FINAL Flashcards
(49 cards)
1
Q
The tympanic reflex, a protective rxn to loud noise, involves which muscle and nerve combination
A
c. c. tensor tympani and stapedius muscles, both controlled by the facial
2
Q
- which of the following structures is 1 responsible for maintaining the integrity of the fxn of the middle ear?
A
c. Eustachian tube
3
Q
- in the normal right ear, where do you expect to see the cone of light?
A
b. 5
4
Q
- when the cone of light is seen at 3 o’clock and the manubrium appears to be horizontally oriented, the tympani membrane is most likely
A
a. retracted
5
Q
- a patient presents with an itching external auditory canal and states that when they scratch it they experience a burning pain. You suspect:
a. chronic otitis media
b. acute otitis media
c. bacterial otitis externa
d. otomycosis externa
A
c. bacterial otitis externa
6
Q
- Swimmer’s ear is most commonly associated with:
a. mycotic infection
b. streptococcal infection
c. staphylococcal
d. pseudomonas infection
A
d. pseudomonas infection
7
Q
- which of the following presentations can cause a conductive hearing loss?
a. tympanosclerosis
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Ototoxic drug ingestion
A
a. tympanosclerosis
8
Q
- A patient presents with bilateral ear pain. They have had an upper respiratory infection for the past 6 days. They just returnedfrom a vacation in the Bahamas. You examine the ears and note bluish-grey tympanic membranes. Given their complaint and the appearance of the membranes you suspect:
a. acute otitis media
b. serous otitis media
c. aero otitis media
d. chronic otitis media
A
c. aero otitis media
9
Q
- this condition is caused by a rxn of the periosteum resulting from stimulation of the auditory canal by repeated exposure to cold water:
a. external otitis
b. exostosis
c. swimmer’s ear
d. tympanosclerosis
A
b. exostosis
10
Q
- what is the correct sequence of events in the development of otitis media?
a. Eustachian tube blockage, tympanic membrane retraction, serous otits media, purulent otitis media, tympanic membrane, rupture
b. Eustachian tube blockage, tympanic membrane bulging, serous otitis media, purulent otis media, tympanic membreane rupture
c. Eustachian tube blockage, tympanic membrane retraction, purulent ottis media, serous otitis media, tympanic membrane rupture
d. Tympanic membrane retraction, Eustachian tube blockage, serious otits media, purulent otitis media, tympanic membrane rupture
A
a. Eustachian tube blockage, tympanic membrane retraction, serous otits media, purulent otitis media, tympanic membrane, rupture
11
Q
- which of the following conditions can be a result of chronic and repeated middle ear infection?
a. otomycosis
b. cholesteatoma
c. bullous myringitis
d. meinere’s disease
A
b. cholesteatoma
12
Q
- an abnormal sensation of movement, usually rotary, associated with difficulty maintaining balance is called:
a. tinnitus
b. tympanosclerosis
c. vertigo
d. otalgia
A
c. vertigo
13
Q
- This condition is described to involve recurrences of sudden attacks of whirling vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss, with nausea and vomiting at the peak. When the attack subsides there is a residual low level tinnitus and a resulting hearing loss. It is called:
a. vertigo
b. motion sickness
c. otodynia
d. Menierre’s syndrome
A
d. Menierre’s syndrome
14
Q
- this condition presents with hyperemic vessels across the tympanic membrane which is usually bulging, landmarks are obscured, with significant pain and the drum may perforate:
a. cholesteatoma
b. acute purulent otitis media
c. Meniere’s disease
d. Otitis media
A
b. acute purulent otitis media
15
Q
- complication of endolymphatic hydrops include which of the following:
a. otomycosis
b. ostosclerosis
c. tympanosclerosis
d. neural hearing loss
A
d. neural hearing loss
16
Q
- complications of repeated purpulent otitis media include:
a. facial nerve paralysis
b. meniere’s disease
c. otosclerosis cerumen
A
a. facial nerve paralysis
17
Q
- the perception of sound in the absence of an acoustic stimulus describes:
a. otitis externa
b. vertigo
c. tinnitus
d. cholestatoma
A
c. tinnitus
18
Q
- this condition is often the result of recurrent innear ear infections:
a. meniere’s disease
b. labyrinthine hydrops
c. tympanosclerosis
d. bullous myringitis
A
d. bullous myringitis
19
Q
- this cyst like mass is filled with cellular debris, has a cottage cheese appearance, and is most common in the middle ear that can spread to the skull and even into the cranium causing CNS dysfxn:
a. labyrinthine hydrops
b. otosclerosis
c. cholesteatoma
d. cerumen
A
c. cholesteatoma
20
Q
- the most common cause of conductive hearing loss is:
a. labyrinthine hydrops
b. otosclerosis
c. cholesteatoma
d. cerumen
A
b. otosclerosis
21
Q
- which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with tympanic membrane perforation?
a. Acute otitis media
b. Serous otitis media
c. Cholesteatoma
d. Chronic otitis media
A
c. Cholesteatoma
22
Q
- clear otorrhea seen after head trauma is highly suspicious of:
a. CSF
b. Eczema
c. Bullous myringitis
d. Otitis media
A
a. CSF
23
Q
- when performing the otoscopic exam, you must take care to not exert pressure on the very sensitive ________ wall of the external canal
a. inferior
b. posterior
c. superior
d. anterior
A
d. anterior
24
Q
- this painful ear condition is associated with vesicles on the tympanic membrane:
a. external otitis
b. cholesteatoma
c. cerumen
d. bullous myringitis
A
d. bullous myringitis
25
25. this condition is a result of repeated blunt trauma to the pinna:
a. keloid
b. darwin’s tubercle
c. cauliflower ear
d. sebaceous cyst
c. cauliflower ear
26
26. these nodules are a result of deposits of uric acid crystals in the pinna:
a. keloid
b. darwin’s tubercle
c. tophus
d. sebaceous cyst
c. tophus
27
27. this condition presents as a small elevation in the rim of the pinna that is a harmless congential variant:
a. keloid
b. darwin’s tubercle
c. cauliflower ear
d. sebaceous cyst
b. darwin’s tubercle
28
28. the fustenberg diet is usually recommended for people who are experiencing complaints related to which of the following disorders?
a. Acute toxic labyrinthitis
b. Labyrinthine hydrops
c. Benign positional vertigo
d. Epidemic vertigo
b. Labyrinthine hydrops
29
29. the frequency range that the human ear is most sensitive to is:
a. 100 hx to 1000 hx
b. 200 to 2000
c. 300 to 3000
d. 400 to 4000
b. 200 to 2000
30
30. it is recommended by OSHA that hearing protection be used in which of the following noise exposure situation
a. >70db for >2 hours
b. >80db for >3 hours
c. >85 db for >4 hours
d. >90 db for >4 hours
d. >90 db for >4 hours
31
31. hearing loss associated with chronic and prolonged expsure to lous sounds:
a. starts around 200 hz and spreads with time to the remainder of the frequencies
b. starts around 4000 hz and spreads with time to the remainder of the frequencies
c. starts around 200 hz and remains relatively stable in that range
d. starts around 4000 hz and remains relatively stable in that range
b. starts around 4000 hz and spreads with time to the remainder of the frequencies
32
32. The hearing loss associated with meniere’s disease (syndrome)
a. Starts around 200 hz and spreads with time to the remainder of the frequencies
b. Starts around 4000 hz and spreads with time to the remainder of the frequencies
c. Starts around 200 hz and remains relatively stable in that range
d. Starts around 4000 hz and remains relatively stable in that range
a. Starts around 200 hz and spreads with time to the remainder of the frequencies
33
**Low sodium diet
for Meniere’s disease
34
32. The discharge associated with acute rhinitis is:
a. Watery and clear but may turn purulent
b. Yellow and mucopurulent
c. Clear and foul smelling
d. Thick and green and foul smelling
a. Watery and clear but may turn purulent
35
33. in allergic rhinitis, the nasal mucosa appears:
a. pale, swollen and edematous
b. bright red, inflamed and running
c. very dry, smooth and shiny
d. dry and dull red
a. pale, swollen and edematous
36
34. ozena is associated with:
a. acute rhinitis
b. allergic rhitnits
c. atrophic rhinitis
d. rhinitis medicamentosus
c. atrophic rhinitis
37
35. nosebleed is often a simple complaint, however, it can be serious or even life threatening if associated with:
a. chronic excoriation (picking your nose)
b. nasal polyps
c. simple fx
d. hypertension
d. hypertension
38
36. the primary concern when evaluating spontaneous epistaxis is:
a. to determine the locations/source of the blood
b. to take the patients blood pressure
c. to be certain the patient maintains his her head in extension
d. to take a thorough medical hx
b. to take the patients blood pressure
39
37. the primary lesion of syphilis is the ____ and is usually located on the ____
a. chancre, lower
b. chanchroid, lower
c. chancre, upper
d. chanchroid, lower
a. chancre, lower
40
he appearance of the pharynx that is strongly suggestive of strep throat is:
a. bright red mucosa, studded with white or yellow follicles
b. dull red mucosa with swollen tonsils
c. grey to yellow membrane developing across the pharynx
d. bright red pharynx associated with sweet breath
a. bright red mucosa, studded with white or yellow follicles
41
39. trench mouth is associated with:
a. streptococcal infection
b. fusobacterium ploutivincenti
c. septicemia
d. treponema pallidum
b. fusobacterium ploutivincenti
42
40. vincent’s stomatitis is associated with:
a. gum infection and very bad breath
b. dental abscess
c. secondary syphilis
d. streptococcal infection
a. gum infection and very bad breath
43
41. ammonia smelling breath is associated with:
a. infection and food
b. ketonemia
c. liver disease
d. uremia
c. liver disease
44
43. black hairy tongue is associated with:
d. aspergillus niger
45
44. white hairy tongue is associated with:
a. scarlet fever
b. riboflavin deficiency
c. candida albicans
d. aspergillus niger
c. candida albicans
46
45. magenta cobblestone tongue is assicated with:
a. scarlet fever
b. riboflavin deficiency
c. candida albicans
d. aspergillus niger
b. riboflavin deficiency
47
46. scrotal tongue is assicated with:
a. longitudinal furrows > Syphilitic Glossitis
b. transverse furrows
c. transient, denuded patches
d. red enlarged fungiform papillae
b. transverse furrows
48
47. geographic tongue is associated with:
a. longitudinal furrows
b. transverse furrows
c. transient, denuded patches
d. red enlarged fungiform papillae
c. transient, denuded patches
49
48. strawberry tongue is associated with:
a. longitudinal furrows
b. transverse furrows
c. transient, denuded patches
d. red enlarged fungiform papillae
d. red enlarged fungiform papillae
