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FINAL Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following are considered Protista?
- Bacteria
- Amoeba
- Algae
- Yeast

A
  • Amoeba
  • Algae
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2
Q

Match each of the following diseases to the correct bacterial family
- Scalded Skin Syndrome
- Bubonic Plague
- Opthalmia Neonatorium
- Legionnaires

A
  1. Scalded Skin Syndrome - Staph Aureus
  2. Bubonic Plague - Yersina Pestis
  3. Opthalmia Neonatorium - Staphylococcus
  4. Legionnaires - Legionella
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3
Q

Each of the following statements about glycolysis is true, except:
- Reactants include glucose, NAD, and ATP
- 2 molecules of ATP are required as reactants
- The net gain is 4 ATP
- Products include pyruvate, NADH, ATP, and H+

A

The net gain is 4 ATP

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4
Q

In what order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a researcher do during a phase dilution streak?

A

May perform a 3-phase dilution streak or pass the loop through the previous loop phase multiple times

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5
Q

The function of the mitochondria is:

A

To produce energy (ATP)

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6
Q

When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need?

A

An LB media best suits the needs, because all the other forms are selective media. Like stated, the bacteria must first be expanded, the selective medias may potentially inhibit the growth of the sample.

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7
Q

Place the following viral life cycle steps in order beginning with viral attachment and provide a description of each. This could also ask only for the definition for uncoating
Uncoating
Release
Replication
Attachment
Entry
New infection

A
  1. Attachment: viral receptors bind to host proteins on the surface of the cell
  2. Entry: the virus fuses with the host membrane and enters the cell
  3. Uncoating: the viral capsid disassembles
  4. Replication: the viral genome is the ‘blueprint’ to make copies of itself
  5. Release: New virus particles are produced and leave the cell
  6. New infection: newly produced viruses that left the host cell now go on to infect new cells.
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8
Q

In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources?

A
  • Lactose
  • Carbohydrates
  • Lipids
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9
Q

T or F: the viral capsid of HIV is a dumbbell shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24.

A

False; HIV is cone shaped

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10
Q

In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria?

A

P4

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11
Q

T or F: chlamydia can be grown on an agar plate alone

A

False; requires a host

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12
Q

Left untreated, three percent of cases of Streptococcal pharyngitis will progress to which of the following?

A

Rheumatic fever

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13
Q

Match each of the following organelles with the correct description.
- Ribosomes
- Nucleus
- Cytoplasm
- Lysosomes

A
  1. Ribo - funtion in protein synthesis
  2. Nucleus - contains genomic content
  3. Cyto - constitutes the open volume
  4. Lyso - contains hydrolytic enzymes
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14
Q

T or F: if you wish to study the motility of an organism you cannot heat fix, but you can chemically fix the specimen

A

False; both ways of fixing the specimen will kill the cell, cannot make motility observations

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15
Q

What small, single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus causes temporary or permanent paralysis by infiltrating motor neurons within the spinal cord, brain stem, or motor cortex?

A

Polio

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16
Q

True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true.
When grown on Blood Agar Plates (BAP), microbes capable of alpha hemolysis present as greenish-brown color colonies due to incomplete (partial) lysis of red blood cells.

A

True

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17
Q

The function of the ribosome is:

A

Protein synthesis

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18
Q

T or F: a defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers

A

True

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19
Q

Describe TWO differences between DNA and RNA.

A

RNA contains the sugar ribose
DNA contains deoxyribose

RNA is always single-stranded
DNA is double-stranded

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20
Q

T or F: plants, algae, and bacteria all contain chloroplasts

A

False; plants and algae contain chloroplasts, bacteria does not

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21
Q

T or F: to restrict the growth of pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37C to 25C

A

True

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22
Q

A researcher is looking to solidify an agent for growth media. What polysaccocharide substance would they use?

A

Agar

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23
Q

A drug company is trying to develop a new that will inhibit the release of newly produced viral particles. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins?

Study These Flashcards
A

The drug company would target neuraminidase proteins because they are involved in the formation and release of new viral particles.

24
Q

T or F: similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body

Study These Flashcards
A

False; blisters that appear with shingles are limited to small areas

25
You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide.
Red cells on a blue background. The cells are TB+ and the background is TB-
26
Bacteria that have a curved rod morphology are referred to as ______.
Virbrio
27
T or F: if a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform
True
28
You want to observe the movement of microorganisms that are present in a sample of cheek cells obtained on a patient. Briefly explain the technique that you would use and how it is performed.
A wet would be performed, which are used to observe the motility and behavior of an organism. The liquid culture containing a microorganism is added to a slide and then covered with a glass coverslip. The coverslip is used to protect the objective and the culture while also holding it in place.
29
Why does the alpha toxin (perfrinogolysin) produced during an infection of gas gangrene cause cell death?
The alpha toxin perforates the membrane. Cell death is caused by the damage of nerves from spores that are formed in the host cells
30
T or F: although there is no cure for tetanus, it can be prevented through vaccination
True
31
Each of the following statements about respiration are true, except: - it is an aerobic process - it does not produce atp - it produces NADH and FADH2 in abundance - the central cycle is called the tricarboxylic acid cycle
It does not produce ATP
32
Describe the main underlining differenced between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccine
The Salk vaccine is an inactivated form of polio that is meant to be injected. The Sabin vaccine is a weakened, live form of polio that is meant to be ingested orally.
33
T or F: pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes
False; pneumonic plague will affect the respiratory system
34
Describe the ONE main differences between lytic and temperate phages.
Lytic bacteriophages replicate within the host bacteria until it ruptures, whereas temperate (or lysogenic) phages primarily exist in a non-replicative state that does not kill the host cell.
35
T or F: the purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population
True
36
What is one of the main functions of light reactions?
Produce a proton concentration gradient to create ATP
37
List the 4 nitrogen bases in RNA and describe how they pair with one another
Adenine to Uracil Guanine to Cytosine
38
True or False. If the statement is false, change it to make it true. When grown on Blood Agar Plates (BAP), microbes capable of delta hemolysis designate the absence or lack of hemolytic activity and the resulting colonies are often white/tan in color growing on the red background of the unaffected BAP present as greenish-brown color colonies due to incomplete (partial) lysis of red blood cells
False
39
T or F: the Calvin Cycle must occur in the absence of light
False; dark reactions don't actually have to occur in darkness
40
T or F: the b-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids
True
41
describe TWO main characteristics of LYTIC bacteriophage replication
1. it replicates in the host cell until the host ruptures 2. it replicates all proteins that it needs to assemble new virus particles
42
T or F: when performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase
True
43
The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following:
- ATP - NADPH
44
Identify each of the following microorganisms as either a Prokaryote or a Eukaryote - E. Coli - Archaeons - Yeast - Amoeba
1. E.coli - Prokaryote 2. Archaeons - Prokaryote 3. Yeast - Eukaryote 4. Amoeba - Eukaryote
45
T or F: following the decolorization step of the Gram stain, Gram-neg bacteria will appear colorless
True
46
The Gram stain differentiates between bacteria based on the composition of their _____________.
Cell wall
47
A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalize plating strategy?
The resulting gradient should always contain the growth of individual colonies from a quadrant streak
48
How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate?
1 ATP
49
T or F: all multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic
False; they are heterotropic
50
You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform?
Simple staining, using a crystal violet dye
51
What linear, double-stranded, enveloped DNA virus is the first virus (as of Oct. 26, 1977) to be officially declared eradicated?
Smallpox
52
Match each of the following terms with the correct description. Phototroph Lithotroph Autotroph Chemotroph
Phototroph - Utilize photons of light to generate ATP from ADP Lithotroph - Remove electrons from inorganic molecules Autotroph - Obtain their source of carbon from inorganic molecules Chemotroph - Acquire energy from preformed chemicals found in the environment
53
Match each of the following organelles with the correct description. - Nucleus - Endoplasmic Reticulum - Lysosomes - Chloroplasts
1. Nucleus - Contains genomic content of the cell 2. Endoplasmic Reticulum - Series of membrane-enclosed sacs and interconnected tubes 3. Lysosomes - Contain hydrolytic enzymes capable of degrading unwanted cellular debris 4. Chloroplasts - Site of photosynthesis
54
Cell walls are found in which of the following:
- Algae - Bacteria - Plants - Fungi
55
T or F: directly ingesting clostridium or its associated spores will not cause illness in adults
True
56
Match each of the following terms with the correct description. Organotroph phototroph heterotroph lithotroph
Organo - remove electrons from organisms.... Photo - Utilize photons of light to... hetero - obtains their source of carbs... litho - remove electrons from inorgan

Microbiology (6 decks)

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