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Final Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 2 parts of the innate system that help create a barrier in mucosal immunity?

A

Glycocalyx (goblet cells)

intestinal epithelial cell tight junctions

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2
Q

What are the 3 antimicrobial molecules in the innate mucosal immunity?

A

lactoferrin (binds iron)
lysozyme
defensins (disrupt bact cell wall)

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3
Q

What are the 2 types of MALT?

A

Organized (induction sites)

Scattered (effector sites)

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4
Q

What are the 4 unique features of gut associated lymphoid tissue?

A
  1. M cells uptake antigen in peyers patches
  2. unique lympho repertoire
  3. IgA dominated response
  4. minimize injury, develop tolerance
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5
Q

What are M-cells designed to do?

A

interact directly with antigens in the gut - portal of entry into GALT

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6
Q

What is the barrier made out of in the mucosa?

A

glycocalyx = mucus + IgA

and tight jxns

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7
Q

Where are IEC lymphocytes not found?

A

peyers patches

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8
Q

What keeps together the tight junction of the intestinal epithelium?

A

zonula occludens 1 and claudins

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9
Q

What 2 cytokines promote IgA and T-reg cells?

A

TGF-B (switches B cells to produce IgA)

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10
Q

What 4 cells are present in O-malt?

A

M cells, dome cells, B cells, T cells

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11
Q

What is the rolle of paneth cells in the IEC?

A

production of antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)

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12
Q

What 2 cell types produce AMPs?

A

paneth and enterocytes

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13
Q

What cell type produces mucin?

A

goblet

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14
Q

How are peyers patches seperated from the lumen?

A

follicle associated epithelium (microfold, dendritic, T, B, macros)

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15
Q

What is between the FAE and peyers patches?

A

dome - rich in dendritic cells

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16
Q

What molecule mediates transocytosis of dimeric IgA and pentameric IgM into the lumen?

A

Polymeric Ig receptor (pIgR)

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17
Q

What are the 2 functions of the secretory component of IgA?

A

protect from protelysis

glue to the glycocalyx

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18
Q

What are the two mechanisms of oral tolerance to dietary antigens?

A

Treg induction = low dose

Anergy = high dose

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19
Q

What is the mucosal “functional triad”?

A

treg cells, IgA, microbiota

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20
Q

What hypersensitivity rxn is atopic dermatitis?

A

type 1

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21
Q

What are the mechanisms of the two phages of atopic response to allergen?

A

Immediate (histamine)

late (eicosanoids, cytokines (IL-4 and TNF-a))

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22
Q

Where does IgE bind to in type 1 HS?

A

Fc epsilon receptors on masts and basos

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23
Q

What is the role of PAF in type 1 HS?

