final Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

In 2016, what percentage of the population lived with a disability?

A

25% or 1 in 4 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention?

A

Primary- removing or reducing the risk factor
Secondary- to promote early detection of the disease
Tertiary- rehabilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

The study of how biology and environmental signals determine gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is pharamacology?
What is toxicology?

A

the use of specific drugs to prevent, treat, or diagnose a disease

the study of the harmful effects of chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Brand Names for Acetaminophen, Aspirin, Ibuprofen, and Naproxen

A

Acetaminophen- tylenol
Aspirin- Bufferin, Aspirin
Ibuprofen-advil, motrin
Naproxen- aleve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Drug development and approval process: subjects and time period

A

Testing phases
Preclinical phase- initial testing, lab animals, and 1-2 years
Phase 1- determine effects, safe dosage, less than 100 healthy volunteers, less than 1 year
Phase 2- assess drugs effectiveness in treating a specific disease, 200-300 with disorder, 2 years
Phase 3- assess safety and effectiveness in large population, 1,000-3,000 people, 3 years
Phase 4- monitor any problems that occur after NDA approval, general patient population, indefinite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an orphan drug?

A

given small funding for small population with the rare disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is off label prescribing?

A

the use of a drug to treat conditions other than those that the drug was originally approved to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the enteral routes of drug administration?
What are the parenteral routes of drug administration?

A

Oral buccal rectal

Inhalation, injection, topical, transdermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

the extent to which the drug reaches the systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the primary site for drug excretion?

A

kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Necrosis vs Apotosis
Cell size
Plasma membrane
Cellular contents
Adjacent inflammation

A

Cell size
necrosis is enlarged and apoptosis is reduced

Membrane
necrosis is disrupted and apoptosis is intact

Contents
Necrosis may leak out of cell and apoptosis is intact

Adjacent inflammation
Necrosis is frequent and apoptosis is no inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

erythmea
heat
edema
pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inflammatory Exudates
Sanguineous
Serosanguineous
Serous
Purulent
Catarrhal

A

bright red or bloody; presence of RBC

blood tinged yellow or pink, RBC

thin, clear yellow or straw colored, contains albumins and immunoglobins

viscous cloudy pus cloudy debris from necrotic cells

thin, clear mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the lifespan of neutrophils?
What replaces neutrophils to clean up cellular debris?

A

24 hours
Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

histamine is in what cells?
Important for?

A

Mast cells, basophils, and platelets
allows fluids and blood cells to exit into the interstitial spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the phases of healing?

A

Homeostasis and degeneration, inflammation, proliferation and migration, remodeling and maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Regeneration of what can only occur when the basement membrane is in tact?

A

The lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cortical bone is how much of skeletal tissue?
Cancellous bone is how much of skeletal tissue?

A

80 percent
20 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the reparative phase?

A

Begins during the next few weeks and includes the formation of the soft callus seen on x rays around 2 weeks after the injury, which is replaced by the hard callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What part of the meniscus has blood supply?

A

Inner 2/3 has no blood supply
Outer 1/3 has blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is metaplasia?
What is anaplasia?
What is hyperplasia?

A

The first level of dysplasia, reversible but benign

Loss of cellular differentiation, advanced form of metaplasia

Increased number of cells in tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Stages of cancer?

A

Stage 0- carcinoma in situ
Stage 1-early stage local cancer
Stage 2- increased risk of spread because of tumor size
Stage 3- local cancer has spread
Stage 4- cancer has spread to distant sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does the TNM staging work?

A

T- primary tumor
N- lymph node
M- metastasis

T0, N0, M0- no metastasis
T1, N1, M1- increasing involvement of metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the most prevalent cancer in the world? For men and women?
Lung cancer and is the most deaths worldwide Men prostate Women breast
26
Abut what percentage of clients have newly diagnosed cancers with detectable metastases?
30 percent
27
Cancer pain occurs in approx.
1/4 adults with newly diagnosed malignancies 1/3 individuals undergoing treatment 3/4 with advanced disease
28
What may increase the person's perception of cancer pain?
Depression and anxiety
29
Chemotherapy is most effective in what stage? Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in what stage? Stem cells in what phase are resistant to chemotherapy and radiation therapy?
DNA synthesis and mitosis G2 G0
30
What are the two types of lymphocytes?
B lymphocutes T lymphocytes Helper T Cells Cytotoxic T cells
31
What are the 3 different types of immunglobulins?
IgM- first secreted antibody, produced by B cell IgG- secondary response IgA- in serum and secretions
32
Mechanisms of Tissue Destruction Rate of Development, Antibody Involved, Principal Cell, Disorders Type 1 IgE Type 2 Tissue Specific Reaction Type 3 Immune Complex mediated reaction Type 4 Cell mediated reaction
Type 1- immediate, IgE, Mast cells, Seasonal allergic rhitnis Type 2- immediate, IgG and IgM, macrophages, graves disease Type 3- immediate, IgG and IGM, neutrophils, systemic lupus erythematosus Type 4- delayed, none, lymphocytes and macrophages, contact sensitivity
33
Elevated WBC count? Decreased WBC count? Most abundant WBC type?
Leukocytosis Leukopenia Neutrophil
34
Chain of transmission steps
1. pathogen 2. reservoir 3. portal of exit 4. mode of transmission 5. portal of entry 6. host susceptibility
35
What is the Varicella Zoster virus? What type is mononucleosis?
Herpes virus type 3 and is very contagious also known as chicken pox or shingles Type 4
36
Common patterns of pain referral? Pancreas, liver spleen, gallbladder? Shoulder? Heart?
shoulder mid thoracic and low back neck, upper back Shoulder neck upper back and TMJ
37
What are the three major types of antigen presenting cells?
Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells
38
MHC class 1 vs class 2?
Class 1- can be recognized by Cytotoxic T cells CD8 Class 2- can be recognized by helper t cells CD4
39
What is the correct order for the HIV life cycle?
Bind, fusion, reverse transcription, integration, replication, assembly, budding
40
What virus is a DNA virus? What virus is a herpes virus? What virus is a respiratory infection?
Hep B and Hep C Varicella-zoster virus Flu and Covid 19
41
What is somatic mutation theory?
Early in the study of cancer, the concept that neoplasia originates in a single cell
42
What are carcinogens?
etiologic agents capable of malignant transformation of a cell
43
What is a clinical manifestation of cancer?
Most are asymptomatic
44
What is an example of adaptive immunity?
Vaccines
45
What is in the body's third line of defense?
T cells and B cells
46
Cancer pain in hospice care how can It be treated?
Biophysical agents
47
Etiology and pathogenesis of cancer pain?
some pain is caused by pressure on nerves or by the displacement of nerves
48
What is the physiologic effect of cortisol?
increases output of glucose from liver
49
Most common site of diverticular disease?
sigmoid colon
50
What will likely refer pain to the left shoulder?
After rupture of the spleen
51
What is the appropriate action for a patient who comes in complaining of headache?
check patient's vital signs and blood sugar level
52
What is the position to promote optimal respiratory function?
Semi fowler's
53
Which islet cells produce somatostatin?
Delta cells
54
What is a clinical manifestation of metabolic syndrome?
atherogenic dyslipodemia
55
56
What % off BW does skin consist of?
15-20%
57
Aging contributes to what deficiency which can lead to what?
Vitamin D deficiency, Osteoperosis
58
Bacterial infections? Viral infections? Fungal infections?
Cellulitis, impetigo Herpes zoster, warts Athletes foot, ringworm, yeast
59
First vs Second vs Third Degree burn?
Superficial- EpidermisSunburn and UV exposure Partial Thickness-dermis,scalding liquids Full Thickness- sub cutaneous, prolonged exposure y]to flame
60
What kind of burns account for 75% of all burn center admissions?
Thermal burns
61
What is the most common and life threatening complication or burn injuries?
Infection
62
What are the 3 stages of medical management of severe burn?
1. Emergent phase 2. Acute phase 3. Rehab phase
63
What are the different skin transplantations?
Autograft- persons own skin, treat full thickness burn Allografts- homografts, cadaver skin Xenografts- heterografts, typically pig skin Bio synthetic grafts- combo of collagen and synthetics
