Final 16,17,20 Flashcards
(304 cards)
1
Q
___ __ refers to defenses that are present at birth, which are always present and available to provide rapid responses to protect us against disease
A
InNate immunity
2
Q
___ ___ is based on a specific response to a specific microbe once a microbe has breached to the Innate immunity defenses
A
Adaptive immunity
3
Q
This system respond rapidly to invaders by detecting them and then attempting to eliminate them
A
Innate immune system
4
Q
It has recently been learned that the responses of the inmate system are activated by protein receptors in the plasma membrane’s of defense cells; among these activators are _____
A
TLR (toll like receptors)
5
Q
TLR attached to the various components commonly found on pathogens that are called _____
A
PAMP (pathogen associated molecular patterns)
6
Q
____ also attached two components of fungi and parasites
A
TLR
7
Q
Two of the defense of cells involved innate immunity are called ___ and ___ ___
A
Macro phages and dendritic cells
8
Q
___ are proteins that regulate the intensity and duration of immune responses
A
Cytokines
9
Q
The intact skin consist of the __, and inner, proportion composed of connective tissue, And the ___ and outer, thinner portion consisting of several layers of epithelial cells arranged and continuous sheets
A
Dermis/epidermis
10
Q
The top layer of epidermal cells contains the protein ___
A
Keratin
11
Q
___ __ line the body cavities that open to the exterior; these include the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tract
A
Mucous membranes
12
Q
The first line of defense consist of
A
Skin and mucous membranes
13
Q
Perspiration contains ____, an enzyme that breaks down the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria. This enzyme is also found in saliva, tears, nasal secretions, and tissue fluids
A
Lysozyme
14
Q
___ ___ is a mixture of hydrochloric acid, and zymes, and mucus, with and the city of pH 1.2 to 3
A
Gastric juice
15
Q
The normal microbiota, by __ ___, can often preevent colonization by pathogens. Live bacterial cultures, also known as ___ are sometimes added, which are intended to exert a beneficial effect
A
Competitive exclusion/probiotics
16
Q
Blood consist of fluid called
A
Plasma
17
Q
Cells and cell fragments suspended and plasma are also known as
A
Formed elements
18
Q
Of the formed elements, those that concern us at presents are the ___, or white blood cells
A
Leukocytes
19
Q
Google sites are divided into two main categories based on their appearance under a light microscope: ____ and ___
A
Granulocytes/agranulocyte
20
Q
_____ all of their names the presence of large granules in there cytoplasm that can be seen under a light microscope after staining
A
Granulocytes
21
Q
These cells are differentiated into three types of cells on the basis of how the granules stain: neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils
A
Granulocytes
22
Q
The granules of ___ stain paled lilac with a mixture of acidic and basic dyes
A
Neutrophils
23
Q
Neutrophils are commonly called ___ or polymorphs
A
PMN
24
Q
____ have the ability to leave the blood, enter an infected tissue, and destroy microbes and foreign particles
A
Neutrophils
25
___ stained blue purple with the basic die methylene blue
Basophils
26
Basophils really substances such as ___, that are important in inflammation and allergic responses
Histamine
27
_____ stained red or orange with the acidic dye eosin
Eosinophils
28
_____ are somewhat Phagocytic and also have the ability to leave the blood. Their major function is to produce toxic proteins against certain parasites, such as helminths
Eosinophils
29
Monocytes, dendritic cells, and lymphocytes, are three different types of _____
Agranulocyte's
30
____ are not actively Phagocytic until they leave circulating blood, enter blood tissues, amateur into macro phages
Monocytes
31
___ ___ are also believed to be derived from monocytes. They have long extensions that resembled the dendrites of nerve cells, thus their names
Dendritic cells
32
The function of ___ cells is to destroy microbes by Phagocytosis and to initiate adaptive immunity response
Dendritic
33
___ include natural killer cells, T cells, and B cells
Lymphocytes
34
These cells are found in blood and in the spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow
Natural killer cells
35
___ cells have the ability to kill a large variety of infected body cells and tumor cells. They attack anybody sells that display abnormal or unusual plasma membrane proteins
Natural killer
36
Some granules containing protein called ____, which inserts into the plasma membrane of the target sell and creates channels into the membrane
Perforin
37
