Final Flashcards
1
Q
What Act states that a patient can request that her images be sent to another mammography service?
A
MQSA Mammography Quality Standards Act
2
Q
It is important for the professional imaging technologist to thoroughly understand his or her responsibilities regarding health information confidentiality. Particular considerations include:
A
- All examination results are released to patients by physicians only
- Testimonial statement must be signed
- All healthcare personnel must maintain confidentiality
3
Q
What items need to be considered as part of a medical imaging quality assurance program?
A
Medication errors
Thermal injuries occurring in MRI
Timespan available to schedule mammograms
Radiology departments rate of repeat images
Patient satisfaction survey results
4
Q
What would be the purpose of a radiology department’s quality assurance committee?
A
To improve
5
Q
The ICD-10-CM codes for radiologic procedures using CPT coding nomenclature range from?
A
70010 to 79999
6
Q
To maximize the full reimbursement for a diagnostic study performed in medical imaging, what has to be included?
A
Correct CPT codes
7
Q
In 2007, the government upgraded the DRG system of reimbursement and introduced the MS-DRG system. This upgrade is designed to take into account?
A
Severity of illness
8
Q
A key function performed by a patient’s health information record is to?
A
Facilitate communication for everyone
9
Q
Health records for inpatients should contain what information?
A
Patient identification date
reports of any diagnostic or therapeutic studies
physical examination data
all informed consent documents
medical history
10
Q
Who enters health information into a patient’s medical record (chart)?
A
Anyone who participates in the patient’s care
11
Q
The health information department performs what supportive functions
A
supports health services research
administrative activities of the organization
Support for medical education activities
Ensure compliance with legal requirements
Quality management programs
12
Q
What department is responsible for the maintenance, retrieval, and storage of health information?
A
Health information management department
13
Q
What are the characteristics of a patient health record?
A
single record on a single patient only
may be maintained on paper or electronic or both
promotes communication among providers and continuity of care
14
Q
Define veracity-
A
telling the truth
15
Q
What is consequentialism?
A
what is right based on what the consequences are
16
Q
What is an ethical dilemma?
A
When the correct choice is not clear and personal values may conflict
17
Q
When undertaking an ethical analysis, what must be considered?
A
• Identifying the problem
• Developing alternative solutions
• Selecting the best solution
• Defending the selection
18
Q
What is an example of an ethical outrage?
A
A technologist refuses to complete a procedure because his shift is over.
19
Q
Using morals as your complete guide to determine appropriate professional behavior…?
A
has weaknesses because not everyone has the same moral values as you
20
Q
All professional decisions in medical imaging and other healthcare practices involve a consideration of?
A
Human values
21
Q
What is a professional etiquette violation?
A
Being rude or impolite
22
Q
Criticizing a doctor or team member in a private or public forum would be considered an
A
Unethical practice
23
Q
Define/recognize what an ethical violation is.
A
Example: technologist who constantly overexposes patients to get the perfect image
24
Q
What is a violation of socially accepted values?
A
Example: you are enjoying a movie with a friend and the person behind you continues to text during the movie ?
25
Failure to pay one’s federal income taxes would be an example of a?
Violation of federal law
26
What is a lipogram?
The radiographic evaluation of the small and large bowel that has been connected to the skin surface as a substitute for the urinary bladder with an ostomy
27
In preparation for a BE of a colostomy patient, is it important to?
Irrigate the colostomy to thoroughly empty the bowel before the procedure, understand the sensitivity to these patient’s condition and lifestyle change
28
What is the post-procedural care for patients who have had a colon examination?
Drink plenty of fluids, and eat food high in fiber. Make the PT aware that there may be changes in stool color
29
For a possible bowel perforation, what type of contrast is used?
water-soluble iodine compounds are the only acceptable contrast media (rather than barium)
30
What relieves bowel spasms?
administration of glucagon
31
What height do you suspend the enema bag for a single contrast BE exam?
No greater than 30 inches
32
What diagnostic study is utilized to diagnose colitis?
Colonoscopy
33
Be able to identify what is true regarding a virtual colonoscopy.
minimally invasive
no sedation or referral from pt doctor
provides quick results
-It is performed on a multi-slice computed tomography scanner that takes up to 600 two-dimensional and three-dimensional images of the colon in approximately 30 seconds. -is a minimally invasive alternative to conventional colonoscopy (endoscopy) that screens the colon and rectum for polyps and early cancer before symptoms occur. -Virtual colonoscopy involves no scopes, sedation, recovery time, or referral from your doctor or insurance plan.
34
The sensitivity of what type of exam has surpassed the results of barium contrast colon studies?
colonoscopy
35
Be able to identify what is true regarding cleaning enemas.
Diabetic patients require special colon preparation procedures
Promote defecation reflex and discharge
Complete when bowel contents are clear and free of fecal matter
Hydrating patients is a significant concern for patients undergoing a cleansing enema
36
Know what all is involved for a patient using a fracture bedpan (typically a patient who has undergone some type of joint surgery)-
Fracture bedpan has a unique wedge-shaped design.
