Final 2 PA

Question 1

What does CPT stand for?

Answer 1

Current procedural terminology

Question 2

T/F
CPT code tell practitioner the price they can charge for a service.

Answer 2

True; They are used by insurers to determine the amount of reimbursement
that a practitioner will receive by an insurer for that service.

Question 3

True/False: All CPT codes used during a single encounter must be listed
individually no matter the facility.

Answer 3

• False; A bundled code may be used to include multiple aspects of the
  encounter.

Question 4

Where can you find a list of the services or the CPT codes that were billed for your
visit?

Answer 4

• Your bill from your doctor and explanation of benefits

Question 5

True/False: Mr. Hastings has been experiencing extreme abdominal bloating. He is
at your department today to have an abdominal ultrasound done to determine if
his bloating is due to ascites. Since you looked in all four quadrants of his
abdomen it is appropriate for you to use the CPT code for an abdomen complete.

Answer 5

• False; all abdominal organs must be evaluated to code a complete abdominal
  ultrasound.

Question 6

______________ are added to CPT codes to help further describe the procedure
being performed but they do not change the definition of the code.

Answer 6

• Modifiers

Question 7

In what year did the World Health Organization adopt the ICD list?

Answer 7

• 1948

Question 8

ICD was initially compiled to list causes of death. The meaning of the acronym
changed to what we now know it as:

Answer 8

• International Classification of Diseases

Question 9

The major change from the ICD-9 system to the currently used ICD-10 system was
the introduction of:

Answer 9

• a letter at the end of the code

Question 10

There are roughly _______________ possible ICD-10 codes.

Answer 10

• 70,000

Question 11

Which of the following is not a reason for utilizing CPT codes?

Answer 11

• ((CPT codes are used for all of these))
• research
• verification & submission
• claims processing

Question 12

Your next patient is a 28 year old female with sudden onset pelvic pain. While
scanning you find the image below. List three things that you would want to know
the answer to in order to help you make your diagnosis.

Answer 12

• Are you currently pregnant / is there any chance that you could be?
• How long have your symptoms persisted?
• Are you currently taking any medications?

Question 13

Your next patient is coming in for an abdominal ultrasound with the following
complaints: epigastric pain, nausea, and abdominal distension What ICD-10 codes need to be used?

Answer 13

• epigastric pain - R10.13
• nausea - R11.0
• Abdomen distention - R14.0

Question 14

Zach is a 16 year old male patient that is in the emergency room. He is normally a
healthy teenager, but fainted during summer football camp today. His lab work
showed an elevated BUN and creatinine. The physician ordered a stat renal
ultrasound. What diagnosis code should most likely be used?

Answer 14

• acute kidney injury

Question 15

List three things that you need to ask your prior to performing their pelvic ultrasound.
You are to assume they are non-gravid and are at least reproductive age. They need to
be history questions - not have you had a pelvic/transvaginal ultrasound before.

For this patient:
72 year old female
vaginal bleeding

Answer 15

• When did the vaginal bleeding start, and how long has it been occurring?
• Are you currently taking any hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
• Do you have a history of uterine, cervical, or ovarian conditions (e.g., fibroids,
  cancer, endometrial hyperplasia)?

Question 16

A patient presents to the department for an abdominal ultrasound with the diagnosis
code for abdominal pain. Which of the following questions would help the least in
making your diagnosis?

Answer 16

• Have you ever had open heart surgery?
  Other options:
• When did you eat or drink last?
• Have you every had surgery to your abdomen?
• Do you have a problem with acid reflux?

Question 17

What is the purpose of the addition of a modifier to a CPT code?

Answer 17

• further describe the procedure being performed without changing the definition of
  the code

Question 18

The professional component is a portion of the reimbursement that goes towards:

Answer 18

• the cost of the radiologist interpretation

Question 19

What scenario would allow the provider to collect the global payment for the
ultrasounds done in the office?

Answer 19

• When both the technical and professional components are performed and
  billed by the same provider or practice.
• (An OB/GYN that has their own private practice, purchased imaging
  equipment, employees a sonographer, and is responsible for interpreting
  the exams.)

Question 20

You are preparing to staff the new ultrasound department in your facility. There
will be two full time, two part time, and 2 PRN employees. Describe to me how
you will decide on each position’s pay. What factors are you using to set the pay
scale? Will you go by years experience, flat rate, registries, shift differential -
think about their shift before just throwing a number out

Answer 20

• To set pay for the new ultrasound department, I would base salaries on a
  combination of experience, certifications (such as ARDMS registries), and shift
  type. Full-time staff would receive a competitive hourly rate with benefits, part-time
  slightly higher per hour with partial benefits, and PRN the highest hourly rate with no
  benefits to reflect flexibility. Shift differentials would apply for evenings, weekends,
  and holidays, and additional pay would be given for advanced certifications or
  specialized roles. Local market rates would also guide the pay scale to stay competitive.

Question 21

You are performing a pelvic ultrasound on a 82 year old female for postmenopausal
bleeding. You find a thickened endometrium which you believe is endometrial
hyperplasia. List the 2 codes that would be given as her sonographic diagnosis. You
need to list the code and the description (ex: N70.12 - chronic oophoritis).
Use the link below to find all of the diagnosis codes for 2025. Remember to format
the code properly

Answer 21

• N85.00 – Endometrial hyperplasia, unspecified
• N95.0 – Postmenopausal bleeding

Question 22

Little Timmy has a tummy ache and his parents take him to the emergency room. They
do some lab work and he has an elevated white blood cell count. They order an
ultrasound of his appendix since that’s primarily where his pain was on physical
exam. You go over to scan him and find a non compressible appendix with free fluid
around it and regional lymphadenopathy. List 4 possible diagnosis codes for this
encounter and their description (ex: N70.12 - chronic oophoritis). Codes can’t be
related to one another - as in two variations of pain.

Answer 22

• RLQ pain: R10.31
• ABD pain: R10.0
• elevated WBC: D72.829
• acute appendicitis: K35
• ascites: R18.8
• lymphadenopathy: R59.0

Question 23

What is the CPT code for an abdominal ultrasound (complete)?
- 7600

Answer 23

• 7600

Question 24

What is the CPT code for a bilateral upper extremity venous Doppler?

Answer 24

• 93970

Question 25

What is the CPT code(s) for a complete OB evaluation of twins at 18 weeks?

Answer 25

- 76805 and 76810

Question 26

Mrs. Swanson is in the department to have a 3 area ultrasound guided breast biopsy (clips will be placed). What CPT code(s) should be listed for that encounter? List the code and brief description.

Answer 26

• 19083 - first lesion • 19084 - second lesion • 19084 - third lesion

Question 27

Mr. Newcastle is new to the area and has had a hard time finding a doctor accepting new patients. His lisinopril, Lasix, and metformin are about to run out needs to have a new prescription sent to the pharmacy. After much searching he found a provider that was in network, close to home, and had an open slot this week. The new doctor spent 40 minutes with Mr. Newcastle and refilled hiss medications. What would the CPT and ICD-10 codes used for this encounter? Give the code(s) and a description.

Answer 27

• 99203: New patient encounter 30-44 minutes • HTN: I10 • DM: Z79

Question 28

This category of medications has proven most effective as a lipid-lowering treatment for most people.

Answer 28

- Statins

Question 29

Which of the following is termed the "good cholesterol"?

Answer 29

- HDL

Question 30

This category of medicine is the most commonly used non-statin agent.

Answer 30

- cholesterol absorption inhibitors

Question 31

This category of medication is especially good for lowering triglycerides

Answer 31

- Fibrates

Question 32

This type of medication is derived from fish oils that are chemically changed and purified.

Answer 32

- Omega 3 fatty acids

Question 33

- Niacin is a ______ vitamin that limits the production of blood fats in the liver.

Answer 33

B

Question 34

Match the medication name to the correct category. gemfibrozil

Answer 34

Fibrate

Question 35

Match the medication name to the correct category. Lovaza

Answer 35

Omega-3 Fatty Acid

Question 36

Match the medication name to the correct category. Lipitor

Answer 36

Statin

Question 37

Match the medication name to the correct category. WelChol

Answer 37

Bile Acid Sequestrant

Question 38

What is a common antiplatelet agent?

Answer 38

Plavix

Question 39

This medication has predictable anticoagulant effects and does not require routine monitoring.

Answer 39

- Xarelto

Question 40

If Coumadin has thinned a patient's blood too much, what can they give them to counteract the effects?

Answer 40

- Vitamin K

Question 41

True/False: Statins can be part of combo medications to help combat poor cholesterol and high blood pressure.

Answer 41

- True

Question 42

This category of anticoagulant binds to and inhibits the activity of thrombin therefore preventing blood clot formation.

Answer 42

- Thrombin Inhibitors

Question 43

In Ligers, stripes are dominant over solids. Which of the following genotypes would produce the phenotype of stripes? S - stripes s – solids

Answer 43

- SS and Ss

Question 44

True/False: In Ligers, stripes are dominant over solids. Mom and Dad Liger both have stripes, however one of their offspring is solid. This means that at least one parent's genotype is Ss.

Answer 44

- True

Question 45

Stitch leaves Hawaii and goes back to outer space. There he falls in love with another member of his species, named Dolly. Stitch has black eyes (dominant) and Dolly has green eyes (recessive). Both Stitch and Dolly are both homozygous. They have a baby named Patch. When Patch grows up he marries an alien lady who has green eyes. What is the chance that they will have a baby that has green eyes?

Answer 45

- 50%

Question 46

When determining the genotypic and phenotypic ratios you'll use the __________ method to set up the dihybrid cross table.

Answer 46

- F O I L

Question 47

Zocor

Answer 47

Simvastatin

Question 48

Tricor

Answer 48

Pravastatin

Question 49

Eliquis

Answer 49

Apixaban

Question 50

Lovenox

Answer 50

Enoxaparin

Question 51

What does LDL stand for?

Answer 51

Low density Lipoprotein

Question 52

T/T true positives are the positive results that were obtained solely by the gold standard method

Answer 52

False (Obtained by multiple methods)

Question 53

Which parameter does NOT validate your test against the gold standard?

Answer 53

Prevalence

Question 54

T/F To increase your sensitivity then you would need to minimize the number of false negatives you have

Answer 54

True

Question 55

What does the negative predictive value tell you?

Answer 55

How meaningful a negative result really is.

Question 56

When evaluating the sensitivity you are including the:

Answer 56

True positives and false negatives

Question 57

Your laboratory is testing patients for arterial disease using air plethysmography testing. There were 315 patients in your test pool. Of the 99 positive cases by this method, only 82 were shown to have the disease on the gold standard. What number would you put in the "true positive" box of your chi square?

Answer 57

- 82

Question 58

If a test has high specificity, then it:

Answer 58

- Has the ability to identify normality

Question 59

Your laboratory is testing patients for arterial disease using air plethysmography testing. There were 315 patients in your test pool. Of the 99 positive cases by this method, only 82 were shown to have the disease on the gold standard. What number would you put in the "true negative" box of your chi square?

Answer 59

- 216

Question 60

Your laboratory is testing patients for arterial disease using air plethysmography testing. There were 315 patients in your test pool. Of the 99 positive cases by this method, only 82 were shown to have the disease on the gold standard. What would the positive predictive value be?

Answer 60

- 82.8%

Question 61

True/False: The test in the previous question would an accurate testing method?

Answer 61

- False; it is less than 85%

Question 62

What are three specifications which are looked for in a screening exam/lab?

Answer 62

-Detects disease for diagnostic plan -Easily available -Low cost (Note: NOT “treatment plans a re based off the findings”)