Perforin results in extracellular fluid flowing into target cells and the cell bursts, a process called ____
Cytolysis
38
_____ are protein digesting enzymes that and use the target sell to undergo apoptosis or self-destruction
Granzymes
39
Our vulnerability or lack of resistance is known as
Susceptibility
40
___ __ which are the sites of activation of T cells and B cells, which destroying microbes by immune response
Lymph nodes
41
______ or attachment between the cell membrane of the Phagocyte and the organism
Adherence
42
The attraction of micro organisms to chemicals is known as
Chemotaxis
43
_____ is the coding of a micro organism with plasma proteins such as anti-bodies and complement-promotes phagocytosis
Opsonization
44
Following adherence, projections of the cell membrane of the phagocyte (pseudopods) and golf the micro organism and then fold in word, forming a sack around it called a ____ or ___ ___
Phagesome or Phagocytic vesicle
45
With in the cell, enzyme containing phagoomes and lysosomes of the cell fuse to form a larger structure, the ___ with in which the bacteria are usually quickly killed
Phagolysosome
46
Enzymes in ____ include lysozyme, various hydrolytic enzymes, and Myeloperoxidases. Their action is a process called
Lysosomes / oxidative burst
47
So microbes evade adherence by phagocytes with structures such as M proteins or capsules. They produce ___ and other complexes that killed the phagocyte
Leukocidins
48
___ is a host response to tissue damage, characterized by redness, pain, heat, swelling, and perhaps loss of function
Inflammation
49
___ ___ ___ are converted to active forms by inflammation and induce localized and systemic responses
Acute phase proteins
50
___ is often in response to the action of cytokines, which are small proteins release from human cells regulate immune response
Inflammation
51
___ is the first stage of information; it involves an increase in blood vessel diameters, and therefore much more bloodflow, and the injured area
Vasodilation
52
____ ___ allows defense substances in the blood to pass through the walls of the blood vessels
InCreased permeability
53
____ is also responsible for the redness, heat, edema, and pain of inflammation
Vasodilation
54
___ cause vasodilation and also increased permeability and attract phagocytes
Kinins
55
Supporting connective tissue
Stroma
56
The functioning part of tissue is known as
Parenchyma
57
The final stage of inflammation is
Tissue repair
58
The resulting release of endotoxins causes release of a cytokine called
Interleukin 1
59
___ refers to a very rapid fall in temperature
Crisis
60
The ____ controls body temperature bus the setting can be altered by ingestion of gram-negative bacteria my phagocytes
Hypothalamus
61
___ consist of a group of over 30 different proteins found in blood serum
Complements
62
__ __ is the liquid portion of blood that remains after it is drawn and clotting proteins form a clot with the formed elements
Blood serum
63
Complement participates in ____ of foreign cells, inflammation, and phagocytosis
Lysis
64
The complement proteins act in an order and sequence, or ____; one protein activates another
Cascade
65
In the ___ pathway, activity is initiated when antibody molecules bind to the antigen-a bacterial cell, for example.
Classical
66
In the ____ pathway, which does not involve antibodies, complement proteins, and proteins called factor B, D, and P, combined with certain microbial polysaccharides
Alternative
67
This pathway especially affects the Lipopolysaccharide cell wall portions of gram-negative bacteria
Alternative
68
In the ___ pathway, macro phages stimulate the lever to release lectins. These enhance opsonization by binding to sell carbohydrates
Lectin
69
The result of complement activation:
| Cytolysis: complement proteins then binds to two adjacent antibodies and initiates a sequence known as the ___ __ __
Membrane attack complex
70
The results of complement activation:
Circular lesions called ____ channels are formed and cause the eventual lysis of the cell, to which the anti-bodies are attached
Transmembrane
71
The result of complement activation:
_____ also can develop from complement. Other complement proteins combined with mast cells and trigger the release of histamine, which increases blood vessel permeability
Inflammation
72
The result of a complement activation:
____, or immune adherence, promotes attachment of a phagocytes to the microbe. Complement involvement results with interaction with special receptors of the phagocytes
Opsonization
73
True or false. Interferon alpha and interferon beta cells are produced by virus infected host cells
True
74
True or false. Interferon gamma cells are produced by lymphocytes and kill bacteria
True
75
