Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

VM 610 Endocrine/Urology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

(99 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the 3 factors that affect the quality of excretory urography?

A

glomerular filtration
renal concentrating ability
patients hydration status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What will be seen if glomerular filtration is decreased in a excretory urography?

A

decreased renal density (contrast is passively filtered)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What will be seen if renal concentrating ability is decreased?

A

more water will dilute contrast –> less opaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What must be done to the patient before an excretory urography?

A

empty GI tract
evaluate renal function prior to procedure and x-rays
well-hydrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What tests does giving contrast in excretory urography affect?

A

urinanalysis -inc SG, false positive proteinuria, alters cells, creates crystals
inhibits bacteria growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 2 side effects of excretory urographies?

A

contrast induced diuresis (dilation, messes up US)

contrast induced acute renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3 contraindications for excretory urogram?

A

pre renal azotemia/oliguria
renal insufficiency/failure - poor contrast
multiple myeloma - bence jones precipitate with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the definition of delayed pyelogram in an EU?

A

> 3 minutes after nephrogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does renal dilation indicate on an EU?

A

pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two most common uroliths in dogs and cats?

A

struvite and calcium oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What uroliths can be dissolved medically?

A

struvite, cysteine, and urate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What uroliths can not be dissolved but medical therapy can be used for prevention?

A

oxalate and silica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Term for technique of breaking uroltihs by electrohydraulic shock to remove bladder stones.

A

Lithotripsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What urolith is urease positive bacteria and consequently UTIs associated with?

A

struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are risk factors for calcium oxalate uroliths?

A

acidifying diet, hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Does acidic or alkalinic blood increase ionized calcium measurement?

A

acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for hypercalcemia and low phosphorus?

A

primary hyperparathyroidism
hypercalcemia of malignancy
(both increase PTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the differential diagnosis for hypercalcemia with increased phosphorus?

A

renal disease
addisons
hypervitaminosis D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in cats?

A

idiopathic

also neoplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does hypercalcemia affect the kidney?

A

interferes with ADH - low urine SG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What dog breed gets primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

keeshonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are rabbits and guinea pigs susceptible to in regards to urinary system? (TQ)

A

rabbits - hypercalciuria

guinea pigs - urolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should be considered when treating avians for renal disease?

A

diuresis does not work (have 10% mammalian nephrons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drug inhibits uric acid formation when treating avians for renal disease?

A

allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are main causes of avian renal disease?
bacterial nephritis - ascending from cloaca Gout renal neoplasia
26
What is different about reptile urine SG?
usually low, elevation indicates renal disease
27
What is a common sign of prostatic disease?
bloody urethral discharge without urination
28
What breed of dog normally has a large prostate?
scotties
29
What fungal infection affects the prostate?
blastomycosis
30
What antibiotic characteristics should be used for chronic prostatits?
basic antibiotics, high lipid solubility
31
Where do TCC usually occur in dogs?
trigone - outflow and inflow problems
32
What is the treatment for TCC?
chemo/piroxicam
33
What is the most common tumor that affects kidney? How should it be treated?
lymphoma | treat systemically
34
What breeds are predisposed to TCC?
female scotties, other terrier breeds
35
What is the prognosis for prostatic tumors?
poor, 3-7 m
36
What is the most common kidney tissue tumor?
carcinoma (very malignant)
37
What gland produces calcitonin in birds and reptiles?
ultimobranchial gland
38
What are the three most common secondary endocrine diseases in birds and reptiles?
nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism renal secondary hyperparathyroidism goiter
39
What are CS of thyroid dysplasia in budgerigars?
voice changes, wheezing, dyspnea (esophageal compression)
40
What is an emerging primary endocrine disease in young adult bearded dragons?
gastric neuroendocrine carcinoma
41
What are CS of gastric neuroendocrine carcinomas in lizards?
*hyperglycemia*, anorexia, weight loss, anemia
42
What species of bird gets hypoparathyroidism?
african grays (chronic lack of calcium, cant make enough PTH)
43
What are the clinical findings in ureterrhexis?
uroperitoneum - site identified by excretory ereterography
44
What is the treatment of choice for unilateral diseases of the kidney in horses?
nephrectomy
45
What is patent urachus in horses associated with?
omphalophlebitis (infection of umbilicus)
46
What is most common tumor of horse bladders?
SCC
47
What is the surgical name for repairing the bladder?
cystorrhaphy
48
What surgery technique is indicated for patent urachus?
cystoplasty - same as cystorrhaphy and check for infection
49
What is a poor prognostic factor for patent urachus in foals?
joint involvement
50
Where are urethral obstructions most common in male horses?
junction of pelvic and extrapelvic urethra
51
What drug should be avoided in urethral obstructions in horses?
xylazine
52
What are the common complications of perineal urethrotomy?
scalding, urethral scricture, hemorrhage, reccurence of stones
53
What breed can get secondary hypothyroidism?
Giant schnauzer (pituatary disorder)
54
What amount of thyroid gland must be destroyed to see signs?
75%
55
What drug can cause hypothyroidism?
sulfonamides (reversible)
56
What 3 breeds get heritable lymphocytic thyroiditis?
beagle, borzoi, golden retriever
57
What 2 diseases results from congenital hypothyroidism?
``` cretinism - rare pituatary dwarfism (2ndary) ```
58
What is the most common clinical manifestation of hypothyroid?
derm signs - alopecia, myxedema, "lanugo" coat
59
What tubes should be used to transfer thyroid serum samples?
plastic (not glass)
60
What way should thyroid hormones be measured?
equilibrium dialysis (most reliable)
61
How does phenobarbital affect thyroid tests?
decreased TT4 and TT3 increase TSH no clinical hypothyroidism
62
How do glucocorticoids affect thyroid tests?
``` inhibit TSH (decrease or no change) decreased TT4, fT4, T3 ```
63
How will thyroid tests look with euthyroid sick syndrome?
decrease in TT4 (severity) TT3 less commonly decreased decrease in TSH
64
What is gold standard for diagnosing hypothyroid?
TSH stim test
65
What causes the damage to the kidney with aminoglycosides?
15% uptake into proximal tubule (saturable) --> apoptosis
66
What electrolyte abnormalities are present in a horse with AKI?
hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemia
67
What are the 2 causes of acute tubular necrosis in horses?
aminoglycosides and pigment nephropathy
68
What causes acute interstital nephritis in horses?
delayed hypersensitivity (drugs)
69
What causes acute glomerulonephritis in horses?
Ag:Ab complex (strangles)
70
What is the treatment for acute kidney injury?
IV fluids @40-80 ml/kg/day until Cr decreases dramatically
71
What can be used for persistant oliguria in horses?
dopamine, furosemide diuretics
72
WHat is the most common cause of hyperthyroid in cats?
multinodular adenomatous hyperplasia
73
What is apethetic hyperthyroidism in cats?
10% cases, lethargy, weakness, anorexia
74
What can be auscultated on hyperthyroid cats?
premature beats, gallop rhythm
75
What chemistry abnormalities will be seen with hyperthyroid cats?
hyperphosphatemia, increased ALT
76
What should be tested in euthyroid sick or occult hyperthyroidism in cats to confirm diagnosis?
free T4
77
What test will help show FUNCTIONAL tissue with hyperthyroid cats?
radionuclide thyroid scan
78
What are GI signs of hyperthyroidism in cats?
hypermotility, malassimilation
79
What are antithyroid drugs that require life long administration in hyperthyroid cats?
methimazole propylthioracil carbimazole
80
What are the side effects of antithyroid drugs in cats?
occur in first 3 months GI - most common facial pruritis serious - thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, hepatotoxicity
81
What drugs can be used to help with equine incontinence?
bethanechol( and phenoxybenzamine)
82
What drug is an azo dye that helps relief bladder pain in horses?
phenazopyridine
83
What should be ruled out in a PU/PD horse?
diarrhea, ARF, horse on high salt diet
84
What is another name for antidiuretic homone?
vasopressin
85
What horses is inapprpriate ADH secretion most common in?
neonatal foals - associated with perinatal asphyxial syndrome
86
What are CS of SIADH (inappropriate ADH secretion)?
very concentrated urine
87
What is the tx for SIADH?
water restriction
88
What vein can form a thrombus with cortical or medullary tumors of the adrenal gland?
phrenicoabdominal vein
89
What is the most common prostatic tumor?
adenocarcinomas (2nd - TCC)
90
Term for urine leaking 2ndary to bladder/urethral obstruction.
paradoxical incontinence
91
Term for when UMN lesion causing bladder to fill/empty without conscious control.
reflex incontinence
92
Which muscle contracts the bladder?
detrusor muscle
93
What nerve innervates the external sphincter of the bladder?
pudendal nerve
94
What nerves during the storage phase of micturition?
sympathetic nerves - (hypogastric)
95
What nerves control the voiding phase?
pelvic nerve - parasympathetic
96
If you stimulate the cholinergic receptors of the bladder what happens?
detrusor contraction
97
What are the two lesions that cause voiding phase disorders?
UMN - big bladder, hard to express | LMN - big bladder, easy to express
98
What is the treatment for reflex dyssynergia in large dogs?
alpha blocking agents - phenoxybenzamine, prazosin
99
What are the two risk factors for bad prognosis with CKD?
proteinuria and hypertension

VM 610 Endocrine/Urology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions