Final Flashcards
1
Q
All life & ecosystems on Earth are collectively known as a(n)
A
Biosphere
2
Q
Which of the following represents the correct hierarchy of biological organization from large scale to smaller scale?
A
biosphere → ecosystems → communities → populations → organisms
3
Q
All individuals of a species living in same area at same time is know as
A
population
4
Q
Living things are divided into three different domains. Which of these domains are classified as prokaryotes?
Bacteria and Eukarya
Bacteria and Archaea
Bacteria and Fungi
Archaea and Eukarya
A
Bacteria and Archaea
5
Q
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells share certain characteristics EXCEPT
True nucleus
Plasma membrane
DNA
Ribosome
A
True nucleus
6
Q
A Species is…
A
a group of organisms with similar structure, function, and behavior that can interbreed
7
Q
A Genus is…
A
a group of closely related species
8
Q
An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How many unpaired electrons does it have?
A
2
9
Q
What is a common chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?
A
the formation of ionic bonds between monomers
10
Q
How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?
A
4
11
Q
Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?
A
The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
12
Q
Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is true?
-They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
-They are generally solid at room temperature.
-They are more common in plants than in animals.
-They contain fewer hydrogen atoms than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
A
They are generally solid at room temperature.
13
Q
What characteristic of water causes adhesion, cohesion, surface tension, and capillary action?
A
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
14
Q
A hydrogen bond is…
A
a weak bond between a H with a partial (+) charge and an electronegative atom
15
Q
An ionic bond is…
A
formed due to an attraction between opposite charges of an anion and cation
16
Q
A nonpolar covalent bond is
A
electrons equally shared between two atoms
17
Q
Polar covalent bond
A
electrons shared unequally between two atoms
18
Q
Glycosidic bond
A
Bond between carbohydrates monomers
19
Q
Peptide bond
A
bond between amino acid monomers
20
Q
Hydrogenated vegetable oil is solid at room temperature, whereas nonhydrogenated vegetable oil is liquid. What kind of fatty acid is present in Hydrogenated vegetable oil?
A
Saturated Fatty acid
21
Q
Which organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?
A
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
22
Q
In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
A
polar covalent bonds
23
Q
Which of the following is NOT a compound?
carbon dioxide (CO2)
Water (H2O)
Glucose (C6H12O6)
Hydrogen gas (H2)
A
Hydrogen gas (H2)
24
Q
What structural feature makes the 20 common amino acids different from one another?
A
different side chains (R groups) attached to the carbon
25
Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins destined for export from the cell?
rough ER
26
Which type of interaction stabilizes the α helix and the β pleated sheet structures of proteins?
hydrogen bonds
27
Primary protein structure
contain peptide bonds
28
Secondary Protein structure
contains peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds
29
Tertiary Protein structure
contain disulfide bond, ionic bond, peptide
30
Match the following: The symbol of the following element is given. Please identify atomic no. , atomic mass, and neutron no. of the element.
16
O
8
Atomic number: 8
Atomic mass: 16
Neutron number: 8
31
A nucleotide is composed of
a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar.
32
Match the following: The symbol of the following element is given. Please identify proton no., neutron no. and electron no. of the element.
23 1+
Na
11
proton no.: 11
electron no. :10
neutron no. : 12
33
The fluid mosaic model of membrane structure suggests that membranes
are composed of a fluid bilayer of fatty acids with proteins associated on the outer and inner surfaces.
34
Isomers
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structures
35
Hydrocarbons
Organic compounds containing on C and H
36
Organic compound
Compound in which C is covalently bonded to more C's to form backbone of molecule
37
Starch
main energy storage carb for plants
38
Glycogen
main energy storage carb for animals
39
Acids
increases H+ conc. of a solution
40
Which drawing in Figure 2.3 is of the electron configuration of a sodium 11Na+ ion?
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/assessment_questions/4542419/files/6370646/download?verifier=Bkso5ruhZKqtIGODUVofW4qrL68WgHuegDPyJz7v
E
41
Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. In animal cells, which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes?
lysosomes
42
Which of the following regulates passage of materials into & out of cell?
plasma membrane
43
A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, chloroplasts, and mitochondria. It could be
a plant cell but not an animal cell.
44
In an animal cell, DNA may be found in which of the following organelles?
only in the nucleus and mitochondria
45
Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?
chloroplast
46
Which structure is common to both plant and animal cells?
mitochondrion
47
Which structure-function pair is mismatched?
-Golgi; protein trafficking
-ribosome; protein synthesis
-nucleolus; production of ribosomal RNA
-microtubule; muscle contraction
microtubule; muscle contraction
48
Which of the following molecules would you expect to diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?
