Final Flashcards

1
Q

What means the ability to transmit electrical current for one cell to another

A

conductivity

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2
Q

the P wave of an ECG complex represents

A

Firing of the SA node and Atrial depolarization

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3
Q

What phase is the plateau stage of the action potential

A

phase 2

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4
Q

The imaginary line that can be drawn between the positive and negative electrodes in leads I, II, and III is called

A

axis

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5
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system

A

slows the heart rate and AV conduction

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6
Q

You do a 12 lead ECG on a chronic emphysema pt and note large, peaked P waves in leads I and II this would be termed as

A

Cor Pulmonale

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7
Q
Which of the following are unipolar leads
I. aVL
II. Lead II
III. Lead III
IV. aVR
V. V6
A

I. aVL
IV. aVR
V. V6

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8
Q

QRS complex represents

A

Ventricular depolarization and Ventricular contraction (A and D)

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9
Q

What is the rapid upstroke in the action potential (phase)

A

Phase 0

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10
Q

The entire sequence of electrical changes during depolarization and repolarization is called

A

action potential

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11
Q

The PR interval represents

A

Total atrial electrical activity prior to the activation of the bundle of His

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12
Q

What conducts electrical impulses from the SA node directly to the left atrium

A

Bachmanns bundle

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13
Q

An increased duration or amplitude of the P wave indicates the presence of atrial abnormalities, such as hypertension, valvular disease, COPD, and CHF T/F

A

True

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14
Q

Which of the following monitor the elctrical activity of the heart in the frontal plane

A

aVL, aVF, lead II, lead I

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15
Q

The sympathetic neural fibers innervate the

A

Atrium of the heart and Ventricles of the heart

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16
Q

An elevated ST segment above the isoelectric line can be a sign of

A

myocardial injury

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17
Q

The small squares on standard ECG paper represent

A

0.04 seconds

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18
Q

Which of the following phases is called the resting state

A

Phase 4

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19
Q
T waves are sensitive indicators for the presence of a number of abnormalities such as 
I. Acid-Base imbalances
II. Hyperventilation
III. Hyperkalemia
IV. Ischemia
V. Various drugs
A

(all of the above)

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20
Q

An electrical difference across the fibers of the heart is called

A

resting membrane potential

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21
Q

the norm duration of the P wave is no longer than

A

0.8 to 0.11 seconds

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22
Q

When the parasympathetic system is stimulated the heart rate increases T/F

A

False

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23
Q

When can a strong stimulus cause an unwanted depolarization of the heart

A

Relative refractory period

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24
Q

If there is a complete heart block at the AV node, the ventricular escape rate at which the ventricles will pace themselves is

A

20-40 bpm

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25
Q

U waves are of opposite polarity of the T wave T/F

A

false

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26
Q
5 small boxes are found in each larger box on ECG paper. this is equal to
A. 0.04
B. 0.20
C. 0.5
D. B &C
A

D. B&C

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27
Q

The AV node is located

A

just behind the tricuspid valve in the lower portion of the right interatrial septum

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28
Q

All electrical deflections above the isoelectric line are termed

A

positive deflections

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29
Q

The SA node is also called the

A

Pacemaker

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30
Q

The QT interval is measured from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave T/F

A

True

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31
Q

The normal duration of the PR interval is no longer than

A

0.20

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32
Q
there is an electrical delay at the AV node which allows
I. The atrium to finish contraction
II. For the atrium to repolarize
III. The ventricles to fill with blood
IV. Maximize the preload
A

I, III, IV

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33
Q

Normal QRS complex is less than

A

0.12

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34
Q

The normal duration of the T wave is

A

0.20

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35
Q

A normal 12 lead ECG contains 6 limb leads and 6 chest leads

A

true

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36
Q

Regulation of the heart is controlled by
I. the autonomic nervous system
II. The sympathetic nervous system
III. The para-sympathetic nervous system

A

All of the above

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37
Q

What leads monitors the right ventricle

A

VI and V2

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38
Q

What leads monitors the left ventricle

A

V5 and V6

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39
Q

What leads monitor the AV septum

A

V3 and V4

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40
Q

When doing an ECG the paper speed of the recorder is standard at

A

25 mm/ second

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41
Q

When the ventricles depolarize, they contraction in a downward direction T/F

A

false

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42
Q

Electrical conductive pathway of heart

A

Superior Vena Cava, SA node, Left atria, Right Atria, AV node, Bundle of His, Bundle branches, Purkinje fibers, Interventricular septum

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43
Q

Norm body temp

A

98.6

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44
Q

Norm BP

A

120/80

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45
Q

Norm HR

A

60-80 bpm

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46
Q

Norm RR

A

12-20

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47
Q

The top number in a BP reading is the

A

Systolic pressure

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48
Q

If a pt has a blood pressure of 88/50, this is called

A

Hypotension

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49
Q

The term afebrile means

A

the patient does not have a fever

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50
Q

A now common fifth vital sign in the hospital is

A

pain

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51
Q

Appropriate use of touch is

A

a reassuring squeeze of the hand

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52
Q

Pt oriented x3

A

Name, place, time

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53
Q

Thick, viscous, colored, and often in globs with an offensive odor describes which type of sputum

A

mucopurulent

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54
Q

the term used to describe fainting is

A

syncope

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55
Q

A cough is considered chronic if it lasts more than

A

Eight weeks

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56
Q

Tachypnea

A

Both an increased depth and rate of breathing

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57
Q

Cyclic changes in breathing pattern: respirations stop for 5-30 seconds and gradually increase in volume and then gradually decreases in intensity until other pause occurs

A

Kussmauls breathing

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58
Q

An increased alveolar ventilation that causes the PaO2 to decrease

A

Hyperventilation

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59
Q

Short, rapid breathing episodes, interrupted with 1-30 second pauses

A

Biots breathing

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60
Q

Absense of spontaneous breathing

A

Apnea

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61
Q

Rapid breathing

A

Hyperpnea

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62
Q

Shortness of breathing except when sitting upright

A

Orthopnea

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63
Q

Presence of normal spontaneous breathing

A

Eupnea

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64
Q

Decreased alveolar ventilation that causes an increased PaCO2

A

Hypoventilation

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65
Q

A subjective realization by the pt that breathing is difficult

A

dyspnea

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66
Q

Term for low temp

A

hypothermic

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67
Q

Term for high heart rate

A

tachycardia

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68
Q

Term for high BP

A

Hypertension

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69
Q

high RR

A

Tachypnea

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70
Q

If a pt has a BP of 88/50 this is called

A

hypotension

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71
Q

Afebrile

A

the pt does not have a fever

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72
Q

Dependent edema

A

swelling of the feet

73
Q

Increased Jugular venous pressure is indicative of

A

Right heart failure

74
Q

Pt wakes up in the middle of the night sweating profusely is having

A

diaphoresis

75
Q

THe liver is located in which abdominal quadrant

A

Right upper

76
Q

Most common symptom in pt with pulmonary disease

A

shortness of breath

77
Q

a PT with heart sounds S1 and S2 has

A

normal heart sounds

78
Q

Chest pain thats sharp in nature and on inspiration only is most likely

A

pleuritic

79
Q

Which term is used to describe the expectoration of sputum containing blood

A

Hemoptysis

80
Q

an acute onset of a cough is usually from

A

a common cold

81
Q

fainting term

A

syncope

82
Q

Pt with fixed and dilated pupils and decerebrate posturing most likely has

A

minor brain damage

83
Q

Social distance and interaction

A

4-12, formal- introduction

84
Q

Personal distance and interaction

A

0.5-4 , interview

85
Q

Intimate distance and interaction

A

0-18, taking vitals

86
Q

A pt present with a fever, chills and night sweats. which of the following should be a possible diagnosis

A

heart failure

87
Q

Term for Normal breath sounds

A

Vesicular

88
Q

Term for loud, high pitched sounds that frequently may be heard without a stethoscope, usuually on inspiration

A

Stridor

89
Q

High or low pitched continuous sounds hear mainly on expiration

A

Wheezes

90
Q

Discontinuous sounds that can be fine or coarse

A

Crackles

91
Q

Abnormal breath sounds

A

Adventitious

92
Q

Loud sounds with equal sound during inspiration and expiration, similar to sounds heard over large upper airways

A

Bronchial

93
Q

Discontinuous abnormal lung sounds are called

A

Crackles

94
Q

Continous abnormal lung sounds are called

A

wheezes

95
Q

late inspiratory crackles are indicative of

A

atelectasis

96
Q

bronchospasm will most likely produce which type of lung sound

A

wheezes

97
Q

Consolidation of the lung tissue will produce which type of lung sounds

A

Bronchial

98
Q

The sound heard when collapsed airways pop open during inspiration are called

A

crackles

99
Q

How to listen to breath sounds

A

Use the flat side, and compare side to side

100
Q

Stidor is associated with which disease

A

croup

101
Q

Low pitched wheezes are a sign of

A

mucus in the airway

102
Q

A pleural friction rub is caused from

A

irritated pleural lining

103
Q

4 components of the physical examination of the chest

A

inspection, palpation, percussion, ausculation

104
Q

Increased A-P diameter is also known as

A

barrel chest

105
Q

Cardiac murmur is an extra sound heard in conjuction with S1 and S2 murmurs occur when

A

blood regurgitates into the chamber from which it came

106
Q

On palpation of the chest subcutaneous emphysema is indicative of

A

air leaks from the lungs

107
Q

A pt with kyphoscoliosis would be detected on which exam

A

inspection

108
Q

a pt with dullness to percussion over the right lower lobe probably has

A

consolidation

109
Q

a pt comes into the ER with shortness of breath and blue cast to the mucousal membrane, what condition pt have

A

central cyanosis

110
Q

COPD showing signs of resp distress, which would be expected to observe

A

Nasal flaring, pedal edema, accessory muscle use, pursed lip breathing

111
Q
Pt with digital clubbing has a chronic hypoxia, which of the following diseases would not lead to this?
A, Cystic fibrosis
B. COPD
C. CHF
D. acute asthma
A

D. acute asthma

112
Q

Normal SpO2 for an adult on RA

A

93-97%

113
Q

Sputum containing blood

A

hematemesis

114
Q

Low pitch wheezes and coarse crackles are also known as

A

rhonchi

115
Q

Whose law defines the relationship between the concentration of a substance and the amount of light absorbed

A

Beer-lamberts law

116
Q

Transcutaneous blood gas monitoring occurs where on the pt

A

the skin surface

117
Q

What % accuracy does pulse oximetry have is the O2 saturation is above 80%

A

+/- 4%

118
Q

What other two things can attach to the hemoglobin that would affect the O2 saturation

A

methehemoglobin, carboxyhemoglobin

119
Q

How does impedance pneumography work

A

detects distance change between 2 electrodes on the chest

120
Q

what two light wave lengths does oximetry use to detect O2 saturation

A

red and infrared

121
Q

Other than carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin what two other things can induce considerable error in pulse oximetry accuracy

A

Motion, poor perfusion

122
Q

Main advantage of Mass Spectrometers

A

They are able to analyze all resp gases, breath by breath

123
Q

5 different oximetry probes

A

Finger, toe, forehead, ear, foot

124
Q

What does sidestream capnography use to obtain the exhaled CO2 sample

A

small bore tubing is used to aspirate gas from or adjacent to the airway

125
Q

List 3 things that might cause an increase in the PetCO2

A

Fever, Hypoventilation, Increased metabolic rate

126
Q

End-tidal PCO2 often is an imprecise reflection of PaCO2 T/F

A

true

127
Q

Red light wave length (660nm) is absorbed by the

A

oxyhemoglobin

128
Q

Impedance pneumography detects resp effort, but does it ALWAYS mean there is lung ventilation?

A

NO

129
Q

SaO2 of 90% is equivalent to

A

PaO2 of 60mmHG

130
Q

What patient population is transcutaneous monitoring used mostly on

A

infants

131
Q

4 advantages of mainstream capnography

A

No lag time, Close to pts airway, Accurate reading of CO2, heated to decrease build up of secretions

132
Q

Impedance pneumography is detecting resp effort, but the airflow sensor at the mouth is not sensing any airflow, this might indicate

A

Obstructive apnea

133
Q

Transcutaneous blood gas monitoring is able to monitor both O2 and CO2

A

True

134
Q

Pt goes apneic what alarm would you expect to be triggered first

A

capnography

135
Q

Most significant hazard if transcutaneous blood gas monitoring is the possibility of

A

thermal injury to the skin beneath the electrode site

136
Q

Mainstream capnography may be adversely affected by what

A

mucus debris secretions

137
Q

Capnography be beneficial when

A

CHF, Pulmonary emolism, COPD

138
Q

Standard chest Xray

A

Posterior-anterior

139
Q

ETT placement check on heavily sedated pt what type of xrap

A

portable anterior-posterior

140
Q

ETT placed what should the primary focus be

A

ETT placement

141
Q

ETT positioned

A

3-5cm above the carina

142
Q

Pleural space on xrap

A

black

143
Q

First sign of hypoxia

A

increase HR confusion

144
Q

ARDS is characterized by which radiological finding

A

reticular pattern (ground glass)

145
Q

Pt with elevated diaphragms and volume loss on their chest radiograph most likely has which condition

A

atelectasis

146
Q

A pt with a consolidation in the right lower lobe may have which findings on a chest xray

A

air bronchograms

147
Q

A pt with hyperinflation due to COPD will usually have which type of findings on a chest xray

  1. flat diaphragm
  2. small narrow heart
  3. increased anterior-posterior
  4. atelectasis
A

I, 2, and 3

148
Q

A pt with a pleural effusion may have which finding on a chest film

A

blunting of the costophrenic angles

149
Q

a small pneumothorax is more easily seen on which type of fild

A

expiratory film

150
Q

Chest xray shows Kerley B lines and an enlarged heart, which condition is most probable

A

CHF

151
Q

Pneumonia is associated with which of the following

A

Air bronchograms, Volume loss, Pneumonia

152
Q

A pt has a shadow in their lower lobe, to best locate the possible tumor which test would be most helpful

A

CT scan of the chest

153
Q

A pt has a suspected pulmonary embolism, which of the following tests would be most helpful

A

CT scan of the chest

154
Q

A pt with black areas around the edge of the lung with no lung markings, a visible lung border on the left and a mediastinal shift to the right most likely has

A

a tension pneumothroax on the left

155
Q

If a pt has obscuring of the diaphragm on a PA chest radiograph which test would be used to assess if there is free fluid in the pleural space

A

lateral decubitus

156
Q

ECG rhythms that is fatal if not treated immediately

A

ventricular fibrillation

157
Q

Which test uses magnets to detail body organs

A

MRI

158
Q

Oxygen is what color

A

green

159
Q

A pt comes in with an elevated WBC caused by high neutrophils what is the most likely cause

A

bacterial infection

160
Q

COPD pt with chronically low PaO2 levels may develop which of the following conditions to help correct the chronic hypoxemia

A

polycethemia

161
Q

Which values should you check before you draw an ABG

A

INR

162
Q

Low WBC

A

Leukopnea

163
Q

Allergy induced asthma with what type of WBC

A

Neutrophils

164
Q

Cardiac pt has a potassium level of 2.5. what would this be called

A

Hypokalemia

165
Q

Wheening which test could be an indicator that the pt may not have a good muscle strength

A

Electrolyte imbalance

166
Q

Which of the following values is the lowest “safe” level for oxygenation of all the tissues in the body

A

SpO2 of 90%

167
Q

A pt on Lasix (diuretic) should have which type of the following electrolyte replaced

A

KCL

168
Q

A patient with hyperglycemia may have which type of the following conditions

A

diabetes

169
Q

RBC count

A

4.7-6.1

170
Q

Hemoglobin (male) values

A

12-16g/100ml

171
Q

Hematocrit (male) values

A

42-52%

172
Q

WBC values

A

4000-11,000

173
Q

A reduced hemoglobin
I. Is called Anemia
II. Reduces the O2 carrying capacity of the blood
III. Can be caused by a electrolyte imbalance
IV. Usually accompanies a reduce hematocrit

A

I, II, and IV

174
Q

A pt that has a heart attack will usually have an elevated troponin due to

A

tissue damage

175
Q

The skin used to test for TB is

A

mantoux

176
Q

How does impedance pneumography work

A

Detects distance change between 2 electrodes on the chest

177
Q

Test is used to identify an abnormal clotting time and is used to identify pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis

A

D-Dimer

178
Q

A prolonged prothrombin time can be reversed with

A

Fresh frozen plasma and Vitamin K

179
Q

The mantoux test uses what ingredient

A

PPD