64
Neuropathic ulcers may be classified using what system?
Wagner system
65
Pressure injuries usually occur over?
Heels sacrum ischial tuberosities greater trochanter, elbow and scapula
66
What are the stages of pressure injuries?
Stage 1- nonblanchable erythema of intact skin Stage 2- partial thickness skin loss with exposed dermis Stage 3- full thickness skin loss Stage 4- full thickness skin and tissue loss
67
What scale is used to determine if someone will get a pressure ulcer?
Braden scale
68
Cardiovascular disease accounts for what % of death of people aged 65 and older?
80%
69
Optimal cholesterol levels? BP? Waist Circumference?
HDL- 40 in men nd 50 in women Total cholesterol- 150 LDL- about 100 Triglycerides- less than 150 BP- 130/85 Waist circumference- 40 in men and 35 in women
70
Categories of BP in adults?
Normal- <120/80 Elevated- 120-129/<80 Stage 1 HTN- 130-139/80-89 Stage 2 HTN- >140/90
71
Orthostatic hypotension
Decrease of 20 mmHg or greater in SBP or drop of 10 mmHg or more in systolic and diastolic
72
What is an aneurysm? Most common type?
An abnormal stretching in the wall of an artery vein or heart by 50 % Abdominal aortic aneurysm
73
Deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism referred to as____ VTE is the most common reason for?
Venous thromboembolism VTE Hospital readmission and death after total hip and knee arthroplasty
74
Primary hemostasis? What is VWF?
Formation of platelet plug at the site of vascular injury normal number of platelets and VWF Plasma proteins that mediates the Initial adhesion, Binds and stabilizes blood clotting 8 in circulation
75
What is thrombocytopenia? Common causes? Main symptom?
A decrease in platelet blood count below 150,000 of blood caused by inadequate platelet production Medications or supplements are common causes Main symptom is mucosal bleeding
76
What is hemophillia? Hemophillia A? Hemophillia B?
A bleeding disorder inherited as an x linked chromosome autosomal recessive trait A- 80% lack of clotting factor 8 B- 15% Lack of clotting 4
77
Severe hemophillia?
60% of people May bleed spontaneously or with slight trauma particularly into joints and deep muscle
78
What is starling law?
Fluid at the arterial end of the capillary will tend to flow into the tissue spaces
79
The lymphatic organs include>>
Thymus, bone marrow, spleen, tonsils, Peter patches of small intestine
80
Right extremity and thoracic lymphotome drain into? Left extremity left thoracic lymphotome drain into?
Right lymphatic duct Left subclabian vein
81
Lymphangitis? Lymphadenitis? Lymphedema? Lymphadenopathy?
Inflammation of lymphatic vessel Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes An increase amount of lymph fluid Enlargement of the lymph nodes
82
Normal PaO2? Normal SaO2?
PaO2- 80-100 mmHg SaO2 and SpO2: 95-100%
83
Aspiration Pneumonia? Viral Pneumonia? Bacterial Pneumonia?
Fluids or other material from oral cavity is aspirated the Lower tract Respiratory syncytial virus common in infants Streptococcus pneumoniae the most preveoant bacterial pathogen
84
Acute bronchitis? Caused by?
An inflammation of the trachea and bronchi that is short duration 1-3 weeks Caused by viral infection
85
Chronic bronchitis?
Condition of productive cough lasting at least 3 months per year for 2 consecutive years
86
What is emphysema? Main etiologic factor?
Enlargement of the air spaces beyond terminal bronchioles and is associated with loss of elasticity in the distal airways, airway collapse and gas trapping Cigarette smoking
87
Pathogenesis of Asthma? Mechanisms of airway obstruction by the immune system
T helper cells secrete cytokines which contributes to inflammation mediated by IgE IgE is present on mast cells and other airway cells
88
What % of people with sleep apnea are obese?
70%
89
Drug Drug Interaction? Drug-Disease interaction? Overdosage toxicity?
Drug Drug- medication interact unfavorably Drug Disease-medication causes an existing disease to worsen Predictable toxic effect that occurs with dosages in excess of therapeutic range for persom
90
ADE is a national health problem… over ____ million people misuse opioid. more than ____ people dying each day from opioid overdose
!1.4 million 130 people
91
In developed countries approx ___ % of patients aged 65 or older are prescribed how many drugs?
30% and 5 drugs
92
Normal serum pH is….
7.35 to 7.45
93
Acidosis vs Alkalosis Respiratory acidosis vs alkalosis?
Acidosis is when H+ increases and pH decreases Alkalosis is when H+ decreases and pH increases CO2 increases, pH decreases CO2 decreases, pH increases
94
Peripheral nerve repair?
Rapidly undergoes myelin degeneration, within 2e hours new Asian, sprouts from central stump are observed