Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Med Surg > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

(95 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the normal range for Sodium?

A

136 to 145 mEq/L. Abnormal levels can lead to neurological issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the normal range for Potassium?

A

3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Abnormal levels can cause EKG changes, such as peaked T-waves or ST segment changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the normal range for Calcium?

A

9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL. Important for muscle function and nerve signaling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the normal range for Magnesium?

A

1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L. Plays a role in neuromuscular transmission and muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the normal range for Chloride?

A

98 to 106 mEq/L. Helps maintain osmotic pressure and acid-base balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are first-line medications for hypertension?

A

Diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide, furosemide, and spironolactone are commonly used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why are beta-blockers contraindicated in clients with asthma?

A

Due to potential bronchoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should clients report when taking ACE inhibitors?

A

Clients should report persistent cough.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What should be monitored when using diuretics?

A

Potassium levels; hypokalemia can occur with hydrochlorothiazide and furosemide, while hyperkalemia can occur with spironolactone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are signs of potassium imbalance?

A

Muscle weakness and irregular pulse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should diuretics be taken?

A

Early in the day, with the last dose before 6 PM to prevent nocturia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are common iron supplements for treating iron deficiency anemia?

A

Ferrous sulfate, ferrous fumarate, and ferrous gluconate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does Epoetin alfa do?

A

Stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is Cyanocobalamin important?

A

It is essential for DNA synthesis and red blood cell formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the role of Folic Acid?

A

Important for DNA synthesis and cell division, especially in pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are symptoms of dehydration?

A

Thirst, dry mouth, decreased urination, fatigue, and dizziness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What nursing actions are required for hypovolemic shock?

A

Administering oxygen, monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes, and providing fluid replacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What types of fluids are used for fluid replacement?

A

Colloids (whole blood, packed RBCs) and crystalloids (lactated Ringer’s, normal saline).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are complications of overhydration?

A

Pulmonary edema can manifest as anxiety, tachycardia, and dyspnea at rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What nursing interventions are needed for pulmonary edema?

A

Monitor for changes in consciousness, provide oxygen, and assess breath sounds for crackles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment for Hyponatremia?

A

Encouraging sodium-rich foods and administering IV fluids like lactated Ringer’s or isotonic saline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the treatment for Hypernatremia?

A

Administer D5% NS or 0.45% NS; monitor fluid intake and output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What EKG changes are associated with Hypokalemia?

A

Flattened T-waves and ST depression; monitor for muscle weakness and cardiac complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What priority nursing care is needed for Hyperkalemia?

A

Monitoring cardiac rhythm, assessing for muscle weakness, and managing dietary potassium intake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the screening criteria for diabetes?
Screen clients with a BMI over 25 and additional risk factors such as family history, age over 45, and sedentary lifestyle.
26
What do HgA1C levels indicate?
Levels above 5.7% indicate prediabetes; above 6.5% indicates diabetes.
27
What are symptoms of Hypoglycemia?
Shakiness, cold sweats, and confusion; treat with glucagon or dextrose if unconscious.
28
What are symptoms of Hyperglycemia?
Hot, dry skin and fruity breath; treat with fluids and insulin.
29
When should short-acting insulin be administered?
15-30 minutes before meals.
30
What is the rule for mixing insulins?
Follow the rule of clear before cloudy; ensure proper technique to avoid contamination.
31
What characterizes Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A lack of sufficient insulin, often due to missed doses or infections, leading to increased hormone production.
32
What are key lab tests for diagnosing DKA?
Glucose levels (<300 mg/dL), sodium, potassium, BUN, creatinine, pH, and bicarbonate levels.
33
What indicates metabolic acidosis in DKA?
A pH less than 7.35 and bicarbonate levels between 1-15 mEq/L, along with Kussmaul respirations and fruity breath.
34
What is the immediate treatment for DKA?
Insulin therapy, fluid replacement, and electrolyte management.
35
What characterizes Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS)?
Extremely high blood glucose levels (>600 mg/dL) without significant acidosis.
36
What are key lab tests for diagnosing HHS?
Glucose, sodium, potassium, BUN, creatinine, pH, and bicarbonate levels.
37
What is the treatment focus for HHS?
Rehydration, insulin administration, and monitoring of electrolytes.
38
What is the management for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
NSAIDs, corticosteroids, and immunosuppressants, each requiring careful monitoring.
39
What should be monitored when using NSAIDs?
Liver function tests are essential due to the risk of hepatitis.
40
What are important considerations for corticosteroids like prednisone?
Monitoring for fluid retention, hypertension, and kidney function.
41
What is the dietary recommendation for managing Gout?
A low-purine diet, avoiding organ meats, shellfish, and certain seafood, while limiting alcohol intake.
42
What medications are encouraged for managing acute gout attacks?
Colchicine, NSAIDs, and corticosteroids.
43
What is the importance of hydration in gout management?
Hydration is crucial, and patients should avoid diuretics that can exacerbate gout.
44
What are common symptoms of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Joint deformity, pain, morning stiffness, pleuritic pain, and xerostomia.
45
What are common NSAIDs used in RA management?
Ibuprofen, naproxen, and diclofenac.
46
What should patients be educated about when taking corticosteroids?
The importance of tapering doses and avoiding abrupt discontinuation.
47
What is the purpose of a shave biopsy?
Used for superficial skin cancers, sampling outer skin layers.
48
What is the function of a needle biopsy?
Utilized for aspirating tumors for fluid and tissue sampling, such as in leukemia diagnosis.
49
What is the role of serotonin blockers in cancer treatment?
Effective in reducing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
50
What is the importance of patient education in cancer treatment?
Adherence to treatment regimens can improve outcomes.
51
What is the definition of cataracts?
Opacity of the lens that impairs vision by scattering light.
52
What are significant risk factors for glaucoma?
Age, diabetes, hypertension, and severe myopia.
53
What is the PQRST method used for?
Pain assessment, focusing on Provocation, Quality, Region, Severity, and Timing.
54
What should be documented after a seizure?
Details such as the duration of the seizure, any observed movements, and the client's condition before and after the event.
55
What dietary restrictions are necessary for patients on MAOIs?
Avoid tyramine-rich foods to prevent hypertensive crises.
56
What is the purpose of CSF analysis?
To help diagnose multiple sclerosis and other neurological conditions.
57
What are common symptoms of labyrinthitis?
Vertigo, tinnitus, and nystagmus.
58
What is the importance of follow-up care for eye and ear conditions?
Regular follow-up appointments are crucial to monitor health, especially for at-risk populations.
59
What is the recommended order for administering bronchodilators and anti-inflammatories?
Administer bronchodilators first, followed by anti-inflammatory medications after a 5-minute wait.
60
What is the importance of follow-up care in eye and ear health?
Regular follow-up appointments are essential to monitor eye and ear health, especially for at-risk populations.
61
What is the sequence of administering bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory medications?
Bronchodilators are administered first to quickly open airways, followed by anti-inflammatory medications after a 5-minute wait to enhance absorption.
62
What type of bronchodilators is preferred for immediate relief?
Short-acting bronchodilators are preferred for immediate relief of airway constriction.
63
What is the goal of combination treatment in respiratory care?
The combination treatment aims to maximize the effectiveness of corticosteroids, such as Fluticasone, in reducing airway inflammation.
64
Why is tapering corticosteroids important?
Tapering corticosteroids is essential to avoid rebound asthma and complications like decreased immune function and canker sores.
65
What should be monitored as a side effect of corticosteroid use?
Monitoring for side effects is crucial, as hyperglycemia is not a common expected outcome of corticosteroid use.
66
What is Fluticasone used for?
Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used for prophylaxis in asthma management, aimed at reducing airway inflammation.
67
What is the significance of understanding Fluticasone's mechanism of action?
It is important to understand the mechanism of action and the rationale behind its use in combination therapy.
68
How does tapering corticosteroids help patients?
Tapering down corticosteroids helps prevent withdrawal symptoms and rebound effects, ensuring stable asthma control.
69
How is Fluticasone typically delivered?
The medication is typically delivered via inhalers, which require proper technique for effective dosing.
70
What should patients be educated about regarding Fluticasone?
Patients should be educated on potential side effects and the importance of adherence to prescribed regimens.
71
What is the purpose of incentive spirometry in COPD management?
Incentive spirometry is a key tool in monitoring lung expansion and preventing atelectasis in COPD patients.
72
How should patients use an incentive spirometer?
Patients should inhale deeply and hold their breath for 3-5 seconds, repeating this 5-10 times per hour.
73
What is the best position for using an incentive spirometer?
The best position for using an incentive spirometer is sitting upright to facilitate lung expansion.
74
What are common manifestations of right-sided heart failure?
Common manifestations include fatigue, cyanosis, and distended jugular veins, indicating poor oxygenation.
75
What gastrointestinal symptoms may occur due to right-sided heart failure?
Patients may experience gastrointestinal distress, including anorexia and nausea, due to fluid overload.
76
What are signs of advanced heart failure?
Hepatosplenomegaly and ascites are signs of advanced heart failure, leading to weight gain and dependent edema.
77
What are potential complications of local anesthesia?
Systemic toxicity from local anesthesia can present with symptoms such as restlessness, altered speech, and seizures.
78
What severe complications can arise from local anesthesia?
Severe cases may lead to hypotension, cardiac arrest, and respiratory failure, necessitating immediate intervention.
79
What is included in a comprehensive preoperative assessment?
A comprehensive preoperative assessment includes medical history, surgical history, and psychosocial factors.
80
Why is documenting allergies important in preoperative assessment?
Allergies to latex, medications, and food should be documented, as they can impact anesthesia choices.
81
What baseline data should be collected preoperatively?
Baseline data collection, including vital signs and oxygen saturation, is essential for postoperative comparison.
82
What is critical to evaluate for patients at risk of venous thromboembolism?
Evaluating venous thromboembolism risk is critical, especially for patients with prolonged immobility.
83
What are the 6 P's of postoperative care?
The 6 P's of postoperative care include pain management, positioning, and monitoring of the surgical site.
84
Why should patients be encouraged to mobilize early post-surgery?
Patients should be encouraged to mobilize early to prevent complications such as DVT and pulmonary issues.
85
What should be monitored to assess the return of peristalsis after abdominal surgery?
Monitoring bowel sounds and flatus is essential to assess the return of peristalsis after abdominal surgery.
86
What immediate action is required for dehiscence and evisceration?
Dehiscence and evisceration require immediate action, including covering the wound and calling for help.
87
How can hypoxia be prevented postoperatively?
Hypoxia can be prevented by positioning the patient with the head of the bed elevated and turning them every 2 hours.
88
What strategies can help prevent DVT?
DVT prevention strategies include avoiding prolonged leg crossing and ensuring proper use of compression stockings.
89
What signs of hypovolemia should be monitored post-paracentesis?
Understanding the signs of hypovolemia post-paracentesis, such as tachycardia and hypotension, is crucial for timely intervention.
90
Why is checking residuals important in enteral feeding management?
Checking residuals is vital to ensure proper digestion and prevent overfeeding; excessive residuals (>100-200 mL) indicate potential issues.
91
How often should residuals be checked during enteral feeding?
Residuals should be checked every 4-6 hours to monitor tolerance to enteral feeds.
92
How can aspiration pneumonia be prevented during enteral feeding?
Aspiration pneumonia can be prevented by maintaining the head of the bed at least 30 degrees during and after feedings.
93
What medications increase the risk of peptic ulcers?
Medications such as NSAIDs and corticosteroids increase the risk of peptic ulcers and should be used cautiously.
94
What lifestyle modifications can help reduce ulcer risk?
Lifestyle modifications, including dietary changes and stress management, are essential in reducing ulcer risk.
95
What are the symptoms of perforation in peptic ulcer disease?
Complications like perforation present with severe abdominal pain and require immediate medical attention.

Med Surg (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions