Final Flashcards
(779 cards)
1
Q
The process of photosynthesis results in the formation of two substances essential to our existence:
A
sugar and oxygen.
2
Q
Life existed on Earth as early as ______ years ago.
A
3 to 4 billion
3
Q
Which of the following statements about stromatolites is FALSE?
A
They are fossil structures, with none alive today.
4
Q
On Mars, there is evidence for the presence of water in the form of______.
A
ice, liquid water and snow
5
Q
Which of the following statements about proteinoid microspheres is FALSE?
A
They are thought to be the first forms of life.
6
Q
Which of the following statements concerning primitive cells is FALSE?
A
They constructed new cells from organic molecules made via photosynthesis.
7
Q
A heterotroph:
A
is exemplified by a fungus.
8
Q
Which of the following statements about photosynthetic autotrophs is FALSE?
A
They obtain their required organic compounds from external sources.
9
Q
Which of the following statements concerning the earliest photosynthetic organisms is FALSE?
A
They have been found in rocks 4 billion years old.
10
Q
The oxygen gas released in photosynthesis originates from:
A
water.
11
Q
Atmospheric levels of oxygen gas approached modern levels approximately ______ years ago.
A
500 million
12
Q
Ozone in the outer layer of the atmosphere has important consequences for living things in that it:
A
absorbs ultraviolet rays from sunlight.
13
Q
Respiration refers to the process by which organisms:
A
break down molecules under aerobic conditions.
14
Q
Prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells in that prokaryotic cells:
A
lack a nuclear envelope.
15
Q
Which are prokaryotic organisms?
A
cyanobacteria and archaea
16
Q
The first cells on Earth were most likely:
A
archaeans.
17
Q
Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of photosynthetic organisms to rocky coasts?
A
pigment systems
18
Q
The function of the cuticle is:
A
retarding water loss.
19
Q
The function of stomata is:
A
regulating the exchange of gases.
20
Q
Which of the following statements concerning stomata is FALSE?.
A
They form a waxy covering on all aboveground portions of the plant.
21
Q
In perennials, the ______ is most similar in function to the cuticle-covered epidermis of annuals.
A
cork
22
Q
Water is transported upward through the plant body in the:
A
xylem.
23
Q
The food manufactured by photosynthesis is transported throughout the plant body in the:
A
phloem.
24
Q
The function of phloem is to ______.
A
transport food
25
If a plant is a vascular plant, then by definition that plant must contain ______.
phloem
26
Secondary growth refers to growth:
originating from lateral meristems.
27
The activity of the ______ results in a thickening of stems, branches, and roots.
lateral meristems
28
A seed is composed of three parts:
seed coat, embryo, and food supply.
29
Natural communities of organisms of wide extent, characterized by distinctive, climatically controlled groups of plants and animals, are called:
biomes
30
What organisms are found at the base of productivity in almost all ecosystems?
photosynthetic bacteria, algae, and plants only
31
In all ecosystems, heterotrophs are completely dependent on the productivity of all the following groups of organisms EXCEPT:
animals.
32
Humans first appeared about ______ years ago.
2 million
33
The development of agriculture started at least ______ years ago.
10,000
34
Cytology is the study of:
cell structure, function, and life histories.
35
The projected human population of the Earth by 2050 is _____ billion.
9
36
The greenhouse effect refers to the:
trapping of heat radiated from Earth.
37
Phytoremediation refers to the process by which plants:
clean up polluted environments.
38
Which substance makes up more than half of all living matter and more than 90 percent of the weight of most plant tissues?
Water
39
The most abundant organic molecules in nature are:
carbohydrates.
40
_________ is a monosaccharide, and ______________ is a disaccharide.
Fructose; lactose
41
________ is composed of two sugar subunits linked covalently.
Sucrose
42
The common transport form of sugar in plants is ______ and in animals is ______.
sucrose; glucose
43
The formation of ______ from ______ occurs by dehydration synthesis.
sucrose; glucose and fructose
44
Which of the following statements about hydrolysis reactions is FALSE?
They are a type of condensation reaction.
45
The principal polysaccharide in the plant cell wall is:
cellulose.
46
What is the most abundant organic compound known?
cellulose
47
Which of the following consists of beta-glucose subunits?
cellulose
48
The matrix of the plant cell wall contains:
pectins and hemicelluloses.
49
Which stabilize the cell wall by forming hydrogen bonds with it?
hemicelluloses
50
Which comprise most of the middle lamella?
pectins
51
The principal component of the cell walls of fungi is:
chitin.
52
The monomer of ___________ is N-acetylglucoseamine.
chitin
53
When an oil undergoes hydrolysis, the products are:
1 glycerol and 3 fatty acids
54
Which are examples of triglycerides?
oils and fats
55
A fat differs from a phospholipid in that a fat contains:
3 fatty acids
56
The main function of cutin and suberin is to:
prevent water loss.
57
Which lipid is a major component of cork cell walls?
suberin
58
Who am I? I give cell walls a lamellar appearance?
suberin
59
The most water-repellant of the lipids are:
waxes
60
Which of the following is characterized by the presence of four interconnected hydrocarbon rings?
steroids
61
In all organisms except prokaryotes, an important role of sterols is to:
stabilize the phospholipid tails in cell membranes.
62
The monomers of proteins are:
amino acids.
63
How many different kinds of amino acids are used to build proteins?
20
64
A peptide bond occurs between the ______ groups of adjacent amino acids in polypeptides.
amino and carboxyl
65
When a polypeptide undergoes hydrolysis, the products are:
amino acids
66
The linear sequence of amino acids is called the ______ structure of a protein.
primary
67
A common ______ structure of proteins involves a hydrogen bond between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of an amino acid farther along the peptide chain.
secondary
68
The tertiary structure of a protein is a result of all of the following EXCEPT:
interactions between two or more polypeptide chains.
69
The ______ structure of a protein involves interactions between two or more polypeptide chains
quaternary
70
Which of the following statements about enzymes is FALSE?
They are typically effective only at high concentrations.
71
Nucleic acids are different from proteins in that nucleic acids contain:
phosphorus.
72
The monomers of nucleic acids are:
nucleotides.
73
The subunits of a nucleotide are a(n):
five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.
74
When many nucleotides undergo dehydration synthesis, the product(s) is(are):
a nucleic acid
75
Adenosine triphosphate is a type of:
nucleotide.
76
The principal role of ATP in the cell is:
providing energy.
77
Which of the following statements about secondary metabolites is FALSE?
They are found in all cells of a plant.
78
Which of the following is a primary metabolite?
glucose
79
The major classes of secondary plant metabolites are:
alkaloids, phenolics, and terpenoids.
80
______ is an alkaloid used to dilate pupils in eye examinations.
Atropine
81
Who am I? I form a “blanket” that stabilizes photosynthetic membranes and thus helps the plant cope with heat.
isoprene.
82
Essential oils are types of:
terpenoids.
83
Which of the following secondary metabolites consists of isoprene units?
taxol
84
The largest group of plant phenolics are the:
flavonoids.
85
______ is a secondary metabolite responsible for adding compressive strength, stiffness, and waterproofing to the plant cell wall.
Lignin
86
_______first concluded that all cells arise from preexisting cells.
Rudolf Virchow
87
Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in that eukaryotic cells have:
a nucleus
88
Cyclosis refers to:
the constant streaming of the cytoplasm.
89
Which of the following best designates a somatic cell containing 6 chromosomes?
2n = 6
90
If a plant has a diploid chromosome number of 60, how many chromosomes are present in its gametes?
30
91
The nucleolus is the structure in which ______ are formed.
ribosomes
92
Grana are stacks of ______ within chloroplasts.
thylakoids
93
Chlorophylls and carotenoid pigments are embedded in the:
thylakoid membranes.
94
Plastids that contain carotenoids but lack chlorophyll are known as:
chromoplasts.
95
______ are colorless plastids that are the precursors of other, more highly differentiated plastids.
Proplastids
96
Which of the following statements about mitochondria is FALSE?
They are generally larger than plastids.
97
A pivotal step in programmed cell death is the release of ______ from ______.
cytochrome c; mitochondria
98
Peroxisomes are organelles that:
self-replicate.
99
The ______ in the cell sap are responsible for the red and blue colors of many fruits and vegetables.
anthocyanins
100
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in ______ synthesis.
lipid
101
Which of the following lists the correct sequence in which glycoproteins travel through the Golgi complex?
Forming face, shuttle vesicles, maturing face, trans-Golgi network
102
Which of the following is NOT part of the endomembrane system?
mitochondrial membrane
103
Which of the following statements about microtubules is FALSE?
Their subunits are arranged in a solid cylinder.
104
The alignment of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall is controlled by:
cortical microtubules.
105
Which of the following statements concerning actin filaments is FALSE?
They lack distinct plus and minus ends.
106
In plants, flagella are found only in:
motile sperm.
107
A ______ has an internal arrangement of nine triplets of microtubules.
basal body
108
Stretching of the cell wall can be prevented by the cross-linking of _____ with _____.
pectins; calcium
109
Which of the following statements concerning callose is FALSE?
It opens plasmodesmata between contiguous cells.
110
Which of the following lists the correct sequence of cell wall layers, beginning with the outermost layer and progressing inward?
middle lamella, primary wall, secondary wall
111
Which of the following statements about the primary wall is FALSE?
It is usually of uniform thickness.
112
An interruption in the secondary wall is called a:
pit.
113
Cellulose synthase is an enzyme situated in the:
plasma membrane.
114
In the cell cycle, interphase consists of:
the G1, G2, and S phases.
115
Which of the following statements concerning endoreduplication is FALSE?
It may result in gigantic nuclei.
116
Which of the following statements concerning checkpoints is FALSE?
Checkpoints differ significantly among eukaryotic cells.
117
DNA replication occurs during the ______ phase.
S
118
Which of the following is unique to cell division in plants?
migration of the nucleus to the center of the cell
119
In the developing cell plate, the initial polysaccharide is:
callose.
120
In late prophase, sister chromatids are joined by a constriction at the:
centromere.
121
The ______ is the earliest manifestation of the mitotic spindle.
prophase spindle
122
Sister chromatids become daughter chromosomes at the beginning of:
anaphase.
123
Chromosomes lengthen and become indistinct during:
telophase.
124
During ______, the nuclear envelopes and nucleoli re-form.
telophase
125
The longest phase of mitosis is always:
prophase.
126
Which of the following statements about the phragmoplast is FALSE?
It begins to form at the walls of the dividing cell and grows inward.
127
Water potential is defined as the:
potential energy of water.
128
The long-distance transport of sap in the phloem is an example of:
pressure-driven bulk flow.
129
What is the water potential, expressed in units of megapascals, of pure water?
0
130
In the absence of other factors affecting water potential, water will move FROM a region of ______ TO a region of ______.
low solute concentration; high solute concentration
131
Which of the following could be the water potential of a sucrose solution at atmospheric pressure and at sea level?
–10 MPa
132
Suppose a drop of dye is placed in one end of a tank of water. What happens next?
The dye molecules and the water molecules move down their respective concentration gradients.
133
Which of the following statements about diffusion is FALSE?
When the diffusing molecules become evenly distributed, their movement stops.
134
Which of the following substances is LEAST likely to diffuse across the plasma membrane?
an ion
135
Which of the following statements about solute movement in cells is FALSE?
Diffusion is an effective way to move substances between distantly separated cells.
136
Which of the following is the best definition of osmosis?
The net movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.
137
Turgor pressure results most directly from:
water moving into a cell by osmosis.
138
Wall pressure:
is an inwardly directed pressure of the wall.
139
In plasmolysis:
the plasma membrane pulls away from the cell wall.
140
If a plant cell is placed in a solution with a relatively low water potential, the cell will:
undergo plasmolysis.
141
Wilting results most directly from _______ in plant cells.
the loss of turgor
142
When botanists speak of a “bilayer,” they are referring to a structure composed entirely of:
phospholipids.
143
The most abundant sterol in the plant cell membrane is:
stigmasterol.
144
The portion of a transmembrane protein embedded in the bilayer is:
hydrophobic.
145
By definition, all proteins attached to protruding portions of transmembrane proteins are:
peripheral proteins.
146
Which of the following statements concerning membrane structure is FALSE?
Transmembrane proteins lack hydrophilic sequences.
147
Although membranes were previously described by the “fluid-mosaic” model, recent evidence suggests that membranes:
are less fluid.
148
In the plasma membrane, carbohydrates are most likely to be found:
on the outer membrane surface.
149
What is the hypothesized role of carbohydrates in the plasma membrane?
recognizing molecules that interact with the cell
150
Most membrane carbohydrates are present in the form of:
glycoproteins.
151
The portion of a transmembrane protein that is embedded in the hydrophobic interior of the bilayer is usually in the form of a(n):
alpha helix.
152
Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins?
making the membrane impermeable
153
Small nonpolar molecules, such as O2 and CO2, enter a cell by:
simple diffusion.
154
A steroid hormone would most likely enter a cell by:
simple diffusion.
155
A “gate” is most directly associated with a:
channel.
156
An aquaporin is a:
channel protein for water.
157
Aquaporins are found in the plasma membrane and the:
the mitochondrial membrane, the chloroplast membrane, the tonoplast, and the ER.
158
Which of the following statements about an electrochemical gradient is FALSE?
It is the driving force for the movement of charged and uncharged substances across a membrane.
159
If the concentration of K+ is higher outside a plant cell than inside, K+ will enter the cell by:
facilitated diffusion through channel proteins.
160
Symport is a transport system in which the transport of one solute:
depends on the transport of another solute in the same direction.
161
Which of the following processes in plant cell membranes requires ATP?
active transport
162
If the concentration of glucose is higher inside a cell than outside, glucose will enter the cell only by:
active transport.
163
In the active transport of sucrose, the secondary active transport system is the:
sucrose-proton symporter.
164
Proteins and polysaccharides will most likely enter a cell by:
vesicle-mediated transport.
165
A cell that ingests bacteria or cellular debris does so by:
phagocytosis.
166
In receptor-mediated endocytosis, specific receptors for the substances to be transported are localized in:
coated pits.
167
In receptor-mediated endocytosis, what happens immediately after the substance to be transported binds to a receptor?
The coated pit invaginates to form a coated vesicle.
168
Which of the following would NOT occur during signal recognition?
The signal molecule is transported out of the cell by exocytosis.
169
Two of the most common second messengers are:
calcium ions and cyclic AMP.
170
In the signal-transduction pathway involving Ca2+ ions in plants, which of the following occurs during the transduction step?
Calcium ions are released into the cytosol from the vacuole.
171
The symplast consists of:
all the protoplasts including their plasmodesmata.
172
Primary plasmodesmata are different from secondary plasmodesmata in that primary plasmodesmata:
are formed during cytokinesis.
173
Which of the following statements concerning the desmotubule is FALSE?
It is a main channel for transporting materials.
174
The cytoplasmic sleeve is the:
cytoplasmic channel involved in symplastic transport through a plasmodesma.
175
Which of the following statements concerning plasmodesmata is FALSE?
Their similar symplastic domains cause them to be passive structures.
176
Of the total solar energy that reaches the Earth, ______ percent is captured by the cells of photosynthetic organisms.
less than 1
177
The energy of a system is defined as:
its capacity to do work.
178
According to the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of ______ is ______.
the universe; constant
179
The first law of thermodynamics states that:
energy can be changed from one form to another, but it cannot be created or destroyed.
180
Which of the following is NOT an example of potential energy?
Water at the bottom of a waterfall
181
The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its surroundings after an energy conversion is ______ the total energy before the conversion.
equal to
182
One way of stating the second law of thermodynamics is:
the entropy of the universe is increasing.
183
The second law of thermodynamics states that if no energy enters or leaves the system under study, the potential energy of the final state will be______ the potential energy of the initial state.
less than
184
An exergonic reaction:
is a reaction in which the potential energy of the final state is less than that of the initial state.
185
ΔH refers to the:
change in enthalpy.