Allows patient to elevate hips only slightly for placement
Convenient handle for placement and removal
You and and an assistant should assist the patient with movement onto the bedpan
Provide privacy
Wear gloves and wash your hands
37
What is a double-lumen NG tube? What all is included?
An NG tube in place, with a syringe upright and pinned to the gown
38
When transporting a patient with an NG tube to medical imaging…?
1. Confirm order was sent to allow transfer and interruption of suctioning
2. Length of time of interrupted suction
3. Reestablish suction
39
40
What does a physician do to confirm the proper placement of an NG tube?
perform x ray fluoroscopy and
*The single-lumen Levin tube is the most common type of NG tube for stomach decompression
41
To facilitate the removal of an NG tube, the patient is encouraged to what?
take a deep breath
42
What position is the patient in when inserting an NG tube?
high fowlers
43
Hazardous drug-related waste materials require the of ______ needle containers and breakable items of hazardous waste.
labeling
44
*When using a portable C-arm for surgical hip pinning, sterility will be maintained using a “shower curtain” approach
In surgery with a C-arm, the image receptor and C-arm are draped with a_______for sterility
snap cover
45
Handling a patient with a Foley catheter in place involves technologists doing what?
Emptying urine bags and recording the output
46
If 2 people are in sterile gowns, how do they pass each other?
Back to back
48
The purpose of the inflatable balloon portion at the tip of the Foley catheter is to?
to hold catheter in place
49
*If you notice that the Rad has contaminated their glove, make them aware immediately
True
50
If the sterility of an object is unknown, what should be done?
Act as if it’s not
51
What is the first thing you should look at when you have a sterile package?
Expiration date
52
When performing dressing changes, if the wound is purulent, a____ is recommended
gown
53
If for some strange reason, you are going to assist in a sterile procedure, how long do you scrub your hands?
3 min
54
T/F: when opening a sterile tray, can your fingers touch the inside of the tray?
FALSE
55
a sterile person may touch only what is sterile, a sterile field must be watched continually, and if a solution soaks through to a non sterile field, the wet area must be re-draped
TRUE
56
The inflatable balloon portion of the Foley catheter is typically filled with?
Air
57
What is the single greatest measure that can be done to prevent the spread of infection?
Wash hands correctly
58
What are two bloodborne pathogens that are of particular importance to hospital personnel?
HIV & hepatitis b
59
What is an iatrogenic infection?
Infection after medical or surgical management (Even if not hospitalized)
60
Nosocomial infections are what type of infections?
Healthcare-associated infection And occur where? Usually hospitals or long-term care facilities
61
What does the chain of infection consist of?
1)microorganisms/pathogens 2) source (blood, saliva, feces) 3)portal of exit (seminal fluid, cut in skin, saliva coughed out), 4) mode of transport (contact, droplet, airborne, vector, fomite), 5) Port of entry (Mucosal lining, open wound, oral, respiratory tract, urinary tract) 6) susceptible host (very young or old, those with chronic diseases, malnourished, immunocompromised)
62
What is a fomite?
Object or material that carries infection (clothes, furniture, counter)
63
What is bactericidal?
Know the methods of sterilization
Kills bacteria
(heat, radiation, gas & chemical)
64
What is Droplet precaution and give examples?
Droplet prevention is when a patient has a disease (or is suspected to have it) that can be passed through respiratory droplets (when talking, coughing or sneezing). Example is measles or the flu
65
What is a vector?
A vector is an organism that transmits a pathogen from one host to another. Common examples include mosquitoes, which can carry malaria and ticks, which can transmit Lyme disease. Vectors play a big role in the spread of infectious diseases.
66
What are the steps of the infectious process?
Viral infection is the result of a viral particle, also called a virion, which attaches to a host cell and inserts its genome or genetic information into the host. The viral genome then redirects the host cell. The virus uses the organelles and metabolic functions of the host cell to produce new viruses. Once this process is completed, the new viral particles are released from the host cell, sometimes resulting in destruction of the cell. Some viruses have the ability to travel within the nervous system. They reappear sporadically and emerge at the nerve ending, causing various symptoms. They then leave the site and travel up the nerve again. This pattern can be repeated several times and is known as a latent or dormant infection.
67
What are viral infections and give examples?
Viral infections are illnesses caused by viruses. Examples are the common cold, COVID-19, chickenpox, and hepatitis. They can spread through direct contact, airborne transmission, or bodily fluids.
68
What can pathogenic organisms do?
(1) they can multiply in large numbers and cause an obstruction, (2) they can cause tissue damage, and (3) they can secrete organic substances called exotoxins.
69
Define pathogenic.?
-a bacterium, virus, or other microorganism causing disease -or disease-producing microorganisms
70
Characteristics of bacteria?
Bacteria are single-celled, prokaryotic organisms that come in various shapes like rods, spheres, and spirals. They reproduce asexually, have a cell wall, and can be either autotrophic or heterotrophic. Some can move with flagella and can adapt to many environments.
71
Define an infection.?
An infection is the invasion and multiplication of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. This can cause illness or disease. These microorganisms can disrupt normal body functions and trigger immune responses
72
Streptococci and bacilli are classified as what type of microorganisms?
Bacteria
73
Lyme disease is a condition caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, etc. This is an example of transmission of an infection by?
Lyme disease is an example of transmission of an infection by a vector. The vector is the deer tick, which carries the bacteria that cause the disease.
74
*If you accidentally prick yourself with a needle as you perform a venipuncture procedure,
you flood the area with water,clean it with soap and water and report the incident.
75
What does STAT mean?
Immediate
76
What happens when extravasation occurs?
IV fluids leak out of a vessel into surrounding tissue, causing swelling, pain, and potential tissue damage.
77
What is the abbreviation IM? –
intramuscular
78
What are the common sites for venipuncture?
Antecubital fossa (inner elbow), dorsal hand veins, and cephalic vein (on the forearm)
79
Veins in what body part are preferred for contrast medium injection?
Antecubital fossa and forearm
80
For an average sized patient, what angle is the needle tip positioned for a subcutaneous injection?
a 25-gauge, 5⁄8-inch needle at a 45-degree angle
81
What is a parenteral route of administration?
Administering substances directly into the body via injections
82
What are some injection routes?
Intravenous (IV), intramuscular (IM), subcutaneous (SC), intradermal (ID), & intrathecal
83
What are the“rights” for medication administration?
The right route of administration.
The right (correct) time for giving the drug.
The right (correct) drug and drug amount (dose) administered.
84
What is an antagonist?
Drug that binds to the receptor and completely or partially blocks the activation of a biological response.
85
What are examples of antihistamines? (drug names)
1. Benadryl
2. Zyrtec
3. Allegra
86
When should a patient not be given thrombolytics?
-Active bleeding -Recent brain bleed/hemorrhage -Recent brain surgery or spine surgery -Severe high blood pressure
87
Diuretic, furosemide, and Lasix are prescribed to patients with what type of conditions? -
Congestive heart failure
88
Heparin is best administered through what type of injection? -
Intravenous
89
What does the drug levothyroxine use to manage?
Hypothyroidism
90
: a major complication for patients undergoing blood clotting drug therapy is bleeding
Antiplatelets
91
Drugs that are commonly used for the treatment of high cholesterol are referred to as?
Statins
92
What is an anticholinergic drug? -
Blocks acetylcholine
93
What is Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)?
Annual publication that contains current product information
94
What is true about Nitroglycerine?
1. Used to treat chest pain
2. Causes blood vessels to dilate (not constrict)
3. Injected with a hypodermic needle
95
What are analgesics?
Medications to relieve pain by blocking pain signals or by reducing inflammation
96
What modality would be of concern in medical imaging if a patient had a transdermal patch?
MRI
97
Describe pharmacology genetics. –
Excrete, metabolize, and absorption
98
What are the common dosage forms of drugs?
Suspension, capsule, tablet, inhalant, solution
99
Define Pharmacology?
The science concerned with the origin, nature, effects, and uses of drugs is called pharmacology.
100
*When using an AED, two AED chest pads are used, one on the upper right side of the chest and the other on the lower left ribs
True
101
When can CPR be stopped?
-must be continued until the victim resumes spontaneous respiration and circulation -a physician or other responsible healthcare professional calls a halt -or the rescuer is too exhausted to continue.
102
When performing CPR as a single rescuer, after each group of ___compressions, give ___ventilations
30
2
103
What are the CABs of CPR?
Compression, Airway, Breathing
104
What do you do when a patient has a wound that continues to bleed through the bandage? -
Call for help, apply pressure, and elevate body part
105
What does the patient do when they experience epistaxis?
Patients should lean forward and pinch the affected nostril against the midline nasal cartilage with digital pressure (with the fingers).
106
Symptoms of a head injury include?
-Drowsy or unconscious -unresponsive to virtually all stimuli -irritability, lethargy, slowing pulse rate, and slowing respiratory rate.
107
Define hypovolemic shock?
Hypovolemic shock, caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid
108
Define cardiogenic shock.
- Failure to pump enough blood to vital organs
109
Define syncope. -
Fainting
110
Define radiopharmaceuticals?.
A radionuclide that is attached (chemically bound) to a pharmaceutical that has a specific biodistribution in the human body.
111
T/F: nonionic low-osmolality contrast agents have gained popularity as a safer choice for iodine examinations. These still pose a risk to renal function
TRUE
112
What do the lab tests BUN and Creatinine determine?
indicate that the patient may have renal disease and are good indicators for possible contrast medium-induced renal effects.
113
Blood pressure:
Systolic over diastolic
114
*Bradypnea-
slow respiratory rate
115
Temperature measurement routes:
oral, tympanic, and rectal are related
116
*Vital signs: temperature,
blood pressure, respiration and pulse
117
The QRS complex on a typical ECG represents:
depolarization of ventricular muscle.
118
Cardioversion therapy can be used to treat:
atrial-related arrhythmias
119
120
