’s disease

Answer 131

Huntington’s disease

Question 132

Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?

a. provides an attachment for muscles involved in breathing
b. provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton
c. provides protection for the brain and spinal cord
d. provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk
e. All of the answers are correct.

Answer 132

All of the answers are correct.

Question 133

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a. occipital: foramen magnum
b. mandible: movable facial bone in skull
c. maxilla: alveolar processes
d. frontal: glabella
e. sphenoid: external acoustic meatus

Answer 133

sphenoid: external acoustic meatus

Question 134

Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by all of the following except that it

a. is characterized by a progressive loss of memory.
b. is associated with the formation of plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.
c. is the most common cause of senile dementia.
d. has a clear genetic basis.
e. may be associated with damage to the nucleus basalis.

Answer 134

has a clear genetic basis.

Question 135

The large foramen that serves as a passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI) is the

a. jugular foramen.
b. foramen rotundum.
c. foramen lacerum.
d. foramen magnum.
e. carotid canal.

Answer 135

foramen magnum.

Question 136

Olfactory glands

a. house the sense of smell.
b. coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.
c. group as olfactory bulbs.
d. react to aromatic molecules.
e. regenerate to form new olfactory epithelium.

Answer 136

coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.

Question 137

While you’re visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant’s soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the “soft spot” located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is

a. occipital fontanelle.
b. mastoid fontanelle.
c. sphenoidal fontanelle.
d. anterior fontanelle.
e. cushion spot.

Answer 137

anterior fontanelle.

Question 138

The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception.

a. cervical
b. sacral
c. thoracic
d. lumbar
e. axial

Answer 138

axial

Question 139

The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.

a. coracoid processes
b. manubria
c. acromial processes
d. scapulae
e. clavicles

Answer 139

clavicles

Question 140

Olfactory organs are located in the nasal cavity inferior to the perforated bony structure known as the

a. cribriform plate.
b. sella turcica.
c. sphenoid bone.
d. vomer.
e. zygomatic process.

Answer 140

cribriform plate.

Question 141

In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.

a. medial
b. proximal
c. superior
d. lateral
e. distal

Answer 141

medial

Question 142

A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman’s pelvic outlet.

a. longer
b. wider
c. narrower
d. larger
e. deeper

Answer 142

narrower

Question 143

The medial malleolus is located on the

a. ischium.
b. patella.
c. femur.
d. fibula.
e. tibia.

Answer 143

tibia.

Question 144

Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result in

a. inability to see.
b. inability to hear.
c. inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue.
d. inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue.
e. inability to smell.

Answer 144

inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue.

Question 145

Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton?

a. fusion of the coxal bones
b. closure of the fontanels
c. appearance of major vertebral curves
d. reduction in mineral content
e. bone remodeling

Answer 145

bone remodeling

Question 146

Joints can be classified structurally as

a. bony.
b. cartilaginous.
c. synovial.
d. fibrous.
e. All of the answers are correct.

Answer 146

All of the answers are correct.

Question 147

Taste buds on the tongue are often associated with epithelial projections called

a. lingual papillae.
b. macula.
c. ganglion cells.
d. ampulla.
e. pharyngeal papillae.

Answer 147

lingual papillae.

Question 148

A ________ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position.

a. dislocation
b. bunion
c. sprain
d. bursitis
e. fracture

Answer 148

dislocation

Question 149

Amacrine cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? Horizontal cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? (Figure 17-7)

a. horizontal cells synapse with bipolar cells; amacrine cells synapse with bipolar cells
b. photoreceptors synapse with ganglion cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells
c. horizontal cells synapse with photoreceptors; amacrine cells synapse with ganglion cells
d. bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells; photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells
e. photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells

Answer 149

bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells; photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells

Question 150

The gelatinous core of an intervertebral disc is called the

a. annulus fibrosus.
b. synovial fluid.
c. gelatinous pulposus.
d. nucleus pulposus.
e. gelatinous fibrosus.

Answer 150

nucleus pulposus.

Question 151

All of the following are true of the neural layer of the eye except that it

a. is the innermost layer of the eyeball.
b. contains bipolar cells.
c. consists of dense fibrous connective tissue.
d. contains the photoreceptor cells.
e. contains ganglion cells.

Answer 151

consists of dense fibrous connective tissue

Question 152

Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary ________, and sympathetic activation causes ________.

a. constriction; constriction
b. constriction; dilation
c. dilation; dilation
d. vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction
e. dilation; constriction

Answer 152

constriction; dilation

Question 153

In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci

a. are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones.
b. take the place of bursae.
c. are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia.
d. act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.
e. are found between the patella and femur.

Answer 153

act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.

Question 154

The ciliary muscle contracts to

a. adjust the shape of the cornea.
b. adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision.
c. adjust the shape of the lens for near vision.
d. control the amount of light reaching the retina.
e. control the production of aqueous humor.

Answer 154

adjust the shape of the lens for near vision.

Question 155

In ________ an autoimmune response attacks joints and causes an inflammation condition.

a. rheumatism
b. degenerative joint disease
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. osteoporosis
e. gouty arthritis

Answer 155

rheumatoid arthritis

Question 156

Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep.
1. muscle fiber
2. perimysium
3. myofibril
4. fascicle
5. endomysium
6. epimysium

a. 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2
b. 6, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
c. 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 5
d. 6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
e. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6

Answer 156

6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

Question 157

The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the proper sequence for these steps?
1. Membrane sodium channels close.
2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP.
3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form.
4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.
5. Opsin activates transducin.
6. Opsin activation occurs.

a. 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4
b. 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
c. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2
d. 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3
e. 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4

Answer 157

3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4

Question 158

Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for

a. the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
b. muscle fatigue.
c. muscle contraction.
d. muscle relaxation.
e. the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.

Answer 158

muscle contraction.

Question 159

In the sarcomere which elastic protein attaches the thick filament to the Z line?

a. titin
b. actin
c. G actin
d. nebulin
e. myosin

Answer 159

titin

Question 160

Shaking your head “no” will stimulate the hair cells of the

a. lateral semicircular duct.
b. utricle.
c. posterior semicircular duct.
d. saccule.
e. anterior semicircular duct.

Answer 160

lateral semicircular duct.

Question 161

Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the

a. saccule and utricle.
b. spiral organ.
c. semicircular canals.
d. cochlea.
e. scala tympani.

Answer 161

saccule and utricle.

Question 162

The elevated ridges within the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as

a. maculae.
b. vestibules.
c. canals.
d. otoliths.
e. ampullary crests.

Answer 162

ampullary crests.

Question 163

Hormones known as “catecholamines” are

a. peptides.
b. derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
c. lipids.
d. derivatives of reproductive glands.
e. steroids.

Answer 163

derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.

Question 164

The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually

a. calcium ion levels.
b. a G protein.
c. cAMP.
d. cGMP.
e. adenyl cyclase.

Answer 164

a G protein.

Question 165

Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and thromboxanes are all examples of

a. glycoproteins.
b. eicosanoids.
c. amino acid derivatives.
d. steroid hormones.
e. tyrosine derivatives.

Answer 165

eicosanoids.

Question 166

The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called

a. tetany.
b. concentric.
c. isometric.
d. isotonic.
e. treppe.

Answer 166

isometric.

Question 167

The main action of antidiuretic hormone is

a. increased water conservation by kidneys.
b. to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.
c. increased blood pressure by increased Na+ d. reabsorption.
d. inhibition of aldosterone.
e. increase urine output to remove excess fluid.

Answer 167

increased water conservation by kidneys.

Question 168

Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of

a. intermediate fibers.
b. slow fibers.
c. fatty muscles.
d. red muscles.
e. fast fibers.

Answer 168

fast fibers.

Question 169

Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells?

a. Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not.
b. Cardiac muscle cells does not have striations like skeletal muscle cells.
c. Cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres.
d. Cardiac muscle cells does not have t-tubules.
e. Cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells.

Answer 169

Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not.

Question 170

A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)

a. originator.
b. levator.
c. agonist.
d. synergist.
e. antagonist.

Answer 170

synergist

Question 171

Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle’s action except

a. adductor.
b. sartorius.
c. levator.
d. extensor.
e. pronator.

Answer 171

sartorius

Question 172

The term used to describe excess production of urine is

a. glycosuria.
b. polydipsia.
c. polyphagia.
d. polyuria.
e. hematuria.

Answer 172

polyuria.

Question 173

The quadriceps group includes all of the following except the

a. vastus lateralis.
b. vastus intermedius.
c. biceps femoris.
d. rectus femoris.
e. vastus medialis.

Answer 173

biceps femoris.

Question 174

The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.

a. afferent
b. sympathetic
c. somatic
d. autonomic
e. parasympathetic

Answer 174

somatic

Question 175

________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.

a. Internoceptors
b. Exteroceptors
c. Spinal nerves
d. Unipolar neurons
e. Proprioceptors

Answer 175

Internoceptors

Question 176

Hormones that stimulate endocrine glands to release other hormones are

a. humoral.
b. tropic.
c. reflexive.
d. up-regulators.
e. paracrine factors.

Answer 176

tropic.

Question 177

Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels.

a. leak
b. gated
c. regulated
d. local
e. active

Answer 177

leak

Question 178

The hormone that plays a pivotal role in setting the metabolic rate and thus impacting body temperature is

a. thyroxine.
b. calcitonin.
c. parathyroid hormone.
d. glucagon.
e. somatotropin.

Answer 178

thyroxine.

Question 179

After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic terminal

a. pinches off and a new terminal grows.
b. reabsorbs the acetylcholine.
c. reabsorbs the choline.
d. reabsorbs axoplasm.
e. reabsorbs the acetate.

Answer 179

reabsorbs the choline.

Question 180

When a second EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs?

a. hyperpolarization
b. temporal summation
c. inhibition of the impulse
d. decrease in speed of impulse transmission
e. spatial summation

Answer 180

temporal summation

Question 181

The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the

a. periosteum.
b. pia mater.
c. coccygeal ligament.
d. arachnoid mater.
e. dura mater.

Answer 181

dura mater.

Question 182

Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect?

a. loss of sensation in his torso
b. uncontrollable sweating of his feet
c. problems moving his legs
d. inability to breathe
e. problems with moving his arms

Answer 182

loss of sensation in his torso

Question 183

Thyroid hormone may increase cellular ATP production by binding to

a. the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
b. the vesicles.
c. the cytoplasm.
d. the inner surface of the plasma membrane.
e. the mitochondria.

Answer 183

the mitochondria.

Question 184

Nerve plexuses are formed by interconnecting branches of the

a. white rami communicans.
b. posterior rami.
c. anterior rami.
d. anterior root.
e. posterior root.

Answer 184

anterior rami.

Question 185

Which of the following is NOT a way that reflexes are classified?

a. monosynaptic/polysynaptic
b. spinal/cranial
c. innate/acquired
d. somatic/visceral
e. sympathetic/parasympathetic

Answer 185

sympathetic/parasympathetic

Question 186

A hormone that promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver is

a. erythropoietin.
b. calcitonin.
c. thymosin.
d. cortisol.
e. aldosterone.

Answer 186

cortisol.

Question 187

In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.

a. contralateral
b. polysynaptic
c. monosynaptic
d. commensual
e. ipsilateral

Answer 187

monosynaptic

Question 188

When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a bike, which area of your brain coordinates your movements with learned experiences?

a. thalamus
b. midbrain
c. pons
d. medulla oblongata
e. cerebellum

Answer 188

cerebellum

Question 189

Which of the following is NOT a property of the blood-brain barrier?

a. Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.
b. It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.
c. It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs.
d. It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds.
e. The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.

Answer 189

It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds.

Question 190

The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the

a. arbor vitae.
b. flocculonodular lobe.
c. vermis.
d. folia.
e. pyramid.

Answer 190

vermis

Question 191

The olfactory cortex is located in the

a. frontal lobe.
b. temporal lobe.
c. occipital lobe.
d. parietal lobe.
e. cerebellum.

Answer 191

temporal lobe.

Question 192

Which hormone may be prescribed in chronic inflammatory disorders such as Lupus?

a. aldosterone
b. insulin
c. cortisol
d. calcitonin
e. androgens

Answer 192

cortisol

Question 193

Which cranial nerve sends balance sensations to the brain?

a. vagus
b. olfactory
c. vestibulocochlear
d. facial
e. trigeminal

Answer 193

vestibulocochlear

Question 194

Alpha cells are to ________ as beta cells are to ________.

a. somatostatin; insulin
b. pancreatic polypeptide; insulin
c. glucagon; somatostatin
d. glucagon; insulin
e. insulin; glucagon

Answer 194

glucagon; insulin

Question 195

A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected?

a. trigeminal
b. hypoglossal
c. glossopharyngeal
d. spinal accessory
e. vagus

Answer 195

hypoglossal

Question 196

When blood glucose levels fall,

a. peripheral cells take up more glucose.
b. protein synthesis increases.
c. insulin is released.
d. glucagon is released.
e. calcitonin is secreted.

Answer 196

glucagon is released.

Question 197

The sensory receptors, neurons and pathways make up the ________ division of the nervous system.

a. involuntary
b. afferent
c. somatic
d. voluntary
e. efferent

Answer 197

afferent

Question 198

Type 2 diabetes

a. is a lack of insulin production.
b. is not as common as type 1 diabetes.
c. can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication.
d. is associated with an immune reaction to the pancreatic cells.
e. is typically diagnosed in the very young.

Answer 198

can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication.

Question 199

All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity EXCEPT

a. the structure of the receptor cell.
b. accessory cells that function with the receptor.
c. the metabolism of the receptor cell.
d. accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli.
e. characteristics of the receptor cell membrane.

Answer 199

the metabolism of the receptor cell.

Question 200

Two types of receptors that are least likely to adapt are the

a. proprioceptors and nociceptors.
b. lamellar corpuscles and baroreceptors.
c. chemoreceptors and baroreceptors.
d. tactile discs and the free nerve endings.
e. free nerve endings and the root hair plexus.

Answer 200

proprioceptors and nociceptors

Question 201

The heart secretes the hormone

a. thymosin.
b. atrial natriuretic peptide.
c. thyroxine.
d. progesterone.
e. oxytocin.

Answer 201

atrial natriuretic peptide.

Question 202

In motor pathways, the only portion of the pathway that is outside of the CNS is the

a. interneuron.
b. lower motor neuron.
c. upper motor neuron.
d. axon of the upper motor neuron.
e. axon of the lower motor neuron.

Answer 202

axon of the lower motor neuron.

Question 203

In the corticospinal pathway, the neuron that exits the spinal cord and enters the spinal nerve is called the ________ neuron.

a. lower motor
b. lower sensory
c. pyramidal
d. upper motor
e. upper sensory

Answer 203

lower motor

Question 204

The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during “rest and digest.”

a. visceral
b. thoracolumbar
c. sympathetic
d. parasympathetic
e. somatomotor

Answer 204

parasympathetic

Question 205

In the sympathetic nervous system, where are the preganglionic neurons located?

a. thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord
b. brain stem
c. sacral segments of the spinal cord
d. cervical and sacral segments of the spinal cord
e. cerebellum

Answer 205

thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord

Question 206

The statement “Preganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholine” is

a. true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
b. true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
c. not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
d. true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
e. true only for the somatic nervous system.

Answer 206

true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.

Question 207

The statement “It controls the diameter of the pupil” is

a. not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
b. true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
c. true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
d. true only for the somatic nervous system.
e. true only for the sympathetic nervous system.

Answer 207

true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.

Question 208

Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes.

a. intermediate
b. short
c. long
d. hyper
e. spinal

Answer 208

short

Question 209

Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain?

a. pons
b. cerebrum
c. medulla oblongata
d. cerebellum
e. thalamus

Answer 209

cerebrum

Question 210

As we age

a. the number of taste buds increases.
b. taste bud sensitivity doubles.
c. the number of taste buds decreases.
d. taste bud sensitivity increases.
e. the number of taste buds decreases but the number of olfactory receptors increases to compensate.

Answer 210

the number of taste buds decreases.

Question 211

Which of the following is a function of the pigmented layer of the retina?

a. secrete vitreous humor
b. refract light onto the photoreceptors
c. provide eye color
d. absorb light passing through the neural layer
e. house the photoreceptors

Answer 211

absorb light passing through the neural layer

Question 212

Light refraction takes place at the

a. cornea and lens.
b. cornea and optic disc.
c. optic disc.
d. lens only.
e. cornea only.

Answer 212

cornea and lens.

Question 213

Conflicting sensory information from visual and movement signals may cause

a. ringing in the ears.
b. motion sickness.
c. difficulty hearing low tones.
d. temporary deafness.
e. enhanced hearing.

Answer 213

motion sickness

Question 214

All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they

a. are produced by reproductive glands.
b. are produced by the adrenal medulla.
c. are lipids.
d. bind to receptors within the cell.
e. are derived from cholesterol.

Answer 214

are produced by the adrenal medulla.

Question 215

The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is

a. glucagon.
b. parathyroid hormone.
c. growth hormone.
d. insulin.
e. thyroid hormone.

Answer 215

parathyroid hormone.

Question 216

A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body is

a. parathormone.
b. cortisol.
c. aldosterone.
d. somatotropin.
e. thymosin.

Answer 216

aldosterone

Question 217

The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce

a. peptide P.
b. insulin.
c. somatostatin.
d. cortisol.
e. glucagon.

Answer 217

insulin.

Question 218

Normal growth is dependent on all of the following hormones except

a. glucocorticoids.
b. growth hormone.
c. thyroid hormones.
d. oxytocin.
e. insulin.

Answer 218

oxytocin.

Question 219

Which one of the following is NOT one of the four main tissue categories?

a. muscle tissue
b. neural tissue
c. epithelial tissue
d. connective tissue
e. osseous tissue

Answer 219

osseous tissue

Question 220

Epithelial cells that line the small intestine transport nutrients into the body. Directional transport is associated with the epithelial tissue property of

a. polarity.
b. avascularity.
c. regeneration.
d. attachment.
e. cellularity.

Answer 220

polarity.

Question 221

Germinative cells

a. cannot divide in the deep layers of epithelial tissue.
b. start in the superficial layers of epithelial tissue.
c. make up most of the epithelial type of tissue.
d. divide continually to produce new epithelial cells.
e. cannot function in the repair of epithelial tissue.

Answer 221

divide continually to produce new epithelial cells.

Question 222

You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the

a. stomach.
b. secretory portions of the pancreas.
c. surface of the skin.
d. urinary bladder.
e. trachea.

Answer 222

trachea.

Question 223

The three categories of connective tissues are

a. connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.
b. glandular connective tissue, exocrine connective tissue, and endocrine connective tissue.
c. epithelial connective tissue, muscle connective tissue, and neural connective tissue.
d. connective tissue proper, cartilage connective tissue, and bone connective tissue.
e. areolar connective tissue, adipose connective tissue, and dense connective tissue.

Answer 223

connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.

Question 224

A tissue that provides strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions is

a. any connective tissue proper.
b. dense regular connective tissue.
c. reticular connective tissue.
d. elastic or hyaline cartilage.
e. dense irregular connective tissue.

Answer 224

dense irregular connective tissue.

Question 225

The watery fluid component of blood is called

a. hemoplasm.
b. hemosol.
c. plasma.
d. liquid elements.
e. formed elements.

Answer 225

plasma.

Question 226

Which blood vessels have porous walls that allow water and small solutes to seep through?

a. capillaries
b. arterioles
c. arteries
d. venules
e. veins

Answer 226

capillaries

Question 227

Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.

a. leukocytes
b. erythrocytes
c. lymphocytes
d. chondrocytes
e. mesenchymal cells

Answer 227

chondrocytes

Question 228

Osseous tissue is also called

a. bone.
b. ligament.
c. cellulite.
d. fat.
e. cartilage.

Answer 228

bone.

Question 229

Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of ________ perspiration.

a. vacuous
b. non-sense
c. imprudent
d. impractical
e. insensible

Answer 229

insensible

Question 230

The largest quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum

a. spinosum.
b. lucidum.
c. granulosum.
d. basale.
e. corneum.

Answer 230

corneum.

Question 231

The amount of time it takes for a cell to progress from stratum basale to stratum corneum is

a. 7-10 days.
b. 5 days.
c. 1 minute.
d. 14 days.
e. 1 day.

Answer 231

7-10 days.

Question 232

Use Figure 5-1 to answer the following question:
Adipose tissue is a major component of the region labeled

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5.

Answer 232

5.

Question 233

What are the dermal sensory structures that sense deep pressure?

a. Meissner’s corpuscles
b. lamellar corpuscle
c. Merkel cells
d. tactile corpuscles
e. tactile dics

Answer 233

lamellar corpuscle

Question 234

The layer of loose connective tissue deep to the dermis is the

a. deep fascia.
b. subcutaneous layer.
c. epidermis.
d. reticular layer.
e. hyperdermis.

Answer 234

subcutaneous layer.

Question 235

An albino individual lacks the ability to produce

a. melanin.
b. perspiration.
c. eleidin.
d. keratin.
e. carotene.

Answer 235

melanin

Question 236

Which of the following causes yellowing of the skin?

a. pituitary tumor affecting melanocyte stimulating hormone
b. vitiligo
c. faulty bile excretion in the liver
d. cyanosis
e. Addison’s disease

Answer 236

faulty bile excretion in the liver

Question 237

Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation?

a. reduced amounts of elastic fibers in the dermis
b. production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells
c. loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo
d. chromosomal damage in germinative cells or melanocytes
e. increased activity by melanocytes

Answer 237

loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo

Question 238

Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called

a. squamous cell carcinoma.
b. melanoma.
c. keratosis.
d. psoriasis.
e. basal cell carcinoma.

Answer 238

basal cell carcinoma.

Question 239

Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?

a. other tissues that connect bones
b. tendons
c. ligaments
d. bones
e. cartilage

Answer 239

tendons

Question 240

A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a

a. trochlea.
b. tubercle.
c. tuberosity.
d. trochanter.
e. trabecula.

Answer 240

tuberosity.

Question 241

The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is called a

a. crown.
b. capitulum.
c. bulb.
d. head.
e. corona.

Answer 241

head.

Question 242

The patella is an example of a(n) ________ bone.

a. flat
b. sagittal
c. sesamoid
d. sutural
e. irregular

Answer 242

sesamoid

Question 243

A shallow depression on a bone is termed a

a. sulcus.
b. fossa.
c. fissure.
d. line.
e. facet.

Answer 243

fossa.

Question 244

Bones that are small, round and tend to develop in tendons are

a. long bones.
b. flat bones.
c. sesamoid bones.
d. short bones.
e. irregular bones.

Answer 244

sesamoid bones.

Question 245

Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte?

a. immature bone cell
b. stem cell
c. dissolves matrix
d. mature bone cell
e. secretes organic matrix

Answer 245

mature bone cell

Question 246

The femur can withstand ________ times the body’s weight without breaking.

a. 5 to 10
b. 10 to 15
c. 3
d. 8
e. 30

Answer 246

10 to 15

Question 247

The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?

a. osseous cartilage
b. fibrocartilage
c. synovial cartilage
d. hyaline cartilage
e. elastic cartilage

Answer 247

hyaline cartilage

Question 248

RANKL or receptor activators of nuclear factor kB

a. causes calcium to be excreted by the kidneys.
b. is a signal molecule that stimulates osteoclasts development.
c. are found on the surface of osteoclasts.
d. are receptors that bind directly to PTH.
e. are molecules that cause osteoblasts to lay down bone.

Answer 248

is a signal molecule that stimulates osteoclasts development.

Question 249

Identify the mismatched pair.

a. vertebral column: 24 vertebrae and 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx
b. bones associated with the skull: 6 auditory ossicles and 1 hyoid bone
c. skull bones: 8 cranial and 14 facial bones
d. thoracic cage: sternum and 24 ribs and 2 clavicles
e. There is no mismatched pair.

Answer 249

thoracic cage: sternum and 24 ribs and 2 clavicles

Question 250

In some individuals the supra-orbital foramen is incomplete and called the

a. supra-orbital suture.
b. supra-orbital fissure.
c. supra-orbital fontanelle.
d. supra-orbital meatus.
e. supra-orbital notch.

Answer 250

supra-orbital notch.

Question 251

Which paired bones form the lateral, posterior portions of the cranium?

a. parietal
b. sphenoid
c. frontal
d. maxilla
e. zygomatic

Answer 251

parietal

Question 252

Which of the following is not a cranial bone?

a. temporal
b. occipital
c. palatine
d. frontal
e. parietal

Answer 252

palatine

Question 253

The ________ bone is unusual because it doesn’t contact another bone.

a. lacrimal
b. ethmoid
c. atlas
d. vomer
e. hyoid

Answer 253

hyoid

Question 254

The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture.

a. lambdoid
b. sagittal
c. rostral
d. coronal
e. squamous

Answer 254

coronal

Question 255

The smallest facial bones are the

a. lacrimal bones.
b. ethmoid bones.
c. lacerum bones.
d. zygomatic bones.
e. nasal bones.

Answer 255

lacrimal bones

Question 256

The exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by

a. increased pumping effectiveness of the heart.
b. an increase in urine output.
c. failure of electrolyte balance.
d. a sharp increase in motivation and energy.
e. an increasing ability to produce glucose from glycogen.

Answer 256

failure of electrolyte balance.