True or false. Interferon cell types alpha, beta, and gamma are proteins
True
76
_____ tends to interfere with viral multiplication by inducing the uninfected sell to manufacture mRNA for synthesis of antiviral proteins
Interferons
77
Oligoadenylate synthetase degrades
Viral mRNA
78
Protein kinase inhibits
Protein synthesis
79
Transferrin is found in
Blood and tissue fluids
80
Lactoferrin is found in
Milk, saliva, and mucus
81
____ is located in the liver, spleen, and red bone marrow
Ferritin
82
Free iron is scarce in the human body because most of it is bound to molecules such as transferrin, lactoferrin, ferritin, and hemoglobin, collectively called
Iron binding proteins
83
Pathogenic bacteria obtain iron by secreting proteins called
Siderophores
84
Penicillins, cephalosporins, bacitracin, and vancomycin work by breaking down the peptidoglycan ___ __ of bacteria
Cell wall
85
Chloramphenicol, gentamicin, erythromycin, tetracyclines and streptomycin interfere with protein synthesis by reacting with the _____ of bacteria
Ribosomes
86
___ and ____ act by interfering with the nucleic acid synthesis of microbial cells
Rifampin and quinolones
87
____ are enzymes that Cleave the B lactam ring of penicillins, causing resistance
Penicillinases
88
A large number of ___ ___ penicillins have been developed to overcome the disadvantages of natural penicillins
Semi synthetic
89
So I change of natural penicillins are removed and other sidechains added to extend their spectrum or make them resistant to ____
Penicillinases
90
The first semi synthetic penicillin designed to evade the action of penicillinases was ___
Methicillin
91
Eventually so many staphylococcal strains became resistant that the abbreviation ___ made its appearance
MRSA
92
What does MRSA stand for
Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
93
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, carbenicillin, ticarcillin are all __ ___ of activity compared to natural penicillin
Broad spectrum
94
Another approach to penicillinase resistance is to combine penicillins with potassium clavulanate, which is a noncompetitive inhibitor of penicillinase. An example of this combination of penicillin is called
Augmentin
95
The structural nucleus and mode of action of _____ resemble those of penicillins. Cephalothin, cefamandole, cefotaxime are examples of ____
Cephalosporins
96
This antibiotic is a polypeptide antibiotic, effective primarily against gram-positive bacteria. It inhibits the synthesis of cell walls and his use only topically
Bacitracin
97
___ is a member of the small glycopeptide group that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis. It is used against penicillinase producing staphylococci that cause life-threatening infections.
Vancomycin
98
What does VRE stand for
Vancomycin resistant enterococci
99
Vancomycin is used in to treat ___ and has led to the selection of VRE
MRSA
100
____ used in treating tuberculosis, is believed to inhibit synthesis of mycolic acid, which are part of the cell wall of Mycobacteria
Isoniazid
101
____ is effective only against mycobacteria and is used in chemotherapeutic treatment of tuberculosis. It inhibits the incorporation of mycholic acid into the cell wall
Ethambutol
102
This broad-spectrum antibiotic affects protein synthesis. Structurally simple, it is often synthesize chemically. It is the drug of choice for typhoid fever and certain types of meningitis, For which the rest of its side effects is considered justified
Chloramphenicol
103
This is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is also effective against chlamydia is in rickettssias . They inhibit protein synthesis. They produce such side effects as tooth discoloration and liver damage.
Tetracyclines
104
____ our names for their macrocyclic lactone ring and are especially effective against gram-positive bacteria
Macrolides
105
_____ inhibits protein synthesis and is used in treating infections resistant to penicillin's, as well as legionellosis and mycoplasmal pneumonia
Erythromycin
106
Azithromycin and Clarithromyosin are broad-spectrum antibiotics which fall under which category
Macrolides
107
_____ our new semi synthetic macrolides developed to combat microbial resistance
Ketolides
108
____ The best-known of the rifamycin familyis used in tuberculosis therapy. The drug inhibits the synthesis of mRNA
Rifampin
109
The first of the _____ group was nalidixic acid which selectively inhibits the enzyme DNA gyrase needed for DNA replication
Quinolone
110
Norfloxacin and ciprofloxacin are most widely used _____
Flouroquinolones
111
_____Act by competitive inhibition of full of acid, a precursor of nucleic acid's
Sulfonamides
112
Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole our structural analogues that inhibit synthesis of DNA at different stages. These drugs are examples of
Sulfonamides
113
Among the nucleoside analogue, ____ is widely used for many herpes virus infections
Acyclovir
114
The resistance to antimicrobial drugs is often carried by the ____ such as resistance R factors, or transporons
Plasmids
115
True or false.Resistance to antimicrobial drugs arises from random mutations. These can spread horizontally by conjugation or transduction
True
116
Bacteria is resistant to large numbers of antibiotics or called
Superbugs
117
____ also called immunogens, mostly proteins or large polysaccharides. These may be part of micro organisms were antigen such as pollen, egg whites, blood cells, or transplant to tissues or organs
Antigens
118
____ usually recognize and interact with anti-genic determinants, or epitopes, on the antigen, rather than an entire antigen
Anti-bodies
119
___ are low molecular weight antigens that are not anti-genic unless first attached to a carrier molecule. Once the anti-body against the hapten has formed, the hapten will react independently of the carrier
Haptens
120
____ is a good example of a hapten
Penicillin
121
____ are proteins called immunoglobulins
Anti-bodies
122
True Or false.Globulins are proteins of certain solubility characteristics
True
123
The ___ is the number of such sites on the antibody
Valance
124
True or false. Each anti-body has at least two antigen binding sites
True
125
An anti-body has ___ protein chains-two identical light L chains and two identical heavy H chains
4
126
Anti-body structure: at the ends of the arms of why she molecules are variable V regions, with the structure that accounts for the ability of different anti-bodies to recognize and bind with different antigens- the ___ ___ sites
Antigen binding
127
The stem of the anti-body monomer and lower parts of the Y arms are called
Constant regions
128
The stem of the Y shaped monomer is the
FC region
129
True or false. The antibody molecule can attach to a Host cell by the FC region. Complement can bind to the FC region
True
130
___ anti-bodies account for 80% of all anti-bodies and Serum
IgG
131
These immunoglobulins are monomers and readily cross blood vessel walls to enter tissue fluids
IgG
132
True or false. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta to confer immunity to the fetus
True
133
____ anti-bodies protect against circulating bacteria and viruses, neutralize bacterial toxins, trigger the complement system, and buying to antigens to enhance action of Phagocytic cells
IgG
134
____ is so long live that it's presence me in the K immunity against disease condition in the more distant past
IgG
135
___ anti-bodies constitute 5 to 10% of anti-bodies in serum
IgM
136
True or false. IgM antibodies are the first to appear in response to an Antigen, but their concentration declines rapidly
True
137
___ has a Pentamer structure of 5Y shaped monomers held together by A J (joining)chain
IgM
138
The presence of ___ and high concentrations in a patient makes it likely that the anti-body are associated with the disease pathogen
IgM
139
True or false. IgM anti-bodies generally do not enter surrounding tissue
True
140
___ is the predominant anti-body in the ABO blood group antigen reactions
IgM
141
___ anti-bodies accounts for about 10 to 15% of the antibodies in serum
IgA
142
IgA circulates in serum as a monomer, serum IGA. IGA May be joined by AJ chain into dimers of 2Y shaped monomers called ___ ___
Secretory IgA
143
The main function of IgA is preventing ___ oh viruses and certain bacteria to mucosal surfaces
Attachment
144
___ anti-bodies are only about 0.2% of the total serum antibodies
IgD
145
____ are monomers and are found in blood and lymph cells and on B cell surfaces
IgD
146
____ antibodies are monomers slightly larger than IgG and constitutes only 0.002% of the total Serum anti bodies. The blind by their FC stem site to mast cells and basophils
IgE
147
When an antigen reacts with ___ antibodies, the mast cell or basal cell releases histamine and other chemical mediators involved in allergic reaction. These inflammatory reactions can be protective, attracting IgG and Phagocytic cells
IgE
148
Antibodies are produced by special group of lymphocytes called ____, which developed from stem cell precursors. The process that leads to the production of antibodies start when B cells are exposed to free, or extracellular antigens
B cells
149
Each ___ carries immunoglobulins on its surface, mostly IgM and IgD- all of which are specific for the recognition of the same epitope
B cell
150
When the B cells immunoglobulins binds to the epitope for which they become specific, the B cell is ___
Activated
151
And activated B cell undergoes ___ ___ or proliferation
Clonal expansion
152
B cells usually require the assistance of ___ __ __
T helper cell
153
And antigen that requires T-helper cells for antibody production is known as a
T-dependent antigen
154
True or false. T-dependant antigens or mainly proteins
True
155
The antigen contacts the surface immunoglobulins on the B cell and his enzymatically process with in the B cell-fragments of it are combined with membrane proteins called the __ ___ ___
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
156
This is a collection of genes that encode molecules by genetically diverse glycoproteins found on plasma membrane on nucleated cells
Major histocompatibility complex
157
In humans the major histocompatibility complex is called
Human leukocyte antigen
158
The ___ identifies the host and prevents the immune system from making antibodies that would be harmful. The complex of the anti-genic fragments and the NHC are then displayed on the B cell service for identification by the TCR of the THelper cells
MHC
159
When antigen presenting cells are found on the surface of the B cells, the T-helper cells become activated by this contact, and begin producing ___ that cause the activation of the B cells
Cytokines
160
And activated be so proliferates and spell large clone of cells, some of which differentiate into anti-body producing ___ ___
Plasma cells
161
Other clones of the activated B cells become long-lived memory cells this is called
Clonal selection
162
The cells that my produce antibodies harmful to the host or eliminated at the immature lymphocyte stage by __ __
Clonal deletion
163
Antigens that stimulate the B cells directly without the help of T cells are called
T-independent antigens
164
These antigens are characterized by repeating subunits such as found in polysaccharides are lightbulb polysaccharides; bacterial capsules, for example
T-independent antigens
165
These antigens generally provoke a relatively weak immune response, primarily of IgM, and no memory cells
T-Independent antigens
166
True or false. When an anti-body encounters and antigen for which it is specific, and antigen antibody complex forms
True
167
The strength of the bond in an antigen antibody complex is called
Affinity
168
The capability of recognizing and antigens epitope and distinguishing it from another is the
Specificity
169
In ____ The antibodies cause antigens to come together; these clients are more easily ingested by phagocytes
Agglutination
170
___ is more effective at agglutination because it has more binding sites
IgM
171
In ___ The anti-bodies inactivate viruses or toxins by blocking their attachment to host cells
Neutralization
172
In ___ The antigen is coated with anti-bodies that enhance its ingestion and lyses by Phagocytic cells
Opsonization
173
Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity resembles ___ in that the target organism becomes coated with anti-bodies-however, destruction is done by immune system cells that remain external to the target cell
Opsonization
174
Antibodies me trigger activation of the __ ___. Sometimes this attracts Phagocytes and other defense of immune system cells to the infected area and other times it leads to lysis of the microbial pathogen
Complement system
175
_____ and cellular immunity are directed against intracellular antigens, which are not exposed to circulating antibodies. There are also important in the recognition and destruction of cells that are non-self, especially cancer cells
T cells
176
Like B cells, each T-cell is specific for only a certain antigen. Rather than a coating of immunoglobulin that provides the specificity for B cells, a T-cell has _____
Tcrs
177
The stem cell precursors of a T-cell reach maturity in the
Thymus
178
Most T cells are eliminated in the thymus, in a process called ___ ___ which is analogous to clonal deletion and B cells
Thymic selection
179
After Thymic selection, T cells then migrate to lymphoid tissues where they are most likely to encounter ____
Antigens
180
Most pathogens that the cellular immune system combats into the gastrointestinal tract or Lungs, where they encounter a barrier of ___ ___
Epithelial cells
181
Pathogens normally pass the barrier of filial cells in the gastrointestinal tract by way of ___ ___
M cells
182
M cells are located over ___ ___ which are secondary lymphoid organs located on the intestinal wall
Peyers patches
183
T cytotoxic cells can differentiate into an effector cell called a
CTL (cytotoxic T lymphocyte)
184
T cells are also classified by glycoproteins on their surface called
CD (clusters of differentiation)
185
The clusters of differentiation (CD) of greatest interest are
CD4 and CD8
186
These T-helper cells buying to MHC class to molecules on the cells and APC
CD4
187
These T cytotoxic cells bind to MHC class 1 molecules
CD8
188
___ cells presents T dependants antigens to be cells. They also help other T cells response to antigens
CD4
189
____ sells mostly activate cells related to cellular immunity, especially delayed type hypersensitivity. They also enhance the activity of compliments and Opsonization and inflammation
TH1
190
___ cells are especially important in allergic reactions such as hypersensitivity and defense against Helminthic infections
TH2
191
T-helper cells differentiate into two major subpopulations __ and __
TH1 and TH2
192
A third subset is the ____T cells, which are names for their production of large quantities of cytokine I L 17
TH17
193
____ cells are effective against certain infections not affected by TH1 and TH2 cells
TH17
194
___ cells stimulate B cells to produce plasma cells and are also involved in class switching
TFH
195
T regulatory cells were formally called
Suppressor cells
196
____ cells are a subset of CD4 T-helper cells and carry an additional CD 25 molecule
T reg
197
____ cells combat autoimmunity by suppressing T cells that escape deletion in the thymus without the necessary education to avoid reacting against the body's cells. They also protects against intestinal bacteria required for digestion
T reg
198
___ cells are precursors to cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL)
CD8
199
Only the ___ that can attack a target cell are considered to be nonself. The target cells can be self cells that have been altered by infection by a pathogen, especially a virus
CTL
200
The ___ cell recognizes endogenous antigens on the target cells surface that are in combination with an MHC class one molecule
CD8
201
In its attack a CTL attaches to the target sell and releases __. This protein forms a pore that contributes to the death of the cell
Perforin
202
___, protease that induce apoptosis are now able to enter through the pore
Granzymes
203
____ is also called programmed cell death and results and sell disintegration that attracts phagocytes that digest the remains
Apoptosis
204
One benefit of ___ is that it clears the cells of pathogens and prevents the spread of infectious viruses and two other cells. It also limits uncontrolled growth that will be harmful in the long run
Apoptosis
205
In ___ ___,the APCs are not B cells, but Dentrich cells and macro phages
Cellular immunity
206
___ cells are characterized by long extensions called dendrites. They are plentiful in the lymph nodes, spleen, and skin but not the brain
Dendritic
207
___ our importance for inmate immunity and reading the body of cellular debris
Macro phages
208
Macrophages Phagocytic capabilities are increased when stimulated by ingestion of anti-genic material to become ___ ___
Activated macro phages
209
When activated their appearance changes, becoming larger and ruffled-they are then important factors in the control of cancer cells and intracellular pathogens
Activated macrophages
210
Certain granular leukocytes called ___ ___ cells can attack relatively large parasites
Natural killer
211
___ ___ cells Target cells to determine whether it expresses MHC class one self antigens. If it does not, they kill the target sell by mechanism similar to that of a CTL. Tumor cells are also targets
Natural killer
212
True or false. In addition to attacks by NK cells, relatively large parasites can be targeted by anti-body dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
True
213
The immune response requires complex interactions between different cells, which are mediated by chemical messengers called
Cytokines
214
When cytokines communicate between leukocytes, they are termed
Interleukins
215
A family of cytokines that induces migration of leukocytes into areas of infection is called
Chemokines
216
The family of cytokines called ___ protect cells from viral infections
Interferons
217
A family of cytokines, ___ cytokines , control pathways by which stem cells develop into red or white blood cells
Hematopoietic
218
Cytokines me stimulate cells to produce more cytokines. When this feedback loop gets out-of-control a cytokines ___ may damage tissues, an important factor in certain diseases
Storm
219
The intensity of the antibody mediated he moral response is reflected by the relative amounts of antibody in the Serum, the ___ __
Antibody titer
220
After contact with the antigen there is a slow rise and antibody titer; first IgM class antibodies, then IgG antibodies, which is the ___ response
Primary
221
A second exposure to the antigen results in a ___ response. This is more rapid and of greater magnitude in the primary response.
Secondary
222
Activated B cells become long-lived ___ cells, which even years later will differentiate into anti-body producing plasma cells when stimulated by the same antigen
Memory
223
____ immunity refers to the protection and animal develops again certain specific microbes or foreign substances
Adaptive
224
True or false. Naturally acquired active immunity develops when a person is exposed to antigens, becomes ill, and then recovers
True
225
Naturally acquired ___ immunity involves the natural transfer of antibodies from my mother to her infant by transplacental transfer to the fetus or by the first secretions of breast milk
Passive
226
True or false. Artificially acquired active in unity is a result of vaccination by introduction of vaccines into the body, which are antigens such as killed our living microorganisms or in activated toxins
True
227
Artificially acquired passive immunity involves the injection of ____ into the body. These antibodies come from an animal or person already immune to the disease
Anti-bodies
228
___ is a generic term for blood derived fluids containing anti-bodies
Antiserum
229
____ is the study of reactions between antibodies and antigens
Serology
230
Most anti-bodies and blood serum are in the globe you'll are proteins of the gamma fraction when separated by electrophoresis-therefore the serum containing antibodies for passive immunity is called ___ ___. Half-life of such injected antibodies is typically about three weeks
Gamma globulin
231
Signs and symptoms of this disease are abrupt onset of massive diarrhea, vomiting, and muscle cramps
Cholera
232
The positive agent for this disease is vibrio Cholerae; and alkali and salt tolerant curved gram-negative rod
Cholera
233
The signs and symptoms of this disease or diarrhea, vomiting, headache, abd pain, and fever
Salmonella gastroenteritis
234
The causative agents of this disease are salmonella enterica, motile, gram-negative, members of the enterobacteriaceae
Salmonella gastroenteritis
235
Signs and symptoms of this disease are fever, dysentery, vomiting, headache, stiff neck, convulsions, and joint pain
Shingllosis
236
The causative agent for this disease are for species of Shingella, gram-negative, non-motile members of the enterobacteriaceae
Shingellosis
237
Signs and symptoms of this disease process of prompting and diarrhea; sometimes dysentery
E. coli gastroenteritis
238
The causative agent for this disease is E. coli, certain strains only
E. coli gastroenteritis
239
The causative agent for this disease process our non-envelope, single-stranded RNA a picornavirus, H a V
Hepatitis A
240
The causative agent for this disease process our envelopes, double-stranded DNA hepadnavirus, HBV
Viral hepatitis b
241
Transmission for this disease involves fecal-oral contact
Hepatitis A and hepatitis E
242
Transmission for this disease process is through blood, semen
Hepatitis B
243
The causative agent for this disease or envelope, single-stranded RNA flavivirus, HCV
Hepatitis C
244
Transmission of this disease is generally through blood, and possibly semen
Hepatitis C
245
The causative agent for this virus are defective single-stranded RNA a virus, HDV
Hepatitis D
246
Transmission of this virus is through blood and semen
Hepatitis D
247
The causative agent for this virus are non-envelopes single-stranded are in a Calicivirus, HEV
Hepatitis E
248
The signs and symptoms of this disease or fever, severe headache, constipation, and abdominal pain; sometimes followed by intestinal rupture, internal bleeding, shock and death
Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers
249
The causative agents for this disease are salmonella serotype Thyphi and paratyphi, gram-negative, members of enterobacteria
Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers
250
Signs and symptoms of this disease are variable mild diarrhea to pseudomembranous colitis, a potentially fatal inflammation of the colon
C diff
251
The causative agent for this disease is Clostridium difficile, A gram-positive rod shaped endospore forming anaerobe
C diff
252
The signs and symptoms of this disease are high fever, large lymph nodes called buboes, skin hemorrhages; sometimes bloody sputum
The black or black plague
253
The causative agent for this disease is yersinia pestis, gram-negative rod with multiple chromosome-and plasmid coated virulence factors
Black death or black plague
254
Signs and symptoms of this disease or fatigue, fever, sore throat, and enlargement of lymph nodes
Mono or kissing disease
255
Because it is agent of this disease is Epstein-Barr virus, a DNA virus of the herpes virus family
Mono or kissing disease
256
Signs and symptoms of this disease are often only headaches and fever, severe case is characterized by high fever, jaundice, black vomit and hemorrhages into the skin
Yellow fever
257
Transmission of this disease is brought on by mosquitoes
Yellow fever
258
The signs and symptoms of this disease are reoccurrence cycles of intense chills and fever alternating with feeling healthy
Malaria
259
The causative agent for this disease are five species of protozoa of the genus Plasmodium
Malaria
260
The source of transmission for malaria are
Mosquitoes
261
Signs and symptoms of this disease involve skin lesions that lack sensation, deformed face and loss of fingers or toes
Hansons disease or leprosy
262
The causative agent for leprosy is
Mycobacterium Leprae
263
Signs and symptoms of this disease include headache, fever, stiff neck, nausea, pain, muscle spasms, followed by paralysis
Poliomyelitis
264
The causative agent for poliovirus are
Polioviruses one, two, and three
265
Signs and symptoms of this disease are mild cold followed by headache, fever, pain, stiffnecked and back, vomiting and petechiae
Meningococcal meningitis
266
The causative agent for meningococcal meningitis is
Neisseria meningitidis
267
The signs and symptoms of this disease or fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, sore throat, cough at on sent; later, spasms of the muscles of throat and mouth, coma, and death
Rabies
268
The causative agent for the rabies virus is a single-stranded are in a, rhabdovirus family; this virus has an unusual ____ shape
Bullet
269
The signs and symptoms of this infection are grey to white vaginal discharge with an unpleasant fishy odor
Bacterial vaginosis
270
The signs and symptoms of this disease are blurred or double vision, weakness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea or constipation; generalize paralysis and respiratory insufficiency
Botulism
271
Causative agent for this disease is clostridium botulinum
Botulism
272
The transmission of this disease is spread by endospores in soil, aquatic settlements, and dust. This disease can also be foodborne
Botulism
273
The signs and symptoms of this disease are itching, burning, thick, white vaginal discharge, redness and swelling
Vulvovaginal candidasis
274
The causative agent for this disease is Candida albicans
Volvo vaginal candidiasis
275
The signs and symptoms of this disease or sudden onset burning on urination, frequent need to urinate; cloudy red colored urine that smells bad, fever, chills, back pain and vomiting with Pyelonephritis
Bacterial cystitis
276
The causative agents for this disease are E. coli and occasionally Staphylococcus
Bacterial cystitis
277
Signs and symptoms of this disease include Chancre, fever, rash, stroke, nervous system deterioration; can imitate many other diseases
Syphilis
278
The causative agent for this disease is Treponema palladium; a multi stage disease
Syphilis
279
Signs and symptoms of this disease include blisters that great, releasing plasma and pus; formation of yellowish crust; lymph node enlargement
Impetigo
280
The causative agent's for impetigo are
Streptococcus and Staphylococcus
281
Signs and symptoms of this disease include mild fever and cold symptoms, rash beginning on the four head and face, and large lymph nodes behind the ears
Rubella or German measles
282
Signs and symptoms of this disease begins with the bull's-eye shaped rash. multisystem disease with enlarged lymph nodes near the bites, flulike symptoms. Early disseminated infection: heart and nervous system involvement. Late persistent infection: chronic arthritis and nervous system impairment
Lyme disease
283
The causative agent for ___ disease is borrelia burgdorferi
Lyme disease
284
The signs and symptoms of the syndrome include malaise, irritability, fever, sensitive that rash sandpaper texture, large blisters, peeling of skin
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
285
Signs and symptoms of this disease are couplet spots, rash, fever, weeping eyes, cough, nasal discharge, and sometimes diarrhea
Measles or rubeola
286
Signs and symptoms of this disease or sore throat, fever, fatigue and malaise
Diphtheria
287
The causative agent of this disease is Corynebacterium diphtheriae, an a-b Toxin producing nonspore forming gram-positive rod
Diphtheria
288
The common flu is an ___ virus
RNA
289
This disease is characterized by muscle aches, headache, fever, cough, shortness of breath, chest and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting
Legionnaires disease
290
The causative agent for this disease is Legionella pnemophilia, A gram-negative bacteria that stands poorly in clinical specimens
Legionnaires disease
291
Legionnaires disease affects what organ system of the body
Pulmonary
292
This type of pneumonia is cleared to rise with rust colored sputum from the greater blood
Pneumococcal pneumonia
293
This type of pneumonia is characterized by bloody mucoid sputum
Klebsiella
294
This form of the ammonia is caused by mycoplasma pneumonia which lacks a cell wall
Mycoplasmal pneumonia
295
This is a multi system disease which is characterized by chronic fever, weight loss, cough, and sputum production
Tuberculosis
296
This disease has causative agents of Mycobacterium tuberculosis; unusual cell wall with high lipid constant
Tuberculous
297
Signs and symptoms of this disease characterized by restlessness, irritability, difficulty swallowing, muscle pain and spasms in the jaw also known as lockjaw, and rigid paralysis
Tetanus
298
The causative agent of this disease is Clostridium tetani, and anaerobic spore forming gram-positive rod
Tetanus
299
The signs and symptoms of this disease are characterized by fever, headache, loss of appetite, followed by painful swelling of one or both parotid gland. Meningitis can occur. Painful enlargement of the testicles and men, pelvic pain in women
Mumps
300
The causative agent of this disease is the mom's virus, a single-stranded RNA virus
Mumps
301
Signs and symptoms of this disease is characterized by headache, pains and muscles and joints, and fever, followed by a hemorrhagic rash that begins on the extremities
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
302
This disease process is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii and is transmitted by an infected tick
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
303
This is the most prevalent disease worldwide. No signs and symptoms are present until the advanced stage. A late stage: discoloration, roughness, broken tooth, throbbing pain
Dental caries
304
The causative agent for dental caries is
Streptococcus mutans
