Final Flashcards
(177 cards)
1
Q
Which org or agency accredits veterinary technology programs in the US?
A
AVMA
2
Q
What are the eligible designations after passing the VTNE?
A
Certified
Registered
Licensed
3
Q
Preventing employment related accidents and illness is under the enforcement of…
A
OSHA
4
Q
Malpractice, aka…
A
Negligence
5
Q
How many recommended and essential tasks are listed in the CVTEA handbook?
A
350
6
Q
What is the most severe penalty a veterinary board may impose?
A
revocation of a license
7
Q
To whom does a vet tech student apply to take the VTNE?
A
AAVSB
8
Q
Animals used in research facilities and teaching institutions are registered by which government agency?
A
AWA (USDA)
9
Q
ethical standards are _____ stringent than those required by law
A
just as, if not more so
10
Q
Who has the ultimate decision making authority over the care provided to an owned animal?
A
Owner
11
Q
The client observations are used to formulate which part of the problem oriented medical record progress notes?
A
subjective
12
Q
What part of the SOAP would this fall into:
suspect otitis externa (ear infection)
A
Assessment
13
Q
T or F, medical records can be written in any color ink desired
A
False
14
Q
The results of a diagnostic test would be considered which part of the problem oriented medical record progress notes?
A
Objective
15
Q
If a mistaken entry in a medical record has occurred, what is the method by which it is corrected?
A
the entry has a single horizontal line placed through it
16
Q
Define the objective portion of the POMR
A
information gathered directly from the patient, PE, and diagnostic workup
17
Q
Define the plan portion of the POMR
A
Sx, Dx to be performed, Tx, and meds dispensed
18
Q
When taking hx, the interview should end with…
A
a summation of the client’s recitation
19
Q
Appearing non judgemental about the client’s answers to the questions is…
A
a way to ensure that you get accurate information
20
Q
Standing behind the exam table while taking a hx
A
distances you from the client, making you appear uncaring
21
Q
How can you help owners recall a time frame?
A
link time to specific events such as holidays
22
Q
What is the most common fitting mistake with gentle leader?
A
neck strap too loose
23
Q
What are the sources for acquisition of our animals in the VT program?
A
Shelters/Humane societies
surrender
breed rescue
24
Q
What is the first thing to do when getting ready to work with your PACT animal?
A
look at the medical record
25
What part is adjusted first on the gentle leader
the neck strap
26
Animals housed in the Vet Tech program are governed by...
the USDA
27
When do you use the red leads in the kennel area?
emergencies
28
A cat has a crouched body posture with tail tucked, pupils dilated, is hissing and growling at the back of the cage in the vet hospital. What body posture is it exhibiting?
Defensive Threat
29
Alvin, a mixed breed MN doesn't like the UPS man. He will bare his teeth and raise his hackles when he sees him. His body is crouched with his tail tucked and his ears pinned back. He growls at him and tries to bite him when he approaches.
What body posture is he exhibiting?
Defensive threat
30
Dog will rollover and expose their underbelly, possibly urinating or defecating at that time.
What posture is this?
Submissive
31
Violet, the FS goldendoodle is lunging at the fence when small children are playing in the neighbor's yard. She has her hackles raise, standing erect, barking, growling, and staring directly at the children as she lunges at the fence.
What posture is she exhibiting?
Offensive Threat
32
A dog with eyes & ear forward, head up, mouth closed, tail at 45 degrees and hackles down is exhibiting which body posture?
Alert
33
Dog jumps up with tail wagging and try to lick person/animal's face. Cats don't specifically exhibit but will have ears erect and head up with tail sometimes straight up and twitching.
What posture is this?
Greeting
34
Who performs pt assessment in vet practice?
VT
35
Who performs pt restraint in practice?
VA
36
Main reason inventory is so important in practice
significant expense for practice
37
What is the most important indicator for financial success of a practice?
Proftiability
38
A client's judgement regarding the quality of medicine provided at a practice is based on
the level of service the client receives
39
Describe marketing for a vet practice
Any effort the practice makes to retain or obtain clients and make the practice more visible in the community
40
What is the most common selection criteria by clients when choosing a vet practice
location
41
Who performs sx?
Vet
42
Who performs basic animal husbandry in practice?
Kennel Attendant
43
It is best to base the employee's pay on...
Performance
44
Who makes appointments in practice?
receptionists
45
Who is responsible for all activities of the practice and running the hospital in conjunction with the practice owner
Hospital administrator
46
A document that is a visual representation of how authority and responsibility flow between the various areas of the practice or practice staff
Organizational chart
47
Why is placement of the lab and pharmacy in a central location important?
