Final Flashcards
(218 cards)
1
Q
What color should the tympanic membrane be and what tool do we use to view the tympanic membrane?
A
Pearly grey; Otoscope
2
Q
Grade muscle strength 0-5
A
5- Full strength
4- Full gravity, some resistance
3-Full gravity, no resistance
2-Full PROM
1- Twitching
0- Paralysis
3
Q
Normal number of BM per week
A
At least 3
4
Q
Expected side effected for ACE inhibitors? Can be switched to what?
A
Smokers cough is expected side effect; can switch to ARB (-sartans)
5
Q
Functional ADL vs ADL
A
Functional ADL (financial management, housekeeping, laundry, medical administration, meal preparation, shopping, transportation)
ADL (bathing, communication, dressing, eating, grooming, mobility, and toileting)
6
Q
Ischemic Stroke
A
Blood clot occludes oxygen to the brain
7
Q
Hemmoraghic Stroke
What is it and who is at highest risk?
A
Blood vessel in the brain ruptures- could be associated with HBP or hypertension
8
Q
If there are multiple people in a patients room and you need to discuss patient information, what should you ensure with the patient?
A
That they’re okay with their info being discussed in front of everyone
9
Q
What is POA and its value in the patients chart?
A
Present on admission; Anything the patient presented with prior to admission so they hospital cannot financially be held responsible (such as pressure injury)
10
Q
Within how long does any pressure injuries or POA documentation need to charted in a patients chart within admission?
A
24 hours
11
Q
What do we do if we cannot palpate a pulse on a patient?
A
Use a doppler
12
Q
Levels of prevention
A
- Primary: Prevention (seatbelt, vaccines)
- Secondary: Screening (mammogram, papsmear)
- Tertiary: Damage is done - just caring (education, rehab, support groups, pain management)
13
Q
If your patient experiences new confusion, what are some things you should be thinking?
A
- Infections
- Hypoxia
- Pneumonothorax
14
Q
AMS is what until proven otherwise….
A
Hypoxia
15
Q
Example of close ended and open ended questions
A
Closed: Do you smoke?
Open: Describe why you feel that way.
16
Q
True or false
Infants/neonates decompensate instantly while adults usually progressively get worse.
A
True
17
Q
What is flatulence?
A
Passing gas
18
Q
What technique (name of it) do we use to auscultate the thorax in order to assess symmetry?
A
Zipper technique
19
Q
Treatment of C. Diff
A
Oral Vancomycin and Flagyl
20
Q
What are the first 2 things we do in the room?
A
Wash our hands and introduce ourselves
21
Q
Sign vs Symptom
A
Sign- Objective
Symptom- Subjective
22
Q
Ranges for numeric pain scale
A
1-3 Mild
4-6 Moderate
7-10 Severe
23
Q
GCS - Categories, best score, worst score, and less than 8 means what?
A
4E, 5V, 6M
Best score is 15
Worst score is 3
Less than 8 the patient should be intubated
24
Q
If the patient experiences over nutrition, they are at risk for what?
A
DM II, Hypertension, Hyperlipidemia, Obesity
25
Non-Maleficence
Do no harm
26
Beneficence
To do good
27
Autonomy
Respecting the patients and family's decisions
28
Justice
Fair treatment
29
Confidentiality
Respecting a patients rights and privacy
30
How are pulses graded?
0-3
- 3+: Full, Bounding
- 2+: Normal
- 1+: Weak, Thready
- 0: Absent
31
With which pulse gradings do we need to assess with a doppler?
0 and 1+
32
MAP needs to be between what?
50-65 mmHg
33
BP is determined by 5 factors:
- Cardiac output: more output=higher bp
- Peripheral Vascular Resistance: Vasoconstriction= higher BP, Vasodilation= decreased BP
- Volume of circulating blood: more fluid= higher bp
- Viscosity: Increase= higher BP
- Elasticity of vessel walls: increase rigidity= higher BP
34
What 2 medications may be given to help with nerve pain?
Gabapentin (Neurontin) and Pregabalin (Lyrica)
35
Visceral Pain (Origin, Descriptor, and Example)
- Originates in internal organs
- Dull, Deep Cramping
- Example: Appendicitis
36
Somatic Pain (Origin, Descriptor, and Example)
- Originates in muscle, bone, tendon, ligament
- Throbbing, Achy
- Example: Bone fractures
37
Cutaneous
- Associated with surface of the skin
- Example: Paper cut
38
Referred Pain
- Pain felt in one location yet it originates somewhere else in the body
- Example: Heart attack in men usually radiates to left arm pain
39
Drug Therapy Tolerance
Patient is on a medication long term and needs higher dose (such as pain meds)
40
Drug therapy Resistance
Patient doesn't take antibiotics for full 10 days and becomes resistant. Antibiotic will no longer work on that patient and possibly the bacteria
41
10 Lymph Nodes
Go through them
42
Anterior approach of thyroid gland- which way do you push?
Push left and palpate right
43
Posterior approach to thyroid- which way do you palpate?
Push left and palpate right
44
Pinpoint pupils are side effect of what?
Opioids
45
What is fixation?
The eye is attracted reflexively moves toward an object drawing a person’s attention
46
What is accomidation?
Eye adapts to objects in distance then brought up close
47
Strabismus
Deviation of two eyes (lazy eye)
48
Diplopia
Two images of one object
49
Confrontation Test
Screen for peripheral vision loss (ie. Fingers wiggling to say when you see them)
50
Hirschberg Test (corneal light reflex)
Shine light into one eye approximately 12 inches away from eye, note light reflection in same spot of each of the two corneas
51
Nystagmus
Fine oscillating movement around iris (eyes constantly moving) in a shaking motion
52
True or False
Nystagmus may be normal when fully looking at the side of your eyes
True
53
Exophthalmos and disease state seen with is....
Bulging eyes and Graves Disease
54
Mydriasis (Definition and associated with)
- Definition: Exceedingly large pupils
- Associated with: Trauma, CNS injury, Acute glaucoma, and deep anesthesia
55
As nurses, what education may we have to provide to our patients regarding medications that may cause pin point pupils?
Glaucoma treatment drops (such as pilocarpine)
56
ABCDEF Skin Mnemonic
A- Asymmetry
B- Border Irregularity
C- Color Variation
D- Diameter (6mm+, size of pencil eraser)
E- Elevation (Bump) or Evolution (Change over time)
F- Funny looking ('Ugly Duckling' Sign)
57
What is Raynaud's Syndrome?
Typically associated with peripheral vascular disease; pt will feel paresthesia, numbness, pins and needles; fingertips or tips of toes will turn blue; typically seen more in cold states during winter
58
Anasarca
Bilateral or generalized edema
59
True or false
Cherry angiomas are bright red, slightly raised, smooth, small sized red dots which are an abnormal finding in adults over 30+.
False.
Cherry angiomas are NORMAL findings in adults over 30+.
60
4 types of secondary lesion
- Ulcer: Depression, irregular in shape, potential bleeding and can leave scar upon healing (ie. Pressure injury, stasis ulcer)
- Excoriation: Superficial abrasion that is self-inflicted, described as scratches from impressive amount of itching (ie. Insect bite, rug burn)
- Scar: Repaired skin lesion with loss of normal tissue and replacement using collagen (connective tissue); so-called permanent fibrotic change (ie. Surgical healing site)
- Keloid: Excess scar tissue outside of original injury site, benign in nature; described as smooth, claw-like, shiny, rubbery in nature and firm
61
Stages of Pressure Ulcers
Stage 1- Non-Blanchable reddened skin
Stage 2- Partial thickness injury (dermis and epidermis)
Stage 3- Full thickness into the subcutaneous
Stage 4- Full thickness where bone, muscle, or tendon are visible.
Stage 5- Unstable due to slough or eschar covering the wound bed)
62
Nail clubbing is associated with what pathologys?
Congenital heart disease, lung cancer, or other pulmonology disease (such as COPD)
63
True or False
Lentigines are seen in older adults and are NOT considered malignant.
True
64
Seborrheic Keratoses
Areas of skin that are thick and raised with altered pigmentation, may have a 'stuck on' appearence
65
Which keratosis is premalignant- seborrheic or actinic? Which type of cancer does it have the potential of turning into?
Actinic- Has the potential to develop into squamous cell carcinoma
66
What occurs in the heart during systole?
Ventricles contract, blood pumped from ventricles fills pulmonic system and arteries
67
What occurs during diastole?
Atria contract. Ventricles relax
68
In which order do we auscultate the heart?
Aortic
Pulmoic
Erbs Point
Tricuspid
Mitral
69
What is the pace maker of the heart?
SA node
70
Where is S1 best heard?
Apex of heart (which means bottom)
71
Where is S2 best heard?
Best heard at the base of the heart (top)
72
Bruit occurs due to which type of blood flow?
Turbulent
73
How are murmurs graded?
1-6 on loudness
1 being the quietest (special stethoscope with a quiet room) and 6 is the loudest- hold ear to chest without stethoscope
74
What is stenosis of a vein?
Narrowing of the vein
75
So called 'Distant thunder' is associated with what heart sound and who may it be normal to be seen it?
S3 is 'distant thunder'
May be seen in pediatric patients and young adults
76
What heart sound are we listening for when we turn our pts to their left side?
Listening for S4
Gallop sound
77
Pericardial friction rub is what type of sound?
High pitched and sounds like sand paper
78
Which is which? Artery and vein. High pressure and low pressure.
Artery= High pressure
Vein= Low pressure
79
Grading of pitting edema
o 1+ Mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling
o 2+ Moderate pitting, indentation subsides rapidly
o 3+ Deep pitting, indentation remains, leg looks swollen
o 4+ Very deep pitting, indentation lasts long time, leg grossly swollen and distorted
80
What is Wells Score used for? What does a higher score indicate?
- Likelihood of DVT
o Score of 0 or less indicates low probability
o Score 1 or 2 indicates moderate probability
o Score of 3 points or higher indicates high probability
81
If a patient presents with clear galactorrhea, what is something we should ask?
What medications are you on?
Steroids, Calcium channel blockers, diuretics and oral contraceptives may cause this.
82
Lumpectomy
Partial breast tissue removal
83
Nipple discharge in a male is signifcant warning sign of what?
Breast cancer
84
Angle of Louis is referring to what and where is that located?
Sternal angle; line between mandibrum and body on sternum
85
Where is the vertebrae prominens?
C7 - bony spur
86
Mediastinum is composed of what?
| 4 Things
Esophagus
Great vessels
Heart
Trachea
87
2nd most common cancer in the US
Lung cancer
88
Viagra/Levitra may be used to treat
Pulmonary Hypertension
89
Sputum Colors with meaning (Yellow/Green, White/Clear, Rust, Frothy Pink)
- Yellow/Green: Bacterial infection
- White/clear: Viral infection, bronchitis, colds
- **Rust: Pneumonia or TB (UNIQUE)**
- Frothy pinky: Pulmonary Edema
90
Increased fremitus may indicate...
Consolidation such as pneumonia
(fluid in lungs- so more vibration)
91
Decreased fremitus indicates...
Obstruction such as pleural effusion (space between pleural cavities) or hemothorax (blood collection in pleural space)
92
Hyperresonance
| Percussion of lung sounds
Booming sound due to excess air present.
Noted with emphysema or pneumothorax
93
Fine Crackles (Rales)
## Footnote
Describe pitch, inspiratory or expiratory, discontinous or continous, describe how it sounds, and what disease state it's usually associated with.
High pitched, inspiratory, discontinous
Popping
Pneumonia and heart failure
94
Coarse Crackles
## Footnote
Describe pitch, inspiratory or expiratory, discontinous or continous, describe how it sounds, and what disease state it’s usually associated with.
Low pitched, discontinuous, inspiratory
Bubbling
Pulmonary Edema or Pulmonary Fibrosis
95
High Pitched Sibilant Wheeze
## Footnote
Describe pitch, inspiratory or expiratory, discontinous or continous, describe how it sounds, and what disease state it’s usually associated with.
High pitched, continuous, expiratory
Squeaking
COPD or Asthma
96
Low Pitched Sonorous Rhonchi
## Footnote
Describe pitch, inspiratory or expiratory, discontinous or continous, describe how it sounds, and what disease state it’s usually associated with.
Low pitched, continuous, expiratory
Moaning
Bronchitis
97
Stridor
## Footnote
Describe pitch, inspiratory or expiratory, discontinous or continous, describe how it sounds, and what disease state it’s usually associated with.
High pitched, continuous, inspiratory
Crowing sound
Croup or Epiglottis
98
3 Types of joints
- Fibrous Joints: Bones united by fibrous tissue or cartilage and do not move (Ex. sutures in skull)
- Cartilaginous Joints: Separated by fibrocartilaginous discs and are slightly moveable (vertebrae)
- Synovial Joints: Freely moveable joints separated by one another and enclosed in a cavity lined with synovial membrane that secretes fluid; Is avascular; Surrounded by ligaments which are fibrous bands from one bone to another bone; Bursae located in areas of potential friction to facilitate movement of muscles and tendons
99
Tendon vs Ligament
Tendon: Connects muscle to bone
Ligament: Connects bone to bone
100
How many vertebrae in humans? (# in Cervical, # in Thoracic, # in Lumbar, # in Sacral, # in Coccygeal)
- 7 cervical
- 12 thoracic
- 5 lumbar
- 5 sacral
- 3 to 4 coccygeal
101
Criteria for SIRS (Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome)
- Temp: >38 or <36
- Heart rate: >90
- Resp rate: >20
- Increased WBC
102
Patient presents to clinic unable to lift arm laterally over head. What does this likely suggest?
Partial or complete rotator cuff tear
103
What is the largest joint in the body? What type of joint is it?
Knee; Hinge joint ( can only flex and extend)
104
Cerebral Cortex does what...
Center of functions governing thought, memory, reasoning, sensation, and voluntary movement
105
Frontal Lobe
Concerned with personality, behavior, emotions, and intellectual function
106
Parietal lobe
Primary center for sensation
107
Occipital Lobe
Primary visual receptor center
108
Temporal lobe
Behind ear, has primary auditory reception center, taste, and smell
109
Wernicke’s area
| Where is it and what does it do?
within the temporal lobe and associated with *understanding* of language
110
Broca’s area
Associated with the ability to talk
111
What part of the heart is considered the work horse?
Left ventricle
112
What skin cancer is fast growing and extremely malignant?
What ones are not fast growing?
Melanoma is fast growing
Squamous cell and basal cell carcinoma are slow growing
113
Simple "Partial" Seizure
Patient presents and looks fine, but and EEG would show seizure activity in the brain
114
Gran Man "Tonic Clonic" Seizure
Typical Hollywood seizure, occur spontaneous and may or may not resolve on own. Twitching and muscle jerking
115
Status Epilepticus
Repetitive non-stop seizure lasting 5 minutes or more, patient will need a benzodiazepine . LIFE THREATENING
116
Normal Sodium (Na) Levels
What happens if this is out of range?
135-145
Patient is at risk for seizures
117
How many spinal nerves are there?
# in Cervical
# in Thoracic
# in Lumbar
# in Sacral
# in Coccygeal
o Cervical (8)
o Thoracic (12)
o Lumbar (5)
o Sacral (5)
o Coccygeal (1)
118
Dermatomes T1, T4, T10, L1, and L4
What does it mean if one of these nerves is severed?
o Axilla – T1
o Nipple – T4
o Umbilicus (belly button) – T10
o Groin – L1
o Knee – L4
If one of these nerves are severed- then all functions below that site will be severed as well.
119
Grading for Deep Tendon Reflexes
o 4+ impressively brisk, + for disease/pathology
o 3+ above average brisk, anticipate normal
o 2+ normal, average
o 1+ diminished
o 0 lack of response
120
What is the Babinski sign? When is normal vs abnormal?
Fanning of toes with dorsiflexion of greater toe
Normal during infancy and abnormal in adults
121
Solid Organs (6)
- Adrenal glands
- Liver
- Ovaries
- Pancreas
- Spleen
- Uterus
122
Hollow Organs
| 4
- Bladder
- Colon
- Gall bladder
- Small intestine
123
What are we testing when we make a fist and do a thud on a patients lower back? What is the test called and what are we testing for?
Pyelonephritis (kidney infection) and Costovetebral tenderness
124
What's important to check prior to giving Zofran (Ondansetron)?
Pts QT interval
125
If a patient has grey stool, what should we be worried for?
Hepatitis!!!
126
Dysphagia vs Dysphasia
Dysphagia: Difficulty swallowing
Dysphasia: Difficulty speaking
127
Striae are associated with...
- Excess weight gain
- Cushing's Syndrome
- Pregnancy
128
How long do we have to listen to bowel sounds in order to report them as absent?
5 Minutes
129
What palpation technique do we use on an obese patient?
Bimanual technique
130
True or False
Spleen is typically palpable in non-obese patients
False
Spleen is normally not palpable in healthy adults
131
How is the kidney palpated?
Duck-Bill position - Patient takes a deep breath in and then we push on location
132
Some conditions which Splenomegaly occur...
– Trauma
– Mononucleosis (caused by Epstein-Barr virus)
– Leukemia
– Lymphoma
– Portal hypertension
– HIV
133
Primigravida
First time pregnancy EVER
134
Primipara
Post delivery of first pregnancy (can include abortions, miscarriages, or successful delivery)
135
Multigravidia
Pregnancy for patient who has already been pregnant previously
136
Mulitpara
Post delivery in setting of multiple pregnancies
137
Colostrum
What is it and when does it occur?
Precursor of milk in mother and occurs in the second trimester
138
Nägele’s rule is also known as what?
"Due date"
139
Nägele’s rule is calculated how?
280 days from first day of the patient’s last menstrual period (LMP)
140
What is the most frequently diagnosed cancer of males? What is a risk factor?
Prostate Cancer.
Obesity is a risk factor
141
Clay colored stool is seen in the setting of...
Biliary cirrhosis, gallstones, viral hepatitis or hepatitis related to alcohol origin
142
Leopold Maneuver
Used by OB provider/mid-wife to try to flip baby head first during delivery
143
Treatment for Parkinsons
Sinimet - Carbidopa and Levodopa taken QID
Parkinsons- Dopamine is decreased and ACH is increased
144
Delirium vs Dementia
Delirium is short term, reversible
Dementia is long term, non-reversible
145
Normal hemoglobin in M/F and point in which to give blood
Female= 12-16
Male= 14-18
Normal patient: hemoglobin below 7
Heart patient (such as CHF): Hemoglobin below 8
146
Where is thrill palpated?
2nd and 3rd intercoastal space
147
Where would you view heaves or lifts?
Left lower sternal border position
148
What is a double layer system of serious membrane covering abdominal organs? What are both layers called?
Peritoneum
Visceral and Parietal
149
True or False
Hollow organs are typically not palpable except in setting of pressure/inflammation.
True
150
What is considered an upper UTI? What is considered a lower UTI?
Upper= Ureters and above
Lower= Bladder and below
151
Organs LUQ
| 6
- Kidney (left)
- Liver (left lobe)
- Pancreas (body)
- Spleen
- Stomach
- Colon (descending and other portion of transverse)
152
Organs RUQ
- Colon
(ascending transverse descending)
- Duodenum
- Gallbladder
- Liver
- Pancreas
153
Organs LLQ
- Left ovary / tube
- Left spermatic cord
- Left ureter
- Descending colon (portion)
- Sigmoid colon (NORMAL FOR THIS TO BE SENSITIVE)
154
Organs RLQ
- Appendix
- Cecum
- Right ovary / tube
- Right spermatic cord
- Right ureter
155
What stool can be assessed if an ostomy is located of the ascending colon?
Liquid- Would be an illeostomy
156
What stool would be assessed if an ostomy is located in the descending colon?
Formed- Colostomy
157
How many glasses of water a day should a normal adult drink?
Per BK in class...
8 standard glasses of water a day
158
Normal Hemoglobin range for M/F. What # do we consider a transfusion? Any special considerations?
M- 14- 18
F- 12-16
Transfusion is typically considered at hemoglobin of 7 unless the patient is a cardiac patient than 8 is considred.
159
A patient reports to the clinic with dull, generalized abdominal pain. What can we suspect in which type of peritoneum pain this is?
Visceral Pain
160
A patient expresses sharp and localized abdominal pain. What time of peritoneum pain can we expect this is?
Pariteal Pain
161
Coffee ground stool, may appear tarry. Usually suggests occult blood and upper GI bleed
Melena
162
What is a hernia?
Protrusion of bowel (abdominal viscera) through a muscle wall abnormal opening
163
Normal pH of stomach when testing gastric contents
2-2.5
164
Acute involuntary rigitidy of the abdomen upon light palpation can be associated with what?
Peritonitis
165
Is closed angle or open angle glaucoma more life threatening?
Closed
166
Scotoma is also know as a what is vision?
Blind spot
167
What is the diagnostic positions test in vision?
6 cardinal positions of gaze
168
Vertigo vs disequilibruim
Vertigo: Spinning sensation of the head
Disequilibrium: Gait instability
169
2 AV Valves
- Tricuspid Valve: Right AV valve
- Bicuspid/Mitral Valve: Left AV valve
170
2 Semilunar Valves
- Pulmonic Valve: Right SL valve
- Aortic Valve: Left SL valve
171
How do we describe auscultating the heart pattern?
Z-shaped pattern
172
S1 is what valve closure?
AV Valves
173
S2 is due to what valve closure?
Semilunar Valves
174
What happens to the atria and ventricles with S1?
*Atria* = Relax
*Ventricles* = Contract
175
What happens with atria and ventricles during S2?
*Atria* = Contract
*Ventricles* = Relax
176
The carotid artery is simultaneous with what part of a patients heart beat? S1 or S2?
S1
177
Regurgitation is also know as what? It may also put the patient as risk for what?
Also known as 'Leaky Valves'
Puts patient at higher risk for blood clots
178
What position do we want our patient in for assessing JVD?
Supine with HOB 30-45 degrees
179
Right sided thrill is associated with what?
Systemic hypertension and severe aortic stenosis
180
Definition: Vessel system managing fluid excess and plasma using a pressure gradient
Hydrostatic Pressure
181
Profile sign is used to assess what?
Early nail clubbing
182
What test should we use to assess circulation in hand and before taking an ABG?
Modified Allen Test
183
Splenomegaly may be due to... (6)
– Trauma
– Mononucleosis (caused by Epstein-Barr virus)
– Leukemia
– Lymphoma
– Portal hypertension
– HIV
184
Colorectal cancer is typically screened starting at age....
45
185
Dysuria Definition
Difficulty or painful urination
186
Polyuria Definition
Excess amount of urine
187
Oliguria Definition
Diminished urine output (less than 400mL in 24 hours)
188
Anuria Definition
Absence of urine
189
Urethral opening on posterior aspect of penis in setting of so-called normal adult anatomy
Hypospadias
190
Urethral opening on anterior aspect of penis in setting of so-called normal adult anatomy
Episapdias
191
Prepuce opening narrowed not allowing for foreskin retraction
Phimosis
192
Retraction of foreskin associated with glan constriction pain
Paraphismosis
193
True or False
Sebaceous Cysts are normal findings around the scrotum
True
194
Scrotal edema is seen with what?
- Heart and renal failure
- Localized trauma or inflammation
195
What keratosis is typically due to sunburn?
Actinic
196
Patient reports feeling fear of impending doom prior to a seizure. What is this called?
Aura
197
Lordosis
Inward curvature of the spine normal in pregnancy
197
Kyphosis
Outward curvature of the spine- hunchback
198
Scoliosis
S-shaped spine
199
A provider informs a patient that they have an acrochordon. Should the patient be concerned?
No- this is another name for a skin tag.
200
Isometric contraction
contraction against closed system works to build high level pressure in ventricles
201
Electrical conduction sequence through heart
SA node (pacemaker of the heart) → AV → bundle of HIS → P. fibers
202
Intermittent Claudication (IC)
Pain in muscle bc of lack of blood flow during exercise-stops once exercise is done
203
Mastalgia
Pain or tenderness in breast
204
Fibroadenoma
(Shape of tumor, how it feels, demarcation, and mobility)
Round, Firm, Well Demarcated, and Mobile
205
Benign Breast Disease
(Shape of tumor, how it feels, demarcation, and mobility)
Round, Firm to Soft, Well Demarcated, Mobile
206
Cancer in Breast
(Shape of tumor, how it feels, demarcation, and mobility)
Irregular Star Shaped, Firm to Stoney Hard, Poorly Defined Margins, Fixed and Not Mobile
207
Where is the suprasternal notch located? What is it shaped like?
Above sternum and between clavicles- U-shaped
208
Normal CO2 levels in blood
35-45
209
What lung sounds are hear over major bronchi where fewer alveoli are located?
Brochovesicular
210
What lung sounds are heard over peripheral lung fields where air flows throw smaller bronchioles and alveoli?
Vesicular
211
Bouchard Nodes
Osteoarthritis of the middle joints in the fingers
212
Heberden Nodes
Osteoarthritis of the distal joints in the fingers
213
3 Types of reflexes
- Deep tendon/stretch reflex- knee jerk
- Superficial (cutaneous) reflex- babinski
- Visceral (organic) reflex- such as pupillary response
214
Presumptive Signs of Pregnancy
- Amenorrhea (missed periods) (specific signs)
- breast tenderness
- fatigue (non-specific)
- nausea (non-specific)
- urinary frequency increased
215
Probable Signs in Pregnancy
- examiner detection on assessment- ie. enlarged uterus (potential for palpation on physical examination → approximately 12 weeks)
- fundus “so-called baby bump” measurement noted at right typically in cm
216
Positive Signs of Pregnancy
- Direct evidence of fetus (ie. + fetal heart tones (FHT)
217
Urethritis is commonly associated with what?
chlamydia and gonorrhoea