O 2(small on bottom)
49
Which of the following molecules is/are blocked through the plasma membrane?
-Larger molecules
-Most polar molecules
-Most ions
-All of the above
-None of the above
All off the above
50
Which of the following is required for the sodium-potassium pump to transport potassium ions into an animal cell?
energy from ATP
51
Carrier Protein binds to molecule, changes shape, allows material to cross while Channel Protein forms channels through
membrane. (T/F?)
True
52
Active Transport involves
movement of molecules against concentration gradient
53
Passive Transport involves
movement of molecules down concentration gradient
54
Hyper-tonic Solution causes
Cell to shrink
55
Hypo-tonic Solution causes
Cell to swell
56
Identify and compare the properties of the bond between sodium and chloride (NaCl) with the bond between oxygen and hydrogen in water (H2O).
The bond in **NaCl** is an **ionic bond**, where sodium gives an electron to chlorine, forming oppositely charged ions that stick together. In **H₂O**, the bond is **polar covalent**, where oxygen and hydrogen share electrons unevenly, making the molecule slightly charged on each end. NaCl forms a solid crystal, while H₂O forms liquid molecules that can stick together through hydrogen bonding.
57
Use the cell diagram to answer the following questions. (1) In the figure, what organelle is represented by D, and what is the primary function of that organelle? (2) What organelle is represented by F, and what is its primary function?
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8122791/preview
Organelle D is the rough ER and its job is to synthesis proteins and organelle F is the Mitochondria and its main job is to make energy and is the main site for cellular respiration.
58
Give an example of any recent microorganism which has evolved through natural selection from the broad real-world scenario?
Covid has evolved through natural selection in order to try and survive.
59
The mitotic spindle is made of
microtubules
60
Cytokinesis generally begins.
Telophase
61
Chromatin condenses
Prophase
62
Chromosomes decondense
Telophase
63
Sister chromatids separate at their centromeres.
anaphase
64
Mitotic spindle forms
prophase
65
Chromosomes align at the cell’s midplane
metaphase
66
Homologous chromosomes undergo synapsis
Prophase 1
67
Sister chromatids separate and chromosomes move to opposite poles.
anaphase 2
68
Tetrads line up at the cell equator.
metaphase 1
69
Nuclear envelope forms around single-stranded chromosomes.
telophase 2
70
Homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles.
anaphase 1
71
crossing-over occurs
prophase 1
72
Mendel’s principle of segregation states that
alleles separate from each other before forming gametes
73
A tomato plant with the genotype Bb can produce gametes containing
either B or b
74
Which of the following represents the possible genotype(s) resulting from a cross between a heterozygous individual (Bb) and one that is homozygous (bb)?
Bb and bb
75
Alternative forms of a gene are called ___________.
alleles
76
A heterozygous fruit fly with normal wings and a gray body (VvBb) is crossed with homozygous flies with vestigial wings and black bodies (vvbb). This type of cross is known as a
dihybrid cross
77
An organism with the genotype of MmYy can produce gametes containing ____ if the two genes are unlinked.
MY, My, mY, or my
78
When true breeding red tulips are crossed with true breeding white tulips, the progeny have pink flowers. This is an example of
incomplete dominance
79
A gene that affects, prevents, or masks the expression of a gene at another locus is a(n) ____ gene.
epistatic
80
Aneuploidy results from nondisjunction - abnormal meiotic division where homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate. This may happen in which phase/phases of Meiosis?
Both Anaphase I and Anaphase II
81
Polygenic Inheritance
when multiple genes have an additive effect on one phenotype
82
Multiple Alleles
often within a population (not an individual) more than two alleles can exist for a single gene
83
Codominance
when the heterozygote expressed by both phenotypes
84
Pleiotropy
when one gene has multiple effects
85
What are the possible phenotypes of the children if the mother has Type AA blood and the father has type AB blood? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)
50% A, 50% AB
86
What are the possible phenotypes of the children if the mother has Type O blood and the father has type AB blood? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)
50% A, 50% B
87
What are the predicted phenotypes of the children from a union of a woman who is homozygous for hemophilia and a man who is normal? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.
50% hemophilia, 50% Normal
88
Trisomy Down syndrome
Three copies of chromosomes 21
89
Translocation Down syndrome
chromosomes 14 breaks off and attaches to chromosomes 21
90
Cri-du-chat syndrome
Deletion of chromosome 5 short arm
91
Klinefelter syndrome
One extra X chromosomes
92
Turner syndrome
One less sex chromosome
93
Genes A and B have a recombination rate of 10%, and Genes A and C have a recombination rate of 6%
How many map units apart are A & B?
