Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical Law And Ethics > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

A fixed payment plan of health insurance offers coverage for…

A

Complete medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Third-party payers are…

A

Insurance companies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The purpose of the gatekeeper is to…

A

Approve all non emergency services, approve hospitalization, and approve tests before they are given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In a managed care organization, financial risk is shared by….

A

Organizations, hospitals, and physicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A gag clause, considered illegal in contracts between physicians and managed care organizations…

A

Prohibits the physician from discussing financial incentives given by the organizations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Managed care organizations may attempt to limit a patient’s…

A

Choice of hospitals, referrals to specialists, length of stays in a hospital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A health maintenance organization provides

A

Healthcare services available for a predetermined fee per member by a limited group of providers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Capitation is

A

A fixed monthly fee paid to the healthcare provider for providing patient services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Medicare is a federal program of

A

Healthcare coverage in which rationing of care might occur in the future and coverage for the elderly and disabled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Medicaid is a

A

Federal program of care for the poor implemented by the states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A medicare-instituted method of hospital payment is

A

DRG(Diagnosis-related groups)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diagnosis related groups refer to

A

The classification of patients of illness by diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Those persons most likely to receive the best care under a managed care system are

A

Those who understand the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Medicare and Medicaid prohibit physicians from

A

Referring to services they own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Different methods of medical practice, such as partnership and corporations, are the result of

A

Increased insurance coverage costs, a desire to better serve patients’ needs, and increased patient-initiated malpractice lawsuits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A practice in which the physician employs other physicians and pays them a salary is called

A

Sole proprietorship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An associate practice is a legal agreement in which the physicians

A

Share a facility and staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A business operation of a medical practice in which two or more physicians are responsible for the actions of each, including debts, is called…

A

Partnership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A medical practice consisting of three or more physicians who practice the same specialty and share expenses and income is a

A

Group practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The members of a professional corporation are known as

A

Shareholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Benefits of a corporation include all of the following except…

A

Protection from the lawsuits for the corporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which form of medical practice ends with the death of the owner?

A

A solo practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Fee splitting occurs when

A

One physician pays another physician for the referral of patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Allied health professionals who are certified include all of the following except

A

Pharmacists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A person with the appropriate education who practices as a doctor of medicine or doctor of osteopathy is called a

A

Physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Decision based on emotion

A

Gut feeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Medical etiquette

A

Standards of professional behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

R/O

A

Rule out diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ethics

A

Branch of philosophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Applied ethics

A

Practical application of moral standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Laws

A

Binding rules determined by an authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Medical ethics

A

Moral conduct to regulate behavior of medical professionals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Beneficence

A

Principle of doing good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Veil of ignorance

A

Justice based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Three step ethics model

A

Kenneth Blanchard and Norman Vincent Peale’s approach to ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When you are trying to solve an ethical dilemma, it is necessary to?

A

Use logic to determine the solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An illegal act is almost always

A

Unethical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

An utilitarian approach to solving ethical dilemmas might be used when?

A

Allocating a limited supply of donor organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Three step approach to solving ethical dilemmas is based on what?

A

Asking ourselves how our decision would make us feel if we had to explain our actions to a loved one, asking ourselves if the intended action results in a balance decision, asking ourselves if the intended action is legal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How can embezzlement be prevented?

A

Checks and balances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Order for a person or document to appear in court?

A

Subpoena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Person who is being sued

A

Defendant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Give up the right to something

A

Waive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Law that covers harm to another person

A

Tort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Earlier ruling applied to present case

A

President

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Failure

A

Breach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Person who sues another party

A

Plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Less serious crime such as a traffic violation

A

Misdemeanor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Oral testimony to be used in court

A

Deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Serious crime such practicing medicine w/out a license

A

Felony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Subpoena duces tecum means?

A

“Under penalty, take with you”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Stare decisis means?

A

“Let the decision stand”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A threat of doing bodily harm to your patient by stating, “if you won’t allow us to continue the procedure, we will have to tie your hands” is…

A

Assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A patient comes in for an exam, they remove their clothing and put on a gown. This would be?

A

Implied consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Endorsement

A

Sanction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Guardian ad liter

A

Court appointed representative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Revoked

A

Medical license taken away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Respondeat superior

A

Let the master answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Statute of limitations

A

Period of time that patient has to file a lawsuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Discovery rule

A

Begins at the time the injury is noticed or should have been noticed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Reciprocity

A

One state granting a license to a physician in another state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Standard of care

A

Ordinary skill that medical practitioners use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Good Samaritan law

A

Law to protect the healthcare professional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Nonrenewal of license

A

Practicing medicine without a license

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

According to the Medical Patients Rights Act, patient information

A

Can never be given out to a third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The term used for a court appointed person to represent a minor or unborn child in litigation is?

A

Guardian ad litem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The prudent person rule refers to?

A

The information that a reasonable patient would need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When the Physician places an ambiguous order, you the healthcare professional…

A

Can decline to carry out the order and should immediately notify the physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Physicians and employees are?

A

Liable in a lawsuit, have the same responsibility to protect patient’s confidentiality, operate under a standard of care, and must be trained to perform a procedure before attempting it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does JCAHO mean?

A

Joint Commission of Accreditation of Healthcare Organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The contract for services with a physician includes…

A

An agreement to pay for services for as long as they are received by the patient, truthful disclosure of conditions by the patient, and an agreement to provide services by the doctor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Physicians may…

A

Refuse to treat patients, except emergencies, and withdraw from a contract if the patient is uncooperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

An increase in malpractice insurance premiums has caused

A

Physicians to charge more for services than in the past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A physician can turn away patients that

A

They have not agreed to treat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

An indigent patient is one who

A

Is unable to pay for medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Abandonment can be avoided by

A

Giving formal notice of withdrawal from a case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The physician, by law, must report to the state any person who…

A

Is HIV or AIDS positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The physician who believes that his or her AIDS patient may place the health of others in jeopardy has an ethical obligation to…

A

Persuade the patient to inform his or her partners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Testing for HIV first requires

A

The patient’s informed consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A report of HIV or AIDS diagnosis must be completed by the

A

Physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Patient confidentiality does not apply in the case of

A

The life or safety of the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Medical ethicists currently encourage healthcare providers to

A

Focus on the consequences of an action while protecting the patient and apply the principles of justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The patient has a right to

A

Deny any treatment, give informed consent for any treatment, and expect the appropriate standards of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Minor children may receive life-saving treatment

A

Even though the parents refuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A breach of confidentiality is considered unethical and illegal, and is prohibited by

A

HIPAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Confidential information that has been told to a physician by the patient is called

A

Privileged communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A statement of the patient’s intentions for healthcare-related decisions is called

A

An advanced directive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A patient request to either use or not use life-sustaining treatments and artificial nutritional support is known as

A

A living will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The authority of a healthcare agent to act on behalf of the patient

A

Continues even if the patient is physically or mentally incapacitated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

A minor is one who

A

Is less tha 18 and is not considered competent to give consent for most treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The patients signature on an informed consent form indicates

A

Understanding of treatment options, expressed consent, understanding of the limits or risks in the pending treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Patients who indicate by their behavior that they will accept a procedure are providing

A

Implied consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Exceptions to obtaining consent may include

A

Commonly known risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Refusal for medical or surgical treatment by the patient must be honored if

A

The patient is concerned about the success of the procedure, the patient is not confident in physician, religious beliefs against the procedure are expressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

One of the best ways to prevent medical errors is for the patient to

A

Be a better informed consumer of medical services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Failure to perform an action that a reasonable person would have performed in a similar situation is

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Performing a wrong and illegal act is considered

A

Malfeasance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Professional misconduct or demonstration of an unreasonable lack of skill with the result of injury, loss or damage to the patient is

A

Malpractice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Negligence is composed of four elements

A

Duty, dereliction of duty, direct or proximate cause, and damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The reasonable person standard refers to

A

Duty of due care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The standard of care for physicians and other healthcare professionals is determined by

A

What members of the same profession would do in a similar situation within the same geographic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

To prove dereliction of duty, a patient would have to prove the physician

A

Did not conform to the acceptable standard of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The the things that speaks for itself applies to the law of negligence and is the doctoring of

A

Res Pisa loquitur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Monetary awards by a court to a person who has been harmed in an especially malicious or willful way are

A

Punitive damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

To win a wrongful death case, the plaintiff must prove

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The most common defense provided by the defendant in a medical malpractice case is called

A

Denial defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Assumption of risk the legal defense

A

That prevents the plaintiff from recovering damages if he or she accepts a risk associated with the activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When an employer lends an employee to someone else, this is called

A

The borrowed servant doctrine

109
Q

The statute of limitations for a case begins to run

A

When the injury is discovered

110
Q

Deliberate concealment of the facts from a patient is

A

Fraud

111
Q

Res judicata means

A

The thing has been decided

112
Q

The legal relationship formed between two people when one person agrees to perform work for another person is called

A

The law of agency

113
Q

Protection for the physician/employer by the healthcare professional is best accomplished by

A

Having a job description with clearly defined responsibilities, duties, and necessary skills, using extremes care when performing his or her job, and carrying out only those procedures for which he or she is trained

114
Q

Responsibility for action in employment is ultimately assigned to the

A

Employer

115
Q

A contact by which one person promises to compensate or reimburse another if he or she suffers a loss form a specific cause or a negligent act is

A

Liability insurance

116
Q

Coverage of the insured party for all injuries and incidents that occurred while the policy was in effect, regardless of when they are reported is

A

Occurrence insured

117
Q

A general liability policy that covers any negligence on the part of the physician’s staff would include

A

A rider of the malpractice policy

118
Q

Submitting a dispute to a person other than a judge is called

A

Arbitration

119
Q

An important reason for arbitration of civil cases is to save

A

Time and money

120
Q

The only health professional who not usually employed by the physician is the

A

Pharmacist

121
Q

Data, such as birth and death dates, are used by the government to

A

Determine population trends and needs

122
Q

Public duties for the physician include reporting

A

Births and still births, deaths and injuries, and communicable illnesses or diseases,

123
Q

The live birth certificate must be signed by the

A

Physician who delivered the child and person in attendance in a home birth

124
Q

A death certificate must include the

A

Date and time of death, name of the parents of the deceased, and location of the place of death.

125
Q

A coroner or medical examiner must sign the death certificate of the deceased when

A

No physician was present at the time of death, a violent death occurred, and the death occurred when the deceased was in jail or or prison

126
Q

A medical examiner is a

A

Physician

127
Q 
Which of the following is not a reportable communicable disease:
Tetanus
Tuberculosis
Chicken pox
Gonorrhea
A

Chicken pox

128
Q

Which of the following is/are required by the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986?

A

The polio virus vaccine, live and the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine

129
Q

A physician reporting possible child abuse

A

May not be sued by the parents of the child for defamation and may file an initial oral report followed by a written report.

130
Q

Failure to report a suspected case of child abuse may result in a charge of

A

Misdemeanor

131
Q

Elder abuse may legally include all of the following except

A

Verbal abuse

132
Q

Injuries, fractures, pain in the genital area, and weight loss may be signs of

A

Physical abuse

133
Q

Evidence gathered in an abuse case may include

A

Pictures of bruises or injuries, urine specimens, and clothing

134
Q

Chain of evidence refers to all of the following except

A

Clothing evidence that is clean and dry

135
Q

Conditions such as cancer, epilepsy, and congenital disorders of the newborn are often reported to government agencies in order to

A

Maintain accurate public health statistics

136
Q

Enforcement of drugs sales an distribution is through the

A

Food and Drug Administration

137
Q

The purpose of the DEA is to

A

Regulate the Controlled Substances Act of 1970

138
Q

Registration for physicians who administer controlled substances must be renewed every

A

3 years

139
Q

The proper method of destroying a controlled substance that needs to be disposed of “disposed of or wasted” is to

A

Flush it down a toilet as advised by the manufacturer.

140
Q

The penalty for violation of the Controlled Substances Act is

A

A fine, loss of license to practice medicine, and a jail sentence.

141
Q

DEA registration numbers are available to

A

Physicians

142
Q

Prescriptions for Schedule 2 controlled substances can

A

Not be refilled

143
Q

A program of management-financed and confidential counseling and referral service designed to help employees and/or their family members assess a problem is the

A

EAP

144
Q

It is estimated that personal problems related to alcohol and/or drug abuse cost the U.S. economy more than_______ of it $70 billion budget yearly.

A

%50

145
Q

Hazardous medical waste includes

A

Infectious waste from body fluid contract and radioactive waste.

146
Q

Laws regulating employment relationships, recruitment, placement, pay plans, benefits, penalties and terminations are based primarily on

A

Job performance

147
Q

Employment-at-will allows the

A

Employee to quit at any time, and employer to terminate the employee at any time

148
Q

Discrimination in the form of unfair treatment in employment based on race, color, religion, sex or national origin is covered through

A

Title VII

149
Q

Medicare and Medicaid forbid discrimination in

A

patient-care institutions

150
Q

Sexual harassment includes

A

Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature

151
Q

The Civil Rights ACT of 1991 permits the court to award _______ to mistreated employees

A

Compensatory and punitive damages

152
Q

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 protects persons _______ or older against employment discrimination.

A

40 years

153
Q

The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 requires the employer to make

A

Reasonable accommodations for disabled employees

154
Q

OSHA represents the

A

Occupation Safety and Health Act

155
Q

Rules to protect healthcare workers from blood borne pathogens are regulated by the

A

OSHA

156
Q

The Health Maintenance Organization Act of 1973 requires that any company with 25 employees must provide

A

An HMO alternative to regular group insurance

157
Q

COBRA of 1985 provides that a company with 20 or more employees must provide extended healthcare insurance to terminated employees fo up to

A

18 months, usually athe employee’s expense.

158
Q

Through the Drug-Free Workplace Act, employers contracting to provide good or services to the federal government must certify that

A

A drug-free workplace is maintained

159
Q

The Failr Labor Standards Act of 1938 regulates employee benefits such as

A

Minimum wage, payment for overtime work, and hours that are worked.

160
Q

The origin of the current unemployment insurance program for employees who are unable to work through no fault of their own is the

A

Social Security Act

161
Q

The Equal Pay Act of 1963 makes it illegal for an employer to discriminate on the basis of

A

Gender

162
Q

A fine imposed by the federal gov’t for employers not contributing to Social Security for their employees is mandated by the

A

Federal Insurance Contribution Act

163
Q

The Workers’ Compensation Act protects workers and their families from financial problems resulting from

A

Employment-related injury, disease, or death

164
Q

The Family and medical Leave Act of 1994 allows

A

The mom and dad to take a leave of absence of up to 12 weeks in any 12-month period when a baby is born and an unpaid medical leave for up to 12 weeks of leave for their own or a family member’s medical or family related situation

165
Q

Guidelines for use of an individual’s credit information are stablished by the

A

Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1971

166
Q

The fAir Debt Collection Practices Act prohibits phone calls for the purpose of debt collection

A

Before 8 am

167
Q

The portion of a paycheck that may be paid directly to an employee’s creditors is established by the

A

Federal Wages Garnishment Law

168
Q

Under the Family and Medical Leave Act, the employee

A

Must be returned to the same or equivalent position when he or she returns.

169
Q

The Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Act relates to

A

Patient “dumping”

170
Q

An unfair dislike or preference against someone is called

A

Bias

171
Q

A private or public healthcare entity that facilitates the processing of nonstandard electronic transactions into HIPAA transactions is…

A

Clearinghouse

172
Q

A healthcare organization covered under HIPAA regulations is

A

Covered entity

173
Q

A number assigned to an employer for purposes of identification is the

A

Employer ID number

174
Q

The individual or group that provides or pays for the patient’s medical care is the

A

Healthcare plan

175
Q

A national source of reports of actions taken against healthcare providers, practitioners, and vendors who are in noncompliance or performing fraudulent activities is the…

A

Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank

176
Q

The use of communication and information in medical practice, research, and education is called

A

Medical informatics

177
Q

the reasonable effort that a healthcare provider uses to limit disclosure of patient information is referred to as

A

The minimum necessary standard

178
Q

The objective of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1998 is to

A

Combat fraud, abuse, and waste in healthcare, promote medical savings accounts, and simplify the administration of health insurance

179
Q

The federal office that investigates violations of HIPAA is the

A

Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank

180
Q

Which title of HIPAA most affects confidentiality issues for healthcare providers?

A

Title 2: Administrative simplification

181
Q

The privacy rule is meant o ensure that there are

A

Security of electronic transfer of information and disclosure of only the necessary information

182
Q

Protected health information relates to

A

Past, present, and future individually identifiable health information

183
Q

Those who would be covered under HIPAA include

A

Life insurers, information system vendors, universities

184
Q

Healthcare fraud alerts are issued by the

A

Inspector General of the HHS

185
Q

REsearchers who wish to obtain individually identifiable medical information must…

A

Obtain a patient authorization that complies with the rules set by HIPAA

186
Q

An exception to the release of information policy under HIPAA would allow information to be released to

A

The police investigating a crime

187
Q

Violation of HIPAA is a

A

Federal criminal offense

188
Q

The original intent of HIPAA was to

A

Protect computerized medical records and billing and provide easier access of medical records for the patient

189
Q

HIPAA allows all of the following except

A

Complete disclosure of patient information by an EMT

190
Q

HIPAA law stipulates that the patient…

A

May sue over privacy violations and may register a complaint to the gov’t

191
Q

Suggestions for physician and physician groups when implementing HIPAA include

A

Appointing and training a privacy officer, adopting procedures for handling patient requests, and implementing a notice of privacy practices.

192
Q

Signed authorizations and any agreements with patient restricting disclosure of PHI should be retained for a period of

A

6 years

193
Q

Wireless local area networks are used by physicians and nurses to

A

Access patient records from central databases and add patient observations and assessments to databases

194
Q

The application of communication and information to medical practice, research, and education is called

A

Informatics

195
Q

The use of communications and information technologies to provide healthcare services to people at a distance is known as

A

Telemedicine.

196
Q

Branch of philosophy relating to morals or moral principles is

A

Ethics

197
Q

Applied ethics relates to

A

Healthcare professionals

198
Q

Issues discussed in the context of advanced medical technology are called

A

Bioethics

199
Q

Illegal acts are

A

Usually unethical

200
Q

The code of ethics dealings with experimentation on human subjects is

A

The Nuremberg code

201
Q

The father of medicine, who wrote a statement of principles for his medical students to follow

A

Hippocrates

202
Q

The issue of a warning or censure by the American medical Association to a physician occurs when the physician

A

Is accused of unethical behavior or conduct

203
Q

An allegation of a criminal act by a physician requires that the

A

Act be reported to the state licensing aboard or gov’tal agency

204
Q

The loss of a physician’s license is called

A

Revocation

205
Q

The concern for the human subject in medical experimentation is the result of the

A

Nuremberg Code

206
Q

The AAMA has developed a code of ethics for the

A

Medical assistant

207
Q

The thick committees of a hospital serves ina n advisory capacity to patients, families, and staff to

A

Decide who gets donated organs, review difficult ethical issues, determine when care will be discontinued.

208
Q

The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act

A

Permits competent adults to allow posthumous use of their organs through a written document

209
Q

Giving organs to patients who will benefit the most is called

A

Social utility

210
Q

The National Organ Transplant Law of 1984

A

Forbids the sale of organs

211
Q

Allocating organs for transplants is handled through

A

The United Network for Organ Sharing

212
Q

An employee should state a preference for not wishing to be involved in assisting with a procedure

A

Before being hired

213
Q

Research that will not directly benefit the research subjects is

A

Nontherapeutic

214
Q

An institutional review board in a hospital or university receiving federal research funds

A

Oversees any human research in the facility

215
Q

Medical research that may directly benefit the research subject is

A

Therapeutic

216
Q

Placing the researcher’s interests above the patient’s interests is considered

A

A conflict of interest

217
Q

In a double-blind test

A

Neither the experimenter nor the patient knows who is getting the research treatment

218
Q

Standards of professional behavior practice by physicians in their relationship or conduct with other physicians is called

A

Medical etiquette

219
Q

A decision model for helping resolve ethical issues include asking

A

Who do we know? Who is involved? Where and when does the situation occur?

220
Q

The administration of a lethal agent by another person to a patient for the purpose of relieving intolerable and incurable suffering is

A

Euthanasia

221
Q

In the stage of human development between the 2nd and 12th week, the developing life is

A

An embryo

222
Q

The gestational period is the

A

Time from conception to birth

223
Q

AIDS is the same as

A

Artificial insemination donor

224
Q

The most common legal and ethical concern related to AIDS is

A

Legitimacy of the child and its support

225
Q

AIDS records are

A

Confidential, not a public record, handled the same as adoption papers

226
Q

In vitro fertilization occurs as a result of

A

Growth of the fertilized ovum in the lab and implantation of the fertilized ovum in the uterus.

227
Q

Surrogate motherhood allows the

A

Surrogate mother to be paid for medical expenses

228
Q

The use of fertility drugs

A

Increases the chance of multiple births

229
Q

Any action taken to prevent pregnancy from occurring is

A

Contraception

230
Q

A woman’s right to privacy, including the right to an abortion, is guaranteed by

A

Roe vs. Wade

231
Q

The process of medically altering reproductive organs to prevent the possibility of producing children is

A

Sterilization

232
Q

Sterilization requires

A

Written consent and a mentally competent adult

233
Q

Voluntary sterilization of unmarried minors is

A

Forbidden in many states and allowed with authorization of the minor and parent or guardian in some states

234
Q

Eugenic sterilization is

A

Considered unethical by many people

235
Q

Castration or sterilization of another person without legal permission is considered to be

A

Assault and battery

236
Q

The termination of a pregnancy before the fetus is viable is called

A

Induced and spontaneous abortion

237
Q

Initially, Roe v. Wade said that during the third trimester of pregnancy, the state

A

May prohibit abortions except to save the life of the mother

238
Q

Recommendations from Roe v. Wade decision included all of the following except

A

Viability of the fetus in not required

239
Q

A person appointed by the court to speak on behalf of an incapacitated party is called the

A

Guardian ad litem

240
Q

Pro-choice advocates believe that

A

Women have the right to choose what to do with their bodies, legalized abortions are safer for the woman, and a woman has the right to an abortion when she is the victim of rape or incest.

241
Q

Right-to-life advocates argue all of the following except

A

The right of the unborn child take precedence over the right of the mother

242
Q

The conscience clause refers to

A

Hospitals not choosing to perform sterilization procedures and physicians and hospital personnel not being required to participate in sterilization

243
Q

The study of heredity and its variations was discovered by

A

Gregor Mendel

244
Q

A means to detect couples who are at risk of passing on a genetic disease to their offspring is called

A

Genetic counseling

245
Q

Criteria or standards that assist in the determination of death include

A

A significant drop of body temp and rigor Morris

246
Q

A legal death is a

A

Cardiac death

247
Q

Prolonged absence of oxygen can result in

A

Neurological damage, brain death, and cardiac death

248
Q

According to the brain-oriented death definition, death occurs when

A

There is irreversible cessation of all brain functions

249
Q

Discontinuing ventilation support for a patient who is brain dead will result in

A

Cardiac death

250
Q

Most widely accepted legal definition of death in US?

A

Multi-organ death

251
Q

Irreversible coma include all of the following criteria except

A

Spontaneous movement or breathing

252
Q

Which action is considered active euthanasia

A

Intentionally foregoing life-sustaining treatment

253
Q

Ethical considerations of the terminally ill patient include

A

Withdrawing versus withholding treatment, active vs. passive euthanasia, and ordinary vs extraordinary means

254
Q

Withdrawing life-sustaining treatment refers to

A

Discontinuing artificial methods of maintaining life

255
Q

Patients have the legal right to

A

Refuse treatment, food, and fluids

256
Q

The intentional killing of the terminally ill is called

A

Active euthanasia

257
Q

Justifications for euthanasia include

A

Individuals should have the right to determine the outcome of their lives

258
Q

Active euthanasia

A

Is illegal and violates the medical profession’s ethics

259
Q

Advice regarding the course of action taken for a dying loved one can be given by

A

The physician

260
Q

The double-effect doctrine recognizes that an action may have

A

Two consequences: one desired, one undesired

261
Q

A treatment or procedure that is morally required is considered

A

Ordinary and appropriate

262
Q

Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross is known for her study of

A

Stages of death and dying

263
Q

A facility with a homelike atmosphere where terminally ill patients find comfort until death is called a

A

Hospice

264
Q

The focus of hospice care is

A

Comfort measure, emotional support, relief from pain

265
Q

The total care of patients whose disease is no longer responsive to curative therapy is

A

Palliative care

266
Q

Viatical settlement allow terminally ill persons to

A

Obtain money from their life insurance policies

267
Q

Healthcare facilities, in order to receive Medicare or Medicaid funding, must ask patients if they have

A

An advance directive

268
Q

Persons who cannot exercise the fundamental right to self-determination include

A

Persons who suffer irreversible brain damage, such as those who Alzheimer’s disease

269
Q

A DNR order can be place don the medical chart of a patient by the

A

Physician

Medical Law And Ethics (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions