FINAL Flashcards
(180 cards)
1
Q
What are the six rights of pediatric medication?
A
- Right patient: use two identifiers
- Right medication: verify on the MAR; does the patient have allergies to the medication?
- Right route: IV, IM, PO, etc.
- Right dose: is the dose within the safe range?
- Right time: when was the last time the medication was administered? Is the expiration date after today?
- Right approach: each age group requires a different approach.
2
Q
What is the pediatric right approach for toddlers?
A
- Follow routines and rituals from home
- Involve parents
- Offer simple choices
- Allow child to touch and handle equipment as appropriate.
3
Q
What is the pediatric right approach for preschoolers?
A
- Involve parents
- Offer simple choices
- Allow child to handle equipment.
4
Q
What is the pediatric right approach for school-aged children?
A
- Explain purpose of medication in simple terms
- Seek their assistance such as holding their juice
- Allow broader range of choice
- Establish reward system to enhance cooperation as needed.
5
Q
What is the pediatric right approach for adolescents?
A
Approach in the same manner as adults with respect and sensitivity to their needs and maintain privacy as much as possible.
6
Q
What should be assessed in pediatric IV care?
A
IV site every hour.
7
Q
Define infiltration in pediatric IV care.
A
When the fluid that leaks into the tissue is non-vesicant (does not irritate the tissue).
8
Q
Define extravasation in pediatric IV care.
A
When the fluid that leaks into the tissue is a vesicant (irritates the tissue).
9
Q
What are the two types of pain?
A
- Acute pain: rapid onset of varying intensity; indicates tissue damage and resolves with healing of the injury.
- Chronic pain: continues past the expected point of healing for injured tissue; may be continuous or intermittent.
10
Q
What factors influence pain in children?
A
- Age
- Gender
- Cognitive level
- Temperament
- Previous pain experience
- Culture and family
- Situational factors.
11
Q
What does the acronym QUESTT stand for in nursing management of pain in children?
A
- Question the child and parents
- Use reliable and valid pain scale
- Evaluate the child’s behavior and physiologic changes
- Secure the parent’s involvement
- Take the cause of pain into account when interviewing
- Take action.
12
Q
What is the Wong-Baker Faces pain scale used for?
A
Used with children 3-8 years of age.
13
Q
What is the Oucher scale used for?
A
Used with children between 3-12 years of age.
14
Q
What is the Visual Analog scale used for?
A
Can be used with children 5 and older.
15
Q
What is the Numeric scale used for?
A
Can be used with children 8 and older.
16
Q
What is the NIPS scale used for?
A
Measures pain in pre- and full-term neonates.
17
Q
What is the FLACC behavioral scale?
A
Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability. Commonly used on children with cognitive impairments.
18
Q
What are some non-pharmacological pain management techniques?
A
- Relaxation
- Distraction
- Imagery
- Biofeedback
- Thought stopping
- Positive self-talk.
19
Q
What are the trimesters of pregnancy?
A
- 1st Trimester: First day of LMP through 13 completed weeks.
- 2nd Trimester: 14 weeks through 27 completed weeks.
- 3rd Trimester: 28 weeks through 40 completed weeks.
20
Q
What are the functions of the placenta?
A
- Serves as the interface between mother and fetus
- Protects the fetus from immune attack by the mother
- Removes waste products from the fetus
- Produces hormones that mature into fetal organs and control physiologic changes.
21
Q
What hormones are produced by the placenta?
A
- Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
- Prolactin
- Human placental lactogen (hPl)
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Relaxin.
22
Q
What is the structure of the umbilical cord?
A
- Formed from the amnion
- Contains one large vein and two small arteries
- Wharton jelly surrounds the vein and arteries to prevent compression.
23
Q
What is oligohydramnios?
A
Too little amniotic fluid associated with poor placenta function, fetal renal abnormalities, and low birth weight.
24
Q
What is polyhydramnios?
A
Too much amniotic fluid associated with maternal diabetes, neural tube defects, and other problems.
25
What are the two shunts during fetal life?
* Ductus venosus: connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava to bypass the liver.
* Ductus arteriosus: connects the main pulmonary artery to the aorta to bypass the lungs.
26
What are presumptive signs of pregnancy?
* Fatigue
* Breast tenderness
* Breast enlargement
* Nausea and vomiting
* Amenorrhea
* Urinary frequency
* Fetal movement (quickening).
27
What are probable signs of pregnancy?
* Braxton Hicks contractions
* Positive pregnancy test
* Abdominal enlargement
* Ballottement
* Goodell sign
* Chadwick sign
* Hegar sign.
28
What are positive signs of pregnancy?
* Ultrasound verification of embryo
* Fetal movement felt by experienced clinician
* Auscultation of fetal heart tone via doppler.
29
What is the fundal height during pregnancy between 20 and 36 weeks?
Should be the same in cm as the number of weeks gestation.
30
What are cardiovascular system adaptations during pregnancy?
* Increased blood volume of about 50% above pre-pregnancy levels
* Increased cardiac output and heart rate
* Increased iron demands, fibrin and plasma fibrinogen levels, leading to hypercoagulable state.
31
What is supine hypotension syndrome?
Weight of the growing uterus presses on the vena cava and obstructs blood flow from lower extremities.
32
What are normal integumentary system adaptations during pregnancy?
* Hyperpigmentation
* Linea nigra
* Striae gravidarum
* Varicosities
* Vascular spider veins
* Palmar erythema.
33
What dietary recommendations are suggested during pregnancy?
* Increase protein, iron, folate, and calories
* Use USDA’s food guide MyPlate
* Avoid fish that are high in mercury.
34
What is Nagele’s rule for estimating due date?
First day of LMP minus 3 months, plus 7 days, plus a year.
35
What does GTPAL stand for?
* G (gravida): number of pregnancies including current pregnancy
* T (term births): number of pregnancies ending between 38-42 weeks
* P (preterm births): number of preterm pregnancies ending >20 weeks
* A (abortion): number of pregnancies ending before 20 weeks
* L (living children): number of children currently living.
36
What are infant physiological milestones?
* Doubles birth weight by 6 months
* Triples birth weight by 1 year
* Posterior fontanelle closes at approximately 6-8 weeks
* Anterior fontanelle closes at approximately 12-18 months.
37
What is the infant gross motor development at 2-3 months?
Kicks legs.
38
What is the infant gross motor development at 4 months?
Head control.
39
What is the infant gross motor development at 11 months?
Walks holding on.
40
What is the infant fine motor development at 2-3 months?
Grasps objects intentionally.
41
What is Erikson's psychosocial development stage for infants?
Trust vs Mistrust.
42
What is Piaget’s phase for infant social development?
Sensorimotor Phase.
43
What are the nutrition recommendations for infants?
* Breast milk: first 4-6 months
* Solid food: 4-6 months, starting with rice cereal.
44
What is the 'Safe Pad' for infant safety?
* Suffocation/Sleep position
* Asphyxia/Animal bites
* Falls
* Electrical burns/other burns
* Poisoning
* Automobile safety
* Drowning.
45
What is the toddler physiological development milestone for weight?
Birth weight triples by 2.5 years.
46
What is the toddler gross motor development at 12-13 months?
Walks independently.
47
What is the toddler psychosocial development stage according to Erikson?
Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt.
48
What are the nutrition recommendations for toddlers?
* Limit milk intake to 16-24oz/day
* Calcium intake: 700mg/day
* Vitamin D: 600IU/day.
49
What is the recommended daily intake of calcium for preschoolers aged 1-3 years?
700mg
## Footnote
For preschoolers aged 4-8 years, the intake increases to 1000mg.
50
What is the recommended daily intake of Vitamin D for children?
600IU
## Footnote
This is crucial for bone health and calcium absorption.
51
What are the highest rates of unintentional injuries in toddlers attributed to?
* Motor vehicle injuries
* Burns
* Accidental poisoning
* Falls
* Aspiration and suffocation
* Bodily harm
52
What is a significant physical development milestone for preschoolers (3-6 years)?
Most growth in long bones of arms and legs; no longer has pot belly.
53
What gross motor skills should a 5-year-old be able to perform?
* Jumps rope
* Swims
* Skates
* Skips on alternate feet
54
According to Erikson, what psychosocial stage do preschoolers (3-6 years) experience?
Initiative vs. Guilt
55
What is a key cognitive development characteristic of preschoolers according to Piaget?
Pre-Operational Phase
56
What is the vocabulary expansion from age 2 to age 5?
From 300 words to more than 2100 words
57
What are common nutritional needs for moderately active preschoolers?
* 1200-1400 total daily calories
* 13-19g of protein/day
* 700mg calcium for 1-3 year olds and 1000mg for 4-8 year olds
58
What is the average height increase per year for school-age children (6-12 years)?
2 inches per year
59
What is the psychosocial development stage for school-age children according to Erikson?
Sense of Industry vs Inferiority
60
What are the characteristics of Piaget's Concrete Operations stage?
* Logical thought processes
* Learns by manipulating concrete objects
* Understands relationships among objects
61
What is the average age of puberty onset in girls and boys?
* Girls: 10 years
* Boys: 12 years
62
What are the key components of the HEEADSSS Assessment for adolescents?
* Home environment
* Education/Employment
* Eat/Nutrition/Elimination
* Activities/Physical Activities
* Drugs
* Sexuality
* Suicide/depression
* Safety
63
What anatomical variation occurs in the pediatric respiratory system?
Newborns are obligatory nose breathers until about 4 weeks
64
What are the signs and symptoms of asthma?
* Accessory muscle use
* Shortness of breath
* Tachypnea
* High-pitched wheezing
* Absent breath sounds
65
What is Croup also known as?
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
66
What is the first sign of puberty in adolescent girls?
Breast buds (thelarche)
67
What does the 'S' in the acronym HEEADSSS stand for?
Sexuality
68
What is the gold standard for diagnosing Cystic Fibrosis?
Sweat chloride test (diagnostic >60mEq/L)
69
What are the common symptoms of Epiglottitis?
* Refusal to speak
* Anxious appearance
* Drooling
* High fever
* Stridor
70
What interventions are critical for managing an airway emergency in Epiglottitis?
* Provide 100% oxygen
* Emergency trach kit at bedside
* Do not attempt to visualize the throat
71
What are common symptoms of Bronchiolitis?
* Clear runny nose
* Pharyngitis
* Low grade fever
* Cough followed by wheezing
72
What is the most common cause of severe injury and death in school-age children?
Motor vehicle-pedestrian and passenger motor vehicle injuries
73
What is the expected heart sound indicating closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves?
S1 (Lub sound)
74
What does a high-pitched wheezing sound indicate in a respiratory assessment?
Possible asthma or airway obstruction
75
What are the characteristics of Tetralogy of Fallot?
* Pulmonary stenosis
* Right ventricular hypertrophy
* Overriding aorta
* Ventricular septal defect
76
What are the dietary recommendations for children with Cystic Fibrosis?
* High-protein
* High-calorie diet
* Administer fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K)
77
What percentage of adult body weight is gained during puberty?
Up to 50%
78
What is the common cause of Bronchiolitis in infants and toddlers?
Viral pathogen (RSV in most cases)
79
What is the expected outcome for children with Bronchiolitis?
Usually self-limited and managed at home
80
What is the most critical nursing intervention for a child with asthma in status asthmaticus?
Intubation
81
What is the Tetralogy of Fallot composed of?
Pulmonary stenosis, Right ventricular hypertrophy, Overriding aorta, Ventricular septal defect
## Footnote
Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart defect that affects normal blood flow through the heart.
82
What are the symptoms of 'TET spells'?
* Cyanosis
* Hypoxemia (O2 sat 65-85%)
* Clubbing finger tips
* Polycythemia
## Footnote
'TET spells' are acute episodes of hypoxia in children with Tetralogy of Fallot.
83
What interventions are recommended during a TET spell?
* Knees to chest
* 100% oxygen
## Footnote
These interventions help increase blood flow to the heart and improve oxygenation.
84
What are the signs of heart failure in children?
* Weight gain
* Puffiness around the eyes
* Pale cool extremities
* Decrease in wet diapers
* Decreased feeding
## Footnote
These signs indicate that the heart is not effectively pumping blood.
85
What is transposition of the great vessels?
Aorta connected to the right ventricle instead of the left, and pulmonary artery connected to the left ventricle instead of the right.
## Footnote
This condition requires surgical repair.
86
What are the major criteria of Acute Rheumatic Fever according to the Modified Jones Criteria?
* Migratory polyarthritis
* Carditis
* Subcutaneous nodules
* Erythema marginatum
* Sydenham chorea
## Footnote
These criteria help diagnose Acute Rheumatic Fever.
87
What are the minor criteria of Acute Rheumatic Fever according to the Modified Jones Criteria?
* Fever
* Raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate or C-reactive protein
* Polyarthralgia
* Prolonged PR interval
## Footnote
These criteria are used alongside major criteria for diagnosis.
88
What is Kawasaki Disease?
Acute vasculitis of blood vessels and coronary arteries, primarily affecting children aged 6 months to 5 years, especially of Asian or Pacific descent.
## Footnote
It is the leading cause of acquired heart disease among children.
89
What are the signs and symptoms of Kawasaki Disease?
* High fever > 5 days
* Bilateral conjunctivitis
* Dry, fissured lips
* Strawberry tongue
* Erythematous rash
* Edema of hands and feet
* Peeling of perineal region
* Possible jaundice
## Footnote
These symptoms can lead to serious complications if not treated.
90
What nursing management is required for Kawasaki Disease?
* High dose aspirin
* IVIG infusion
* Monitor cardiac status
* Promote comfort and provide education
## Footnote
Monitoring for arrhythmias and signs of heart failure is crucial.
91
What is amniocentesis used for?
To obtain amniotic fluid sample for genetic anomalies in early gestation and fetal lung maturity in late gestation
## Footnote
It is performed under ultrasound guidance.
92
What are the complications of amniocentesis?
* Infection
* Rupture of membranes
* Preterm labor
* Hemorrhage
## Footnote
These risks necessitate careful monitoring during and after the procedure.
93
What is the Biophysical Profile (BPP) criteria?
All tests are scored 0 or 2 over a 20-minute span: Fetal heart rate reactivity, Fetal movements, Fetal tone, Fetal breathing, Amniotic fluid volume
## Footnote
A total score indicates fetal health.
94
What are the signs of ectopic pregnancy?
* Unilateral pelvic or abdominal pain
* Rigid abdomen
* Possible referred shoulder pain
## Footnote
Ectopic pregnancy can lead to serious complications if not identified early.
95
What is gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?
Includes hydatidiform mole and choriocarcinoma; requires immediate evacuation of uterine contents
## Footnote
GTD presents with symptoms similar to spontaneous abortion.
96
What is placenta previa?
Placenta implants over the cervical os, posing a major bleeding risk
## Footnote
It requires careful monitoring and typically a cesarean delivery.
97
What are the signs of placental abruption?
* Sharp, stabbing pain
* Uterine tenderness
* Heavy bleeding (dark red)
## Footnote
Aplacental abruption can lead to severe maternal and fetal complications.
98
What defines chronic hypertension in pregnancy?
Blood pressure of 140/90 before pregnancy or before 20 weeks gestation
## Footnote
It occurs in about 20% of women and can complicate pregnancy.
99
What are the signs of mild preeclampsia?
* BP >140/90
* No hyperreflexia
* Scant to small proteinuria
* Edema in lower extremities
## Footnote
Monitoring is crucial for progression to severe preeclampsia.
100
What are the five P’s of labor?
* Passageway (birth canal)
* Passenger (fetus/placenta)
* Powers (contractions)
* Position (maternal)
* Psychological response
## Footnote
These factors influence the labor process.
101
What is the baseline fetal heart rate range?
110-160 bpm
## Footnote
Deviations from this range can indicate fetal distress.
102
What is the significance of variable decelerations in fetal heart rate monitoring?
Indicate cord compression, with abrupt onset
## Footnote
Monitoring is essential to prevent fetal distress.
103
What is the nursing management during the first stage of labor?
* Comprehensive history
* EDD
* Fundal height assessment
* Education
* Assess FHR
* Lab studies
## Footnote
Continuous assessment is crucial for maternal and fetal well-being.
104
What is the definition of Intracellular Fluid (ICF)?
Fluid within cells
105
What is the definition of Extracellular Fluid (ECF)?
Fluid outside the cells
106
What is Intravascular fluid?
ECF contained within the blood vessels
107
What is Interstitial fluid?
ECF surrounding the cells
108
What percentage of total body water is present in infants?
75%
109
What percentage of total body water is present in adolescents?
45%
110
Why are children more prone to dehydration than adults?
Higher body surface area and immature kidney function
111
What are the signs of Mild Dehydration?
Slightly decreased urine output
112
What are the signs of Moderate Dehydration?
* Alert to listless
* Sunken fontanelles
* Mildly sunken orbits
* Pale and slightly dry oral mucosa
* Decreased skin turgor
* Decreased heart rate
* Delayed capillary refill
* Urine <1mL/kg/hr
113
What are the signs of Severe Dehydration?
* Alert to comatose
* Deeply sunken orbits
* Dry oral mucosa
* Tenting skin turgor
* Increased heart rate progressing to bradycardia
* Hypotension
* Cool, mottled, or dusky skin
* Significantly delayed capillary refill
* Urine output <1mL/kg/hr
114
What is the biggest complication of Cleft Lip and Palate?
Poor feeding and aspiration
115
At what age does surgical repair of cleft lip usually occur?
2-3 months
116
At what age does surgical repair of cleft palate usually occur?
6-9 months
117
What is the primary symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS)?
Forceful, projectile, nonbilious vomiting after eating
118
What lab findings are indicative of HPS?
* Hematocrit >54%
* Metabolic alkalosis
* Low potassium (3.5 or less)
119
What are the signs and symptoms of Intussusception?
* Blood-streaked stool with mucus
* Sausage-shaped abdominal mass
* Non-projectile vomiting
* Intermittent abdominal pain
120
What is Hirschsprung’s disease?
Condition where the large intestine cannot pass stool due to absence of ganglion cells
121
What are the signs and symptoms of Hirschsprung’s disease?
* No passage of stool or thin ribbon-like stool
* Distended abdomen
* Refusing to feed or vomiting green bile
122
What is the nursing management for Hirschsprung’s disease?
* Assess intake and output
* Use medications to slow stool output
* Observe for signs of enterocolitis
123
What is Glomerulonephritis?
Inflammation in the kidney with low protein in urine
124
What is Nephrosis?
High protein in urine, low albumin, edema, high risk for blood clots
125
What are the symptoms of Hypothyroidism?
* Low energy
* Low metabolism
* Weight gain
* Constipation
* Hair loss
* Low mood
126
What is the classic medication for Hypothyroidism?
Levothyroxine
127
What are the symptoms of Hyperthyroidism?
* Agitation
* High temperature
* Heart palpitations
* Weight loss
* Diarrhea
128
What is the definition of Diabetes Mellitus (DM)?
Impaired carbohydrate, protein, and lipid metabolism
129
What is the fasting blood glucose level indicating diabetes?
>126mg/dL
130
What are the symptoms of hypoglycemia?
* Irritability
* Confusion
* Diaphoresis
* Tremors
* Palpitations
131
What are the signs of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
* Anorexia
* Nausea/vomiting
* Lethargy
* Fruity breath odor
* Presence of ketones in urine/blood
132
What is the pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score indicating a coma?
<8
133
What are the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
* Headache
* Dizziness
* Vomiting
* Blurred vision
* Bulging fontanels
134
What is the Salter-Harris Fracture Classification Type I?
Fracture straight through physis
135
What are the Five P’s of Compartment Syndrome?
* Pain
* Pallor
* Pulselessness
* Paresthesia
* Paralysis
136
What is the normal postpartum temperature range, and when is a fever considered significant?
Low grade fever is normal within 24 hours; above 100.4°F may indicate infection.
## Footnote
Normal vital sign ranges postpartum include a pulse of 60-100 bpm, respiration of 12-20, and blood pressure between 85/60 to 140/90.
137
What are the signs that require notifying a provider postpartum?
* Fever > 100.4°F
* Foul-smelling lochia
* Large blood clots or bleeding saturating a peri-pad in an hour
* Severe headaches
* Visual changes (blurred vision or spots)
* Calf pain, redness, or swelling
* Swelling, redness, or discharge at episiotomy or abdominal sites
* Dysuria or burning during urination
* Shortness of breath without exertion
* Depression or extreme mood swings.
## Footnote
These signs indicate possible complications that need immediate attention.
138
Define involution and subinvolution in the context of postpartum recovery.
Involution: reproductive organs return to their non-pregnant state.
Subinvolution: failure of the uterus to return to a non-pregnant state, commonly due to retained placental fragments or infection.
## Footnote
A full bladder can temporarily cause subinvolution.
139
What are the four stages of lochia and their characteristics?
* Lochia rubra: Day 1-3, red
* Lochia serosa: Day 4-10, pink or brownish
* Lochia alba: Day 10+, yellow to white
* Lochia should not have an 'offensive' odor or regress in color.
## Footnote
Lochia descriptions also include scant, small, moderate, and heavy, based on the amount on the pad.
140
What are the degrees of lacerations in postpartum patients?
* 1st degree: only skin and superficial structures
* 2nd degree: extends through perineal muscles
* 3rd degree: extends through anal sphincter muscle
* 4th degree: continues through anterior rectal wall.
## Footnote
Understanding laceration degrees is crucial for appropriate care and management.
141
What is the average time to return to ovulation for non-breastfeeding and breastfeeding women?
* Non-breastfeeding: 10 weeks post delivery
* Breastfeeding: 17 weeks post delivery.
## Footnote
Breastfeeding is not a reliable method of contraception.
142
What are the primary causes of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
* Tone: uterine atony (most common cause)
* Tissue: retained placental fragments
* Trauma: lower genital tract lacerations
* Thrombin disorder: disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
## Footnote
Identifying the cause of PPH is critical for effective treatment.
143
What methods can be used to stop postpartum bleeding?
* Fundal massage
* Medications: Pitocin, methylergonovine, misoprostol/Cytotec, tranexamic acid (TXA)
* IV Therapy: 3 liters of IV solution per 1 liter of blood loss
* Bimanual compression of the uterus
* Uterine packing/Bakri balloon/JADA
* D&C and/or hysterectomy
* Blood replacement.
## Footnote
These interventions vary based on the severity of the bleeding.
144
What are the signs of respiratory distress in newborns?
* Circumoral cyanosis
* Abnormal respiratory patterns (apnea, tachypnea)
* Retractions of the chest wall
* Grunting
* Flaring of nostrils
* Hypotonia.
## Footnote
Recognizing these signs is crucial for timely intervention.
145
List the symptoms of hypoglycemia in neonates.
* Jitteriness
* Hypotonia
* Irritability
* Apnea
* Lethargy
* Temperature instability.
## Footnote
Early detection and treatment of hypoglycemia are vital to prevent complications.
146
What bilirubin levels indicate jaundice in neonates?
Jaundice appears when bilirubin is between 5-7 mg/dL; considered pathologic if jaundice appears before 4 hours or if >13 mg/dL.
## Footnote
Kernicterus occurs at bilirubin levels >20-25 mg/dL, leading to lifelong brain damage.
147
What are the stages of infectious disease?
* Incubation: entrance of pathogen to appearance of first symptoms
* Period of communicability: time during which an infectious agent may be transferred
* Prodrome: onset of nonspecific symptoms to specific symptoms
* Illness: signs and symptoms specific to infection type
* Convalescence: acute symptoms disappear.
## Footnote
Understanding these stages helps in managing infectious diseases effectively.
148
When should a provider be called for a fever in children?
* Any child <3 months with rectal temp >38°C (100.4°F)
* Any lethargic or listless child regardless of temp
* Fever lasting >3-5 days
* Fever >40.6°C (105°F)
* Immunocompromised children.
## Footnote
Timely intervention is crucial for preventing severe outcomes.
149
What are the signs and symptoms of sepsis in children?
* Child does not look or act right
* Increased irritability and inconsolability
* Pallor
* Temperature instability
* Poor feeding
* Changes in mental status
* Rash
* Increased work of breathing
* Dehydration
* Poor muscle tone
* Seizures.
## Footnote
Recognizing these symptoms early is essential for effective treatment.
150
What is the primary nursing management for sepsis in neonates?
* Managed aggressively
* PICU admission
* IV antibiotic therapy immediately after cultures obtained
* Discontinue antibiotics after 72 hours if cultures are negative and symptoms are resolved.
## Footnote
Aseptic technique is critical when working with septic children.
151
What are the characteristics of scarlet fever?
* Transmission: contact with respiratory secretions
* Abrupt onset, fever, chills, body aches, nausea
* Red and swollen pharynx, strawberry tongue, sandpaper-like rash
* Diagnosis: rapid streptococcal antigen test.
## Footnote
Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications.
152
What are the nursing management steps for diphtheria?
* Treatment with antibiotics
* Airway management
* Administer Tdap or DTaP vaccine
* Droplet precautions.
## Footnote
Timely intervention can prevent severe complications from diphtheria.
153
What are the complications associated with measles?
* Diarrhea
* Otitis media
* Pneumonia
* Acute encephalitis.
## Footnote
Complications can lead to severe health issues, emphasizing the importance of vaccination.
154
What is the incubation period for varicella (chickenpox)?
10-21 days.
## Footnote
Understanding the incubation period helps in managing and preventing outbreaks.
155
What are the initial stages of a rash in chickenpox?
Rash begins as a macule 🡪 vesicle 🡪 erupts 🡪 crusts
156
What nursing management precautions are recommended for chickenpox?
* Contact and airborne precautions
* Topical diphenhydramine cream after showers and baths
* Acetaminophen for fever and pain
* NO Aspirin; Reye syndrome risk
* Antiviral therapy in immunocompromised children (Acyclovir)
* Prevention (Varicella vaccine)
* NO Live vaccines for immunocompromised children
157
What is the causative agent of Exanthem Subitem (Roseola Infantum)?
Human herpesvirus type 6
158
How is Exanthem Subitem transmitted?
Saliva of infected person enters through nose, mouth, and eyes
159
What is the incubation period for Exanthem Subitem?
5-15 days, average 10 days
160
When does the rash appear in Exanthem Subitem?
Rash appears 12-24 hours after high fever resolves
161
What are the complications associated with Exanthem Subitem?
* Febrile seizures
* Encephalitis
* Meningoencephalitis (rare)
162
What is the characteristic rash appearance of Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease)?
“Slapped cheek” appearance with circumoral pallor
163
What is the incubation period for Erythema Infectiosum?
4-28 days
164
What are the key symptoms of Erythema Infectiosum?
* Prodromal low-grade fever
* Headache
* Mild respiratory symptoms
* Rash resolves spontaneously in 1-3 weeks
165
What is the causative agent of Erythema Infectiosum?
Human parvovirus B19
166
How is Pediculosis capitis transmitted?
Direct contact with the hair of infected persons
167
What is the incubation period for Pediculosis capitis?
2-3 weeks
168
What is the primary symptom of Pediculosis capitis?
Extremely pruritic
169
What treatment is recommended for Pediculosis capitis?
* Wash hair with permethrin shampoo
* Leave on for 10 minutes
* Repeat in about a week
* Comb nits and lice from hair
* Treat bed mates prophylactically
170
What are the contact precautions for managing Pediculosis capitis?
* Wash clothing, bedding, towels in hot water
* Use a hot dryer cycle
* Seal non-washable items in airtight plastic bag for 10 days
171
What is the causative agent of Scabies?
Sarcoptes Scabiei
172
What is the incubation period for Scabies?
2-4 weeks
173
What are the symptoms of Scabies?
* Intensely pruritic, especially at night
* Thin, irregular burrow tracks
174
How is Scabies diagnosed?
Microscopic exam of skin scrapings
175
What treatment is recommended for Scabies?
* Scabicide (Permethrin cream)
* Applied from neck down in older children
* No permethrin in children <2mo
* Treatment left on for 8-14 hours
176
What is iron deficiency anemia?
Body does not have enough iron to produce hemoglobin
177
What are common risk factors for iron deficiency anemia?
* Maternal anemia
* Poorly controlled diabetes during pregnancy
* Prematurity
* Cow’s milk consumption before 12 months
* Lack of iron in formula or exclusive breast feeding
* Restricted diets
* Chronic/acute blood loss
178
What are the physical exam findings for iron deficiency anemia?
* Fatigue or lethargy
* Pallor in skin, conjunctivae, oral mucosa
* Spooning of nails
* Tachycardia
* Splenomegaly
179
What dietary teaching is recommended for preventing iron deficiency anemia?
* Iron fortified formula
* Iron rich foods
* Limit cow’s milk to 24oz/day
* Avoid junk food
180
What is the expected outcome of taking iron supplements?
Black stool is expected while taking iron