They are often used for examining and treating both outpatients and hospitalized patients
48
What is the bets way to ensure all major pieces of equipment in a pracitce are cleaned and maintained on a regular basis?
assign each member of the team with a specific piece of equipment to clean and maintain
49
What is the main reason to hold regular employee evaluations?
improve the employee's performance
50
complaints against vet practices are usually caused by....
ineffective communication
51
Increased competition, new tech, increasing malpractice threats and shifting client expectations have...
made effective management of a practice more complex
52
How many exam rooms should be available for each veterinarian working on a particular day?
2
53
What is a disadvantage of computerized medical records
computer generated records can lack medical details
54
lethargic, not eating well, reluctant to move are what part of the SOAP?
subjective
55
What is the signalment?
collective information that identifies an individual pt (species, breed, gender, repro status, age and color)
56
Abx prescribed, hypoallergenic diet, and follow-up appt are in what part of the SOAP?
Plan
57
cardiac insufficiency and hypotension are what part of the SOAP?
Assessment
58
HR, RR, MM are what part of the SOAP?
Objective
59
Awake, Alert, standing, wagging tail are what part of the SOAP?
Subjective
60
Major medical disorders experienced during a pt's lifetime are listed to serve as an index to their medical record as...
master problem list
61
Tx, dx tests, and diet requested by Vet for hospitalized pt is found on the....
MAOR
62
temp, wt, CRT are on what part of the SOAP
Objective
63
Who owns the medical records
the hospital
64
T or F, According to the Federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act, an inventory of all controlled substance must be made on an annual basis
T
65
Hypothermia, altered mentation, inappropriate elimination and risk of infection are _______ according to the CT practice model
patient evaluation
66
URI is what part of the SOAP?
Assessment
67
Limited daily exercise, cold compresses to injury are what part of the SOAP?
Plan
68
An inactive med record is defined as...
A client who has not been seen by the practice in 3 years
69
AAHA endorses what form of record keeping for practices seeking certification?
POMR
70
What restraint tool simulates scruffing a cat?
clipnosis
71
who is legally responsible if a client gets injured in a vet practice by their own pet
Vet/practice owner
72
What form of restraint filters a dog's vision to help reduce anxiety?
calming cap
73
What restraint tool can be used on an unattended animal to avoid being bit during procedures and facilitate cage removal?
E-collar
74
What is enteral administration of a medication?
oral
75
Which species is more likely to have loose SQ tissue
cat
76
Aural administration of medication refers to
placement of medication in the ears
77
What is the preferred method of ear cleaner administration at CSCC?
saturate a cotton ball with cleaner, then place cotton ball in the ear canal
78
Parenteral refers to what for of medication administration?
Topical application
79
What is the ungual process?
The quick
where the BV and nerve endings are located in the nail
80
Negative Punishment
removing something pleasant or rewarding when an undesirable behavior occurs
81
What learning theories are normally utilized together?
Counterconditioning and desensitization
82
A large dog is brought in for a TNT. 1st attempt to restrain unsuccessful. Dog is then muzzled and held in lateral recumbency w/ add'l help while TNT.
What type of modification is this?
Flooding
83
Positive Reinforcement
Giving something pleasant or rewarding immediately following desirable behavior
84
When an animal is first learning a behavior, the rate of reinforcement should be...
100%
85
Negative Reinforcement
avoiding an aversive stimulus by performing a desirable behavior
86
When a dog is exposed to a thunderstorm tape at low volume that is gradually increased in volume overtime to diminish the dog's rxn to the noise.
What modification type is this?
Desensitization
87
We rewarded the puppy for jumping up on us when it was a baby. As it reaches adulthood, we now ignore them for jumping up on us by turning our back to them.
What modification type is this?
Extinction
88
Positive Punishment
adding an aversive stimulus immediately after an undesirable behavior
89
Shaping
positively reinforcing the movements that are offered by an animal in the direction or to achieve a predetermined end behavior
90
Variable rate of reinforcement is given when the animal is performing the correct behavior ___ percent of the time
80
91
Capturing
marking an interesting or unique behavior the animal naturally offers
92
a cue can be added once an animal has successfully repeated a behavior.....
10-15 times
93
Positive reinforcement should be given in what time frame after a correct behavior is exhibited?
1 second
94
Conditioned reinforcer
when a unique sound is linked to a food reward
95
When playing with a dog, the second its teeth contact your skin the owner should...
walk away from the dog
96
FDA approved drug for tx of k9 cognitive dysfunction
anipryl
97
Socialization period for kittens
2-7 weeks
98
Cause of most problem behaviors within a clinic
fear
99
FDA approved drug for tx of separation anxiety
chlomicalm
100
Start of socialization period for puppies
4 weeks
101
The process by which an association between 2 events is broken
extinction
102
When do dogs become sexually and socially mature
6 months
103
Counter conditioning
substitute an alternative behavior incompatible with the problem behavior
104
The result of chronic fear/anxiety from which there is no escape
stress
105
Result of changing dog hierarchy within the household
interdog aggression
106
What is considered an emergency if directed at children?
predatory aggression
107
2 cats staring at each other from 3 feet apart are exhbiting....
aggression
108
learned helplessness results from....
flooding
109
Exposing an animal frequently to nonthreatening stimuli (strangers, TNT, grooming and handling)
what process is this?
habituation
110
Sudden withdrawal of reinforcement of a previously rewarded behavior can cause
frustration
111
Do female dogs lift there leg to pee
yeah sometimes
112
113
How long is the neonatal period in puppies
2 weeks
114
Idiopathic aggression
aggression that is unpredictable and severe, occurring in absence of stimuli
115
A dog in the clinic is lip licking, yawing, and looking away from you.
What behavior is this?
anxious
116
A cat's body is arched, tail erect and ears flattened to its head is exhibiting....
fear aggression
117
Systematic desensitization
changing an animal's emotional response to a stimulus
118
giving a dog a food reward after each nail trimmed is an example of....
operant conditioning
119
What is the best way to treat fears
systematic desensitization
120
121
When 2 cats are interacting and 1 hisses, the hissing cat is exhibiting....
fear
122
behaviors performed by 2 animals that include cheek and tail rubbing
affiliated behaviors
123
respiratory sinus arrhythmia
HR that inc/dec with inspiration/expirations
124
BCS with ribs not easily palpable, fat deposits over lumbar area and base of tail, obvious rounding of abdomen with no waist
7/9
125
What are the 4 observations to evaluate hydration status
MMM, CRT, skin turgor, position of globe in orbit
126
dry MM, CRT >2s, sunken globe indicates...
dehydration
127
Ideal BCS
5/9
128
Observing a pt in their surroundings prior to the PE will allow you to assess their
mentation and respiratory effort
129
Causes for icteric MM
RBC destruction
hepatocellular dz
bile duct obstruction
130
pyrexia is considered
elevated body temp d/t increased exercise or activity
131
listening to HR and feeling femoral pulse at same time checks for
pulse deficits
132
which peripheral lymph nodes shouldn't be palpable unless there is inflammation, infection, or cancer?
axillary and inguinal
133
auscultation triangle
location to listen to the lungs with a stethoscope
134
the R HV heard best on the left side of the chest
pulmonary
135
lymph node located behind the stifle
popliteal
136
CRT assesses which condition?
perfusion/dehydration
137
eyeball feels firm on palpation
glaucoma
138
where is aural temp taken
ear
139
precursor for periodontal dz
gingivitis
140
petechiation in the pinna may be a sign of
thrombocytopenia
141
pulmonary edema
abnormal fluid build up in the lung tissue
142
Alopecia
hair loss
143
Ileus
complete absence of intestinal motility
144
Borborygmus
intestinal motility sound
145
Stridor
inspiratory sound similar to soring
146
Halitosis
bad breath
147
Glycosuria
glucose in teh urine
148
pleural effusion
increased fluid in teh thoracic cavity
149
yellow MM indicate
icterus
150
what is seen in a polydipsic cat?
increased drinking
151
ataxia
incoordination
152
Pruritic
itchy
153
Colitis
inflammation of the large intestine
154
Pupillary light reflex tests
CN II and III
155
Stenotic nares are seen in
brachycephalic breeds
156
Anisocoria
pupils of different sizes
157
Entropion
rolling of the lower eyelid toward the eye
158
Socialization period or sociability of a puppy decreases or ends at
12 weeks
159
compulsive disorders in dogs are treated by
structured interaction and timulation plus teaching a settle command
160
k9 behavior most frequently referred to a specialist
aggression
161
fear of noise is modified by
classical counterconditioning and desensitization
162
neutering aids with modifying....
aggression and inappropriate elimination
163
puppies will normally outgrow _____ types of inappropriate elimination
submissive and excitement elimination
164
what percent of dogs are euthenized at shelters
59%
165
yelling and screaming at an aggressive dog increases the arousal level and risk of injury.
Which learning theory is demonstrated?
positive punishment
166
Proper training involves
pos reinforcement and neg punishment
167
clients with animals with behavior problems will seek advice from ___ first
vet
168
how many litter boxes are recommended
1 more than # of cats
169
most common cat behavior issue
inappropriate elimination
170
feline behaviro issue most likely to be seen by a behavior specialist
aggression
171
socialization period for kittens
up to 12 weeks
172
cats scratch objects to
mark territory
173
how many more pet owned cats are there than pet owned dogs in US
10 million
174
what percent of how we empathize with our client (vocal) makes us credible and believable?
33%
175
what percent of what the client sees (visual) makes us credible and believable
55%
176
What percent of what we say (verbal) makes us credible and believable
7%
177
How many households in the US have at least 1 cat
40%