10 map units
94
Genes A and B have a recombination rate of 10%, and Genes A and C have a recombination rate of 6%
How many map units apart are A & C?
6 map units
95
Genes A and B have a recombination rate of 10%, and Genes A and C have a recombination rate of 6%
Which gene is in the middle if B & C are 16 map units apart?
A
96
Genes A and B have a recombination rate of 10%, and Genes A and C have a recombination rate of 6%
Which is in the middle if B and C are 4 map units apart?
C
97
Linked genes are tend to be inherited together (T/F?)
True
98
Both Mitosis and Meiosis happens in both somatic cells and germ cells. (T/F?)
False
99
Chromosome duplication happens in which phage of cell cycle?
S phase
100
Hemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. Assume that a man with hemophilia marries a phenotypically normal woman whose father had hemophilia ( Also, called carrier woman). What is the probability that their son will have hemophilia? (Use the Punnett square to verify your answer.)
50%
101
Human has 23 pairs of chromosomes, how many possible combinations of gametes can be produced by the random lining up of pairs in meiosis (Independent Assortment)?
8388608
102
To prevent disastrous consequences, the eukaryotic cell cycle is controlled by
a series of cell cycle checkpoints
103
In the accompanying figure, which combination of letters accurately represents two sister chromatids?
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8465127/preview
A and C
104
Which phase of cell division is depicted in the accompanying figure?
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8465138/preview
Prophase I of meiosis
105
If gametes were produced by mitosis, how would this affect chromosome number in the offspring?
The chromosome number would double in each generation.
106
An animal with a diploid number of 30 chromosomes will have ____ chromosomes in its gametes and ____ chromosomes in its somatic cells.
15, 30
107
Breeding an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual reveals the genotype of unknown organism. It is called _________
Test cross
108
Phenotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals
3:1
109
Phenotypic ratio of Dihybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals
9:3:3:1
110
Phenotypic ratio of Epistasis
9:3:4
111
The physical appearance of an organism for a given trait is known as
Phenotype
112
(1) Write the difference between Mitosis and Meiosis.
(2) We know the fusion of gametes (fertilization) introduces genetic variation. How does the production of gametes introduce genetic variation?
(1) Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, used for growth and repair. Meiosis produces four genetically different gametes with half the number of chromosomes, used for sexual reproduction.
(2) During meiosis, genetic variation is introduced through crossing over (exchange of DNA between chromosomes) and independent assortment (random distribution of chromosomes). These processes ensure each gamete has a unique combination of genes.
113
Write short notes on
(1) Incomplete dominance
(2) Pleiotropy
(1) Incomplete dominance:
Incomplete dominance is a type of inheritance where neither allele is completely dominant, resulting in a blend of traits in the offspring. For example, crossing red and white flowers may produce pink flowers.
(2) Pleiotropy:
Pleiotropy occurs when one gene influences multiple, seemingly unrelated traits. An example is the gene responsible for sickle cell anemia, which affects both red blood cell shape and resistance to malaria.
114
Why is DNA packaging important in eukaryotes? How is DNA packaged into eukaryotic cells?
DNA packaging is important to ensure they get all the information they need fitted into the nucleus. DNA is packaged around histone to ensure it fits.
115
The organization of the lac operon, from upstream to downstream sequences, is represented by:
promoter -> operator -> lacZ -> lacY -> lac A
116
Refer to the accompanying figure. The area of the tryptophan operon labeled as 3 is the:
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/assessment_questions/2997553/files/3946704/download?verifier=UT1yv1eZhz7s7P0ymmKXKLLS93wPWmRGRqWHrKh2
operator
117
The promoter in the accompanying figure is labeled as ____.
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/assessment_questions/2997553/files/3946704/download?verifier=UT1yv1eZhz7s7P0ymmKXKLLS93wPWmRGRqWHrKh2
2
118
Refer to the accompanying figure. The structure labeled as 8 in the figure of the tryptophan operon is a(n):
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/assessment_questions/2997553/files/3946704/download?verifier=UT1yv1eZhz7s7P0ymmKXKLLS93wPWmRGRqWHrKh2
Polycistronic mRNA
119
In an inducible operon, the ____ is the molecular switch that controls gene expression, while the ____ is the DNA region where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.
operator; promoter
120
_____ is densely staining, highly compacted, and transcriptionally inactive region of chromatin.
Heterochromatin
121
Genes in euchromatic regions are:
transcriptionally active
122
Which of the following statements concerning DNA is FALSE?
The sugar present in DNA is ribose
123
Hydrogen bonds can form between ____ and cytosine, and between adenine and ____.
guanine; thymine
124
Which of the following DNA sequence represents the complement to the mRNA strand, 5′-AUGAGATCCG-3′?
3′-TACTCTAGGC-5′
125
_____ bonds link the sugar and phosphate groups in the backbone of DNA molecules.
Covalent phosphodiester
126
In one DNA molecule, 20% is Adenine (A), how many % of Guanine (G) is present in that DNA? (Hint: apply Chargaff's rule)
30%
127
The ends of eukaryotic chromosomes can be lengthened by
telomerase
128
DNA helicase
Breaks down H bonds between nucleotides
129
Primase
synthesizes primers
130
DNA polymerase
needs primer to synthesize DNA in a 5' to 3' direction
131
RNA polymerase
binds to promoter and synthesize RNA in a 5' to 3' direction
132
In the accompanying figure, the portion of the molecule containing the anticodon is indicated by the label:
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8490457/preview
3
133
Refer to the accompanying figure. The portion of the molecule labeled as 5 is:
https://utchattanooga.instructure.com/courses/41270/files/8490457/preview
The attached amino acid
134
RNA is ____ and contains the nitrogenous base ____, which is absent in DNA
single stranded; uracil
135
A ____ mutation results in the conversion of a codon specifying an amino acid to a termination codon
nonsense
136
During translocation, the movement of the ribosome repositions the tRNA linked to the growing polypeptide chain to the ____ site, thereby vacating the ____ site for the arrival of a new amino-acyl tRNA
P;A
137
Frameshift mutations result from the
insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs
138
Which strand will RNAP use as a template to build the mRNA molecule?
5’ -----ATGGATAGGCTTCG-----3’
3’ -----TACCTATCCGAAGC-----5’
3’ -----TACCTATCCGAAGC-----5’
139
Undifferentiated cells that can divide and specialize to form a variety of different cells are called:
Stem Cells
140
Which of the following statement is False regarding the Germ Layer?
Endoderm – liver
Endoderm – pancreas
Endoderm – kidney
Ectoderm – neurons, skin, retina
Mesoderm – blood, bone
Endoderm – kidney
141
Cloning mammals has proven to be:
a process with a low success rate and a high incidence of genetic defects
142
Zygote is pluripotent stem cell, while Embryonic stem cells and Adult stem cells are totipotent stem cells (T/F?)
False
143
Totipotent nuclei are capable of:
directing normal development of an organism
144
Evolution is genetic change in ____ that occurs over time.
a population
145
Overproduction, variation, limits on population growth, and differential reproductive success are all components of:
evolution by natural selection
146
Which process provides the genetic variability that natural selection acts on during evolution?
mutation
147
Which example best illustrates homoplasy?
-shark fins and dog tails
-whale fins and bat wings
-bird wings and insect wings
-cactus spine and pea tendril
bird wings and insect wings
148
What is the evolutionary relationship between a human arm and a cat’s forelimb?
They are homologous structures
149
mRNA carries
codon
150
tRNA carries
anticodon
151
Primary Protein structure contains
peptide bonds
152
secondary protein structure contains
peptide and hydrogen bonds
153
Which of the following is Not a component of a nucleotide
-Pentose sugar
-Phosphate group
-Nitrogenous bases
-amino acid
amino acid
154
In DNA, ______________________are needed for maintaining the structural integrity whereas _____________________ contain the genetic material.
sugar-phosphate backbones, nitrogenous bases
155
Induced pluripotent stem cells are
pluripotent cells resulting from reprogramming of differentiated cells
156
Totipotent are
stem cells that have the potential to give rise to all parts of an organism
157
Endoderm germ layer contains
linings, liver, pancreas
158
Mesoderm germ layer contains
blood, bone, muscle, kidney
159
Ectodern germ layer contains
neurons, skin, retina
160
Pluripotent are
stem cells that have the potential to give rise to many, but not all types of cells of an organism
161
Methylation of DNA & histones...
prevents transcription by packing DNA so tight that it is inaccessible
162
Acetylation of histones...
Activates transcription by loosening chromatin so DNA is accessible for transcription
163
Activators are...
Transcription factor protein that bind to DNA sequences called 'enhancers' to initiate transcription
164
Repressors are...
Transcription factor protein that bind to DNA sequences called 'silencers' to stop transcription
165
Primase...
adds RNA primer
166
Helicase
unzip the long DNA molecule by breaking H bonds
167
SSB (single-strand binding) proteins
bind to/stabilize DNA to prevent double helix from re-forming until strands are replicated
168
DNA polymerase
always adds new nucleotide to 3' end, so always grows 5' to 3' direction
169
DNA ligase
“grows” DNA segments together (links Okazaki fragments)
170
In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus while translation occurs in the cytoplasm (T/F?)
True