A

clumping of blood in lung capillaries

activate platelets

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24
Q

What are the 3 ways mast cells can be activated?1

A
  1. anaphylotoxins (C3a, C5a)
  2. IgE
  3. drugs
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25
What are the 4 types of secondary mediators of the type 1 HS rxn?
cytokines (IL4,5,13, GM-CSF) Lipid mediators PAF chemotactic factors
26
What antibodies can produce a type 2 HS?
IgG or IgM
27
What is intravascular hemolysis mediated by?
complement and MAC (anaphylotoxins too)
28
What are the CS of IV hemolysis?
fever, polyarthritis, proteinuria
29
What is IgG best at?
opsonization, complement, neutralization
30
What is IgM best at?
complement, neutralization
31
Is the transfusion worse from an A to a B cat or B to an A cat?
A to a B cat (b cat has bad rxn)
32
What test is the definitive diagnosis for IMHA?
Coombs test
33
What 3 tests used for neonatal isoerythrolysis?
1. blood cross match 2. direct coombs test 3. jaundice foal agglutination test
34
What test is used to differentiate b/w myasthenia gravis and cholinergic chrisis?
Tensilon test - edrophonium
35
What samples are used for indirect coombs test?
donor rbc and recipient serum
36
What samples are used for direct coombs test?
donor serum and recipient rbc
37
What coombs test used for neonatal isoerythrolysis?
baby rbcs and colostrum = direct coombs test
38
What type 3 hypersensitivity rxn is systemic?
serum sickness - vasculitis
39
What type 3 HS rxn is localized?
arthus rxn
40
What are examples of type 3 HS?
FIP wet, blue eye, porcine circovirus, lupus, RA, dietary HS
41
What are the clinical signs of sulfonamide hypersensitivity in dogs (type 2)?
fever, polyarthropathy, skin eruptions, hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, hemolytic anemia, uveitis, facial swelling, proteinuria
42
What role do anaphylotoxins have in type 3 HS?
cause degranulation and attract neutrophils that cause vascular damage (C3a and C5a)
43
What are the two localized types of type 3 HS?
arthus rxn - subq or muscle | pneuomonitis - farmers lung, pigeon fanciers lung
44
What are two factors that contribute to type 3 HS in the circulation?
low abundance of Ab small Ag-Ab complexes that can't fix complement mast cells increase intensity
45
What are 4 examples of type 3 HS in the circulation?
serum sickness, infectious agent, autoimmune dz, dietary hypersensitivity
46
What type 3 HS is caused by infectious canine heptatitis and canine adenovirus in dogs?
immune mediated uveitis
47
What can develop in horses as a result of type 3 HS after S. equi infection?
purpura hemorrhagica - immune complexes in vascular basement membranes
48
What form of FIP is characterized by polyserositis?
effusive (wet) | dry form is pyogranulmatous lesions
49
What type of immune response leads to acute wet FIP in cats?
strong humoral/weak CMI
50
What type of immune response leads to chronic dry FIP in cats?
moderate humoral/moderate CMI | type 4 HS
51
What type of immune response against FIP will result in healthy carrier/non carrier?
moderate humoral/strong CMI
52
What happens during the sensitization phase of type 4 HS?
CD4+ T cells differentiate to TH1 when they encounter antigen
53
What are the cells and cytokines involved in the effector phase of type 4 HS?
Chemokines, IFNy, TNFa, LT, IL-3, GM-CSF (monocyte production) --> recruits macrophage and nuetrophils
54
What happens during sensitization phase in contact dermatitis?
haptens bind to proteins, processed by langerhans cells
55
What happens during effector phase in contact dermatitis?
Th1 memory cells respond to contact sensitizer at site of contact, macrophages recruited
56
What is the difference between tuberculoid leprosy andd lepromatous leprosy in the cytokines they produce?
Tuberculoid - TH1 | Leprotamous - TH2
57
What cytokines give rise to M1 macrophage?
Ifny, TNFa, LPS
58
What cytokines give rise to M2a macrophage?
IL4 and IL13
59
What cytokines give rise to M2b/c macrophage?
immune complexes, IL10, TGF beta, glucocorticoids, apoptotic cells
60
What are the effector functions of M1 macrophages?
pathologic type 1 inflammation
61
What are the effector functions of M2 macrophages?
type 1 inflammatory, adaptive immunity, promote and regulate tpe 2 immune responses, angiogenesis
62
What is found in boxers with granulamatous coilitis? What cytokine produces the granulomatous inflammation?
adherent invasive e. coli | TNF - alpha
63
What is the approximate time in gestation when fetus is immune competent in horse, cow, pig, dog?
Horse - 200 d Cow - 100-120 d Pig - 70d Dog - 45 d
64
What happens in cytopathic BVD if fetus is infected before 120 d? after 120d?
before - abortion | after - congenital defects
65
What happens in non cytopathic BVD if fetus is infected before 120d? after 120d?
before - tolerance | after - normal
66
What are the placenta types for primates, dogs/cats, ruminants, and pigs/horses?
primates - haemochorial dogs/cats - endotheliichorial ruminants - syndesmochorial pigs/horses - epitheliochorial
67
What is the main class of Ab in colostrum of ruminants? non-ruminants?
ruminants - IgG | nonruminants - IgA
68
What receptor transports Ab into milk?
Neonatal Fc receptor (FcRn) - also acidic to basic environment
69
What are the two biggest problems to development of a vaccine?
antigenic variation | must stimulate effector T cells
70
What effect do corticosteroids have on cytokines?
increase lipocortin - decrease eicosanoids | inhibit PAF, decrease NO
71
What genes are steroid sensitive?
Growth hormone, IL-10, TGF beta
72
What are SE of corticosteroids that I dont know?
acute pancreatitis, bladder and skin infections
73
What are the 2 indications for cyclosporin A use?
canine atopic dermatitis | perianal fistulas
74
What is the MOA of cyclosporin A?
inhibits T cell activation by inhibiting serine/threonine specific phosphatase calcineurin
75
What is the effect of cyclosporin on mast cells and eosinophils?
inhibitory
76
What drug prolongs high cAMP levels in mast cells and prevents degranulation?
theophylline
77
What are the 3 mechanisms for developing self tolerant T cells in the periphery?
anergy, T reg cells/suppression clonal deletion
78
What are the 3 mechanisms for developing self tolerant B cells in the bone marrow?
receptor editing induction of anergy clonal deletion
79
What are the 2 mechanisms for developing self tolerant B cells in the periphery?
clonal deletion | anergy
80
What autoimmune diseases have a Type 1 HS?
milk allergy
81
What autoimmune dzs have type 2 HS?
``` IMHA, IMT pemphigus autoimmune thyroiditis myasthenia gravis systemic lupus erythematosus ```
82
What autoimmune dzs have type 3 HS?
glomerulonephropathy SLE (lupus) RA
83
What autoimmune dzs have type 4 HS?
multiple sclerosis lymphocytic thyroiditis RA
84
What are the two ways HMGB1 is secreted from cells?
active secretion by inflammatory cells or passive by necrotic or apoptosis
85
What are the two different inflammatory fxns of HMGB1 by either being reduced or oxidized?
reduced form - defintes chemokine activity disulfide form - induces cytokine activity fully oxidzed - no immune fxn
86
What are the major SE of SLE?
polyarthritis, glomerulornephritis, dermitiis, IMHA, IMT, leukopenia, polymyositis
87
Term for granulamatous material composed of antibody and complement at BM in lupus.
lupus band
88
What are LE cells?
changed neutrophils is lupus erythramatousus
89
What is rheumatoid factor? how is it detected?
IgM specific for IgG | test - agglutination????
90
What lesion is seen in RA?
erosive polyarthritis - small distal joints more affected

UI Immuno (4 decks)

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