Final Flashcards
(224 cards)
1
Q
Which nerve provides motor innervation to the cricothyroid muscle?
A
A. External branch of the SLN
2
Q
A hypotensive pt with CAD that receives
phenylephrine for hypotension will have what response to cardiac output?
A
A. decreased
3
Q
Deep extubation provides significant
benefits to pts with:
A
CAD
4
Q
Nuclear receptors are found:
A
intracellular
5
Q
This nerve provides sensory innervation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue and anterior side of epiglottis:
A
A. glossopharyngeal
6
Q
Which route provides the fastest onset of
succinylcholine if your pt is exhibiting laryngospasm and your IV access is lost?
A
A. submental
7
Q
The landmark for a SLN block is the:
A
A. greater cornu of the hyoid
8
Q
Stimulation of alpha2 receptors produces (2):
A
A. hyperglycemia
B. analgesia
9
Q
Beta blockers (2) with significant lipid solubility
and hepatic metabolism include :
A
A. labetolol
B. propranolol
10
Q
The primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord is:
A
A. glycine
11
Q
Following induction of general anesthesia,
initial intubation and masking are both unsuccessful. You have called for help. What is the next step?
A
A. place a supraglottic airway
12
Q
Match the muscle to the action when a pt
takes a spontaneous breath:
Hyoid; genioglossus; tensor palatine.
Opens the nasopharynx / opens the hypopharynx / opens the oropharynx
A
A. hyoid - opens the hypopharynx
B. genioglossus - opens the oropharynx
C. tensor palatine - opens the nasopharynx
13
Q
The immediate treatment for dynamic
hyperinflation (auto-PEEP) includes:
A
A. disconnecting the pt from the ventilator
14
Q
The most common arterial blood gas finding in asthmatic patients:
A
A. respiratory alkalosis with hypocarbia
15
Q
How can innominate artery compression be detected during monitoring (2)?
A
A. use non-invasive BP cuff on the left upper extremity
B. place an A-line on the right upper extremity
16
Q
Carbon monoxide poisoning is treated with:
A
A. oxygen
17
Q
The adrenal medulla is responsible for the secretion of:
A
A. catecholamines
18
Q
Small airways close sooner during
expiration in pts with what conditions (2)?
A
A. pregnancy
B. extreme age
19
Q
Advancing the needle in a caudal direction during a transtracheal recurrent laryngeal nerve block is performed to:
A
A. reduce the risk of vocal cord injury
20
Q
The 2 primary physiological roles of vasopressin include:
A
A. regulating osmolar balance
B. water retention through V2 receptors
21
Q
Two diagnostic findings associated with the
exudative stage of ARDS includes:
A
A. hypoxemia despite increased supplemental oxygen
B. bilateral alveolar infiltrates on chest xray
22
Q
Match LMA size with largest ETT in mm
A. LMA size 1 -
B. LMA size 1.5 -
C. LMA size 3 -
D. LMA size 5 -
A
A. LMA size 1 - 3.5mm
B. LMA size 1.5 - 4.0mm
C. LMA size 3 - 6.0mm
D. LMA size 5 - 7.0mm
23
Q
Which best explains the mechanism behind
hypertension in Cushings triad?
A
A. increased intracranial pressure
24
Q
A vasopressor that reduces renal blood flow while significantly increasing MAP is:
A
A. NE
25
Epi and NE undergo metabolism through
enzymatic pathways that involve:
A. monoamine oxidase
B. catechol-O-methyl transferase
26
Which ion gated channel is not affected by opioid-activated G protein signaling?
A. chloride
27
The autonomic nervous system most often
utilizes what neurotransmitters (2)?
A. NE
B. ACh
28
The narrowest part of the pediatric airway
which may stretch a small amount is:
A. vocal cords
29
A muscarinic antagonist that can increase heart rate without causing significant sedation due to its inability to cross the blood brain barrier is:
A. glycopyrrolate
30
Match each Cormack and Lehane grade
with its corresponding clinical description
A. Grade 4 -
B. Grade 3 -
C. Grade 2B -
D. Grade 2A -
A. Grade 4 - soft palate only visible
B. Grade 3 - epiglottis only visible
C. Grade 2B - corniculate cartilages and
posterior vocal cords
D. Grade 2A - posterior region of the
glottic opening visible
31
How would the administration of nitrous
oxide affect a pneumothorax?
A. increase
32
Match each laryngeal muscle with its action on the vocal cords: elongates, abducts, shortens, adducts.
A. posterior criocarytenoid -
B. lateral cricoarytenoid -
C. thyroarytenoid -
D. cricothyroid -
A. **p**osterior **c**rioc**a**rytenoid - abducts
B. **l**ateral **c**ricoary**t**enoid - adducts
C. thyroarytenoid - shortens
D. **c**rico**t**hyroid - elongates
33
A major reason isoproterenol is rarely used
in clinical practice today is:
A. its potent B1 and B2 activity can cause
significant tachyarrhythmias
34
Which accurately describes the role of the
nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS) in the baroreceptor reflex?
A. it receives afferent signals from the carotid sinus and aortic arch barorecptors
35
You are asked to calculate the quantity of O2 delivered to the tissues. Which value are you being asked for?
A. DO2
36
Chemoreceptors in what location are the
primary monitor of PaCO2?
A. medulla
37
Dopamine metabolism differs from Epi and NE by:
A. producing homovanillic acid as its end product
38
Stellate ganglion blockade is a common consequence of what block?
A. brachial plexus
39
V2 receptor activation by vasopressin causes water reabsorption in what part of the kidney?
A. collecting duct
40
A brainstem structure that inhibits the dorsal
respiratory group and shortens the duration of inspiration is:
A. pneumotaxic center
41
When carbon dioxide is produced from
aerobic metabolism it is primarily buffered as?
bicarbonate
42
Which beta-blockers (2) have an additional alpha-adrenergic blocking activity:
A. carvedilol
B. labetalol
43
A potential downside of repeated ephedrine
administration is:
A. depletion of NE stores leading to tachyphylaxis
44
Three strategies that effectively manage
anesthesia-induced atelectasis include:
A. alveolar recruitment maneuvers
B. PEEP
C. PIP of 40cm H20 for 8 seconds
45
The CCB that provides the strongest suppression of SA/AV node:
A. Verapamil
46
The mandibular protrusion test evaluates the function of which joint?
A. Temporomandibular joint
47
These medications (2) donate nitric oxide
directly to the smooth muscle cells:
A. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride)
B. isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)
48
The triad known as the Bezold-Jarich reflex includes:
A. hypotension
B. bradycardia
C. coronary artery dilation
49
During one-lung ventilation, your patient becomes hypoxemic despite an FiO2 of 100%. Your next intervention is to:
A. insufflate O2 through a suction catheter
50
The HPV response can be imparied under
certain conditions (2). Factors that reduce this response include:
A. carotid endarterectomy
B. sub-anesthetic doses of volatile
anesthetics
51
A patient undergoing surgery for pheochromocytoma suddenly develops severe hypotension after tumor ligation. Which treatment is best?
A. phenylephrine - direct
52
Dysphonia, laryngeal muscle myopathy, and
oropharyngeal candidiasis are adverse effects of:
A. Fluticasone
53
Diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is made
through elevated urine concentrations of:
A. vanillymandelic acid
54
Two factors that increase FRC include:
A. sitting
C. sigh breaths.... this was the correct answer
55
What is the only region of the body that responds to hypoxia by vasoconstricting?
A. pulmonary vascular beds
56
The abrupt d/c of dexmedetomidine could
cause:
A. rebound tachycardia
57
The adrenal medulla functions are part of the SNS by:
A. releasing Epi and NE into the bloodstream
58
Which of the following interventions is contraindicated in phenylephrine OD?
A. beta antagonists
59
A rapid increase in venous return triggers
which response in the Bainbridge reflex?
A. direct stimulation of the SA node to
increase HR
60
The vocal cords attach to what two points?
A. posteriorly to the arytenoids
B. anteriorly to the thyroid
61
Biogenic amine NT include (2):
A. dopamine
B. histamine
62
Turning the pt to the left lateral decubitus
position when a venous air embolism is suspected is known as what manuever?
A. Durant
63
In the periphery, NE is released onto what
neuron?
A. postganglionic sympathetic
64
What is the IM dose of succ to treat laryngospasm for a 15kg toddler?
A. 60
65
Which best describes the afferent and efferent pathways of the oculocardiac reflex?
A. afferent: CN V (trigeminal)
B. efferent: CN V (vagus)
66
How does the adrenal medulla differ from a
typical sympathetic ganglion (2)?
A. it releases catecholamines into the
bloodstream
B. it lacks postganglionic sympathetic
neurons
67
Increases in cAMP is the 2nd messenger for
all types of which receptor?
A. beta
68
Applying a PIP of 40cmH20 for 8 seconds during an alveolar recruitment maneuver primarily accounts for:
A. complete reversal of anesthesia- induced atelectasis
69
An increase in PaCO2 leads to an increase in minute ventilation within the range of:
A. 20-80mmHg
70
What physiologic changes (2) result from
baroreceptor activation due to increased MAP?
A. increased vagal stimulation to the SA node
B. decreased systemic vascular resistance
71
What are effects (2) of phenoxybenzamine on the cardiovascular system?
A. risk of orthostatic hypotension due to alpha1 blockade
B. reflex tachycardia resulting from baroreceptor activation
72
A pt has a tidal volume of 600mL, dead space of 150mL, and RR of 12. What is the alveolar ventilation?
A. 5400 (Vt - Vd) x RR
73
The Bohr effect states hemoglobin will
release O2 related to what factors (2)?
A. decreased pH
B. increased PaCO2
74
A drug that can be used to increase the HR of a transplanted heart is:
A. isoproterenol (isuprel)
75
Physiological effects of Hering-Breuer Inflation Reflex include (2):
A. inhibition of the dorsal respiratory
center
B. termination of inspiration
76
The most sensitive monitor of venous air embolism is:
A. TEE
77
Vasopressin administration is expected to result in (2):
A. decreased PVR
B. increase SVR
78
Increased catecholamine release and adenosine receptor inhibition are mechanisms of action associated with:
A. theophylline
79
The function of an effector is to:
A. activate second messengers
80
match the laryngeal muscles to their
classification/purpose: intrinsic & extrinsic
A. participates in phonation -
B. controls position of cords -
C. assists with swallowing -
D. supports inside the neck -
A. participates in phonation - intrinsic
B. controls position of cords - intrinsic
C. assists with swallowing - extrinsic
D. supports inside the neck - extrinsic
81
Absolute indications of OLV include (2):
A. massive hemorrhage
B. bronchopleural fistula
82
What are the three anesthetic considerations for pts with pulmonary HTN?
A. prevent sudden decrease in preload
B. avoid high PEEP during mechanical ventilation
C. treat elevated RAP
83
This maneuver is one suggested method to break laryngospasm:
A. Larson
84
Which three characteristics describe the non-
dependent lung region in the lateral position?
A. increased V/Q ratio
B. higher alveolar oxygen tension
C. higher vascular resistance
85
These two features describe apoptosis:
A. plasma membrane intact
B. genetically programmed
86
A postganglionic fiber in the SNS is (3):
A. long
B. unmyelinated
C. C fibers
87
Phosphodiasterase 3 inhibitors are primarily
used in the treatment of:
A. cardiac failure
88
Significant alpha2 block has occured in your pt. Which could worsen the resulting hypotension?
A. Epi
89
Match the types of energy transfers with their descriptions:
Conduction, convection, evaporation, radiation:
A. movement of matter from one location to another=
B. transfer of heat by phase change of a substance=
C. heat transfer involving electromagnetic waves=
D. involved direct contact atoms or molecules collide=
A. convection - movement of matter from one location to another
B. evaporation - transfer of heat by phase change of a substance
C. radiation - heat transfer involving electromagnetic waves
D. conduction - involved direct contact atoms or molecules collide
90
Which two treatments are most effective in managing a severe oculocardiac reflex episode?
A. asking the surgeon to remove the stimulus
B. administering 100% O2 and ensuring adequate ventilation
91
Select three features commonly associated with Trisomy 21 (down syndrome) that complicate airway management:
A. small subglottic diameter
B. large tongue
C. atlantoaxial instability
92
Considering the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, the safest paralytic to intubate with is?
A. vecuronium
93
A drug that can cause bronchoconstriction
in asthmatic pts by mimicking the action of prostaglandin is?
A. carboprost
94
In obstructive lung diseases, pulmonary
function changes include decreased (3):
A. FEV1
B. FEF 25-75%
C. FEV1/FVC ratio
95
Two physiologic responses cause by endogenous catecholamines includes:
A. bronchodilation
B. glycogenolysis
96
The Bezold-Jarisch reflex results in which two physiological changes?
A. decreased AV node conduction velocity
B. decreased HR due to enhanced vagal
activation
97
Which preoperative pharmocologic strategy for pts with pheochromocytoma is most appropriate?
A. alpha-block before beta-block
98
Two physiologic effects of beta adrenergic antagonists include:
A. decreased myocardial O2 consumption
B. prevention of SVT
99
When preforming a glossophyarngeal nerve block, aspiration of blood means what vessel is nearby?
A. carotid
100
Pulmonary immune function improves at least how long after smoking cessation?
A. 6 weeks
101
IABP is contraindicated in which valvular disease?
Aortic insufficiency
102
Two conditions that increase the risk of fetal ion trapping when administering LA include:
1) Maternal alkalosis
2) fetal acidosis from hypoxia
103
A finding specific for cardiac tamponade rather than pericardial effusion is:
Pulsus paradoxus > 10 mmHg during inspiration
104
Which 3 mechanisms contribute to blood pressure reduction by beta-1-selective antagonists?
1) Reduced chronotropy
2) Decreased renin release
3) Reduced inotropy
105
A Pt is undergoing a TAVR with a Sapian valve. Which two anesthetic considerations should be taken during deployment?
1) apnea
2) prophylactic vasopressors
106
Which two electrolyte abnormalities enhance neuromuscular blockade?
Hypocalcemia
Hypermagnesemia
107
When ACh binds to two alpha subunits on its receptor, what ion flow initiates contraction?
Sodium
108
To redfuce muscarinic side effects during neuromuscular reversal with neostigmine, the drug most appropriately paired is:
Glycopyrrolate
109
Two risk factors of propofol infusion syndrome are:
1) sepsis
2) infusion > 48 hrs
110
If only 12.5% of the original IV drug remains, how many half-lives have elapsed?
3
111
Desflurane-induced tachycardia is most likely attributed to?
Pulmonary irritation triggering sympathetic activation
112
ketamine should be avoided in patients with a history of?
Acute intermittent porphyria
113
Plavix should be discontinued how many days prior to an elective surgery?
7
114
A drug with a narrow therapeutic index may require (2)?
1) more frequent plasma drug level monitoring
2) individualized dose titration to maintain safety
115
If propofol is removed from the vial into a syringe, the syringe must be discarded within how many hours?
6
116
Two Effects of mu receptor stimulation include:
1) physical dependance
2) bradycardia
117
Max is diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Two things which worsen his symptoms are?
Hypovolemia
2) light anesthesia
118
Which two valvular issues are accompanied by a diastolic murmur?
1) mitral stenosis
2) aortic regurgitation
119
Phase I block following administration of a depolarizing muscle relaxants show (2):
1) absence of fade
2) no post-tetanic potentiation
120
What 2 factors directly prolong the duration of LA?
1) High-protein binding
2) Adding Vasoconstrictors
121
A Pt had a TAVR and now shows ST elevation on the EKG. What is the most likely cause?
Coronary artery occlusion by the valve
122
In a Pt with critical aortic stenosis, which muscle relaxant is ideal?
Cisatracurium (NImbex)
123
Order the potency of opioids from most to least: morphine, fentanyl, dilauded, sufentanil, remifentanil
Sufentanil, Fentanyl, Remifentanil, Hydromorphone, Morphine
124
What 2 things explain Chloroprocaine's rapid onset?
1) large dose creates a mass effect
2) It's administered in a high concentration
125
What is the ideal NDMB for someone with renal disease?
atracurium (tracrium)
126
A drug with a volume distribution that is leass than total body water is:
hydrophilic
127
Which 2 findings are consistent with the pressure-volume loop in cardiac tamponade?
1) Leftward shift of pressure-volume loop
2) decreased stroke volume
128
In healthy patients, opioids often cause:
bradycardia
129
A drug is highly bound to plasma proteins will most likely:
Remain confined to the vascular space, prolonging its half-life
130
What are 3 alternatives to amoxicillin in a Pt with a PCN allergy, undergoing procedures requiring infective endocarditis prophylaxis?
1) Clarithromycin 500 mg
2) CLindamycin 600 mg
3) Azizthromycin 500 mg
131
A finding most consistent with chronic systolic failure includes:
Increased end-diastolic volume
132
A burn Pt is at risk for Scc-induced hyperkalemia because:
Extrajunctional receptors allow prolonged ion channel opening
133
Adrenocortical suppression following etomidate administration leads to which physiologic consequences (2)?
1) Inability to maintain stress response during illness
2) Impaired vascular tonedue to reduced cortisol availability
134
A Pt receiving a toxic dose of a LA should receive:
20% lipid emulsion
135
2 drugs that primarily influence the modulation phase of pain processing?
1) NMDA antagonists
2) alpha-2 agonists
136
The X-axis of the dose-response curve describes?
The number of occupied receptors
137
Which bedside test is the best indicator of readiness to extubate following NMBD reversal?
Inspiratory force
138
Which 2 drugs inhibit AChE through carbamyl ester formation?
1) Pyridostigmine
2) Neostigmine
139
Following TAVR, which parameters increase?
Stroke volume
140
What is Phase 2 of drug metabolims?
Conjugation
141
Which clinical feature most strongly suggests constrictive pericarditis rather than acute pericarditis?
Kussmaul's sign
142
Right subclavian steal syndrome reduces:
cerebral perfusion
143
Match the following:
Sodium nitroprusside, hydralaine, NTG
reduces afterload, reduces preload, reduces preload & afterload
1) nitroprusside- reduces both
2) NTG - reduces preload
3) hydralazine - reduces afterload
144
Pts with coronary stents, unless absolutely necessary, ASA should be:
Continued through the perioperative period
145
Which LA has the highest likelihood of successful resuscitation following cardiac arrest?
Lidocaine
146
What is the clinical implication of giving Scc after neostigmine?
Prolonged duration of Scc due to enzyme inhibition
147
A Pt under VA develops steady increase in PaCO2, despite an elevated RR. The best explanation for this pattern involves?
Increased dead space to tidal volume ratio from shallow breathing
148
Which 2 features describe the inhibition mechanism of neostigmine?
1) Formation of a reversible carbamyl ester complex
2) Competitive binding
149
Ingestion of cranberry juice with help eliminate?
Basic drugs
150
When facing increased afterload from a stenotic valve, the LV is likely to show (2)?
1) Sarcomere replication in parallel
2) Increased wall stress during systole
151
Phase 2 drug reactions produce drugs that are?
Water soluble
152
A Pt receiving a drug that follows zero order kinetics, the amount of drug eliminated per hour will?
stay constant regardless of plasma concentration
153
Which opioids (2) produce an active metabolite?
Morphine & codeine
154
A LA with high lipid solubility is expected to?
Cross nerve membranes more efficiently
155
A molecule that containes 2 enantiomers in equal amounts?
Is racemic
156
Concentric hypertrophy is characterized by (2)?
1) thick ventricular walls
2) stenotic valves
157
What 2 effects align with etomidate's action on the CNS?
1) Reduces cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen
2) Maintains stable cerebral perfusion pressure
158
Severe mitral stenosis can alter the conducting system and cause what dysrhythmia?
Atrial fibrillation
159
A Pt develops LV hypertrophy in response to chronic pressure overload. This hypertrophy is best explained by which structural adaptations?
Parallel replication of sarcomeres with wall thickening
160
What 2 mechanisms contribute to diffusion hypoxia immediately following discontinuation of nitrous oxide?
1) Providing 100% oxygen mitigates alveolar dilution during early elimination phase
2) Transfer of storeed nitrous oxide back to alveoli displaces oxygen & CO2
161
What 2 characteristics most closely associateed with leftward shift of a dose-response curve?
1) Increased receptor affinity
2) Lower required dose
162
Priming the CV bypass pump with balanced salt solution causes?
Hemodilution
163
Drugs like warfarin that undergo enterohepatic circulation have what type of effect?
Long duration
164
The most abundant plasma protein is?
Albumin
165
Alkalization speeds the onset of a LA by:
Increasing the number of lipid-soluble molecules
166
The best place to measure readiness to intubate is:
Orbicularis oculi
167
Mixing propofol and lidocaine into the same syringe is controversial due to possible:
microemboli
168
A LA with high lipid solubility is expected to:
Cross nerve membranes more efficiently
169
Which 2 drugs are known to release histamine & may cause CV changes if administered rapidly?
1) Atracurium
2) Mivacurium
170
In a critically ill patient with low serum albumin, a highly protein-bound acidic drug would:
exhibit increased free fraction & potentially increased drug effect
171
The slower rate of rise in the Fa/Fi ratio of desflurane in the presence of a right-to-left cardiac shunt occurs primarily because:
desflurane is poorly soluble & experiences minimal uptake
172
Which 3 anesthetic considerations are appropriate in a Pt undergoing pericardiectomy for constrictive pericarditis?
1) Use pancuronium to preserve HR
2) administer opioids & etomidate for induction
3) Use ketamine to maintain contractility
173
A dose-response curve with a steep slope suggests?
Most receptors must be occupied before an effect is seen
174
Following the administration of Scc, extrajunctional receptors can cause?
Hyperkalemia
175
Muscle rigidity after rapid opioid administration is most accurately explained by:
central mu receptor activation in the CNS
176
The anesthetic plan for a Pt with mitral insufficiency includes (3):
1) IV fluid boluses
2) vasodilators
3) Maintain NSR
177
Which classification of LA are most likely to exhibit allergic reactions?
Esters
178
The ED50 represents the dose at which:
half the population experiences the intended clinical effect
179
The increase in alveolar concentration of isoflurance during co-administration with nitrous oxide occurs because?
Uptake of nitrous oxide concentrates isoflurane by reducing alveolar volume
180
Pseudocholinesterase metabolizes (2):
1) ester LA
2) Mivacurium (mivacron)
181
Inducers of CYP450 system cause (2):
1) a decrease in drug plasma level
2) synthesis of additional enzyme
182
Isoflurane is associated with which CV effects (2)
1) Most potent coronary artery vasodilator
2) Dose-dependent decrease in myocardial contractility
183
What are the 3 physiologic responses mediated by Mu opioid receptor activation:
1) bradycardia
2) Respiratory depression
3) Miosis
184
the fast recovery profile of remimazolam is primarily explained by:
Rapid clearance via plasma esterase metabolism
185
Lipophilic drugs which have not undergone transformation will be:
Reabsorbed by diffusion
186
First order kinetics exists when (2):
1) a constant fraction per unit of time is metabolized
2) there is less drug than enzyme
187
how does pancuronium affect HR during administration?
It blocks M2 receptors & increases HR
188
According to ACC/AHA guidelines, which Pt is most appropriate for Abx prophylaxis against infective endocarditis prior to a dental procedure gingival manipulation?
A Pt with a prosthetic heart valve
189
Which are 2 contraindications to Scc due to risk of life-threatening hyperkalemia?
1) severe sepsis
2) tetanus
190
Which 3 correctly describe key steps in the nitric oxide-mediated vasodilation pathway?
1) Nitric oxide synthetase catalyzes teh converion of L-arginine to nitric oxide
2) Nitric oxide diffuses from the endothelium into smooth muscle
3) Cyclic GMP leads to decreased intracellular calcium
191
The intrathecal use of neostigmine has been associated with which clinical effects (2)?
1) Delayed return of motor & sensory function
2) Increased incidence of pruritus & nausea
192
The murmur characteristic that best supports the diagnosis of aortic stenosis is:
systolic murmur radiating to the carotids
193
2 side effects of naloxone administration in a pregnant patient are:
1) infant opioid withdrawal
2) hypertension
194
Cardioplegia contains what electrolyte that arrests the heart?
Potassium
195
During the v wave of the PA catheter what event is occuring?
Right atria is passively filling
196
An adequatee inspiratory effort on inspiration is indicated by the right hemidiaphragm being at what rib?
9
197
A VVi pacemaker, what happens if native activity is sensed?
PPM will NOT fire
198
Which two waveform findings suggest tricuspid regurgitation
1) merged c-v wave
2) large v wave
199
Which factor causes a rightward shift of the oxyhemoglobin curve?
Increased temperature
200
Class 1B antiarrhythmic differs from Class 1A in that it:
produces weak phase 0 depression & shortens phase 3 repolarization
201
Performing a gastric US in the supine position will?
Underestimate gastric volume
202
If desflurane is set at 6%, what % of fresh gas exiting the vaporizer chamber is saturated with desflurane?
100%
203
Which Mapleson lacks both APL & reservoir?
Mapleson E
204
Class 1 subclass, that most strongly depresses phase 0 of the ventricular action potential with little effect on phase 3 is?
1A
205
Which 2 safety mechanisms or practices help prevent cylinder-related accidents?
1) Fusible plug that melts at high temperatures
2) PISS to prevent cylinder misconnection
206
What (2) would cause a large a wave on a CVP waveform?
1) AV dissociation
2) Junctional rhythm
207
A bellows leak can lead to which two complications?
1) barotrauma from increased circuit pressures
2) escape of anesthetic vapor
208
What are the Mapleson circuits with the APL valve near the Pt?
A, B, & C
209
PAOP underestimates LV end-diastolic volume during?
Aortic insufficiency
210
A blood pressure cuff that is too small (2):
1) overestimates systolic BP
2) Potentially damages ulnar or median nerves
211
A DDD pacemaker does what?
Senses both atria & ventricle
212
Where does the transition from intermediate to low-pressure system occur in the anesthesia machine?
At the flowmeter control valve
213
A descending bellows is considered less safe than an ascending design because it will?
Continue to move (fall & rise) even with a circuit disconnect
214
The ion movements in phase 1 of the ventricular action potential is characterized by (2):
1) Cl⁻ influx
2) potassium efflux
215
Match the terms:
- Rad, Rem, Curie, Roentgen
- Unit of occupational radiation exposure; quantity of radiation received; quantity of radioactive material; units of radiation exposure
1) Rad - quantity of radiation received
2) Rem - unit of occupational radiation exposure
3) Curie - quantity of radioactive material
4) Roentgen - Unit of radiation exposure
216
What 2 ventilator modes are best for LMAs?
SIMV & PSV
217
By itself, which is the least helpful test with a nerve stimulator?
Single twitch
218
2 events that are likely to cause a vaporizer pumping effect:
1) oxygen flush valve
2) positive pressure ventilation
219
A distended non-compressible vein on an US should be suspicious for?
DVT
220
2 key features of adenosine are:
1) a plasma half-life of ~ 5 sec
2) a risk of bronchospasm in asthmatics
221
An alpha angle of 125° most likely indicates?
An expiratory airflow obstruction
222
2 normal features of a CXR are:
1) cardiac borders <60% of width of thorax
2) right dome higher than left dome of diaphragm
223
Which antiarrhythmic drug is a prototypical Class 3 agent?
Amiodarone
224
3 equipment-related issues that can cause elevated breathing circuit pressures are:
1) Malfunctioning spill valve
2) Occlusion of breathing circuit by foreign material
3) Failure to remove plastic wrap from CO2 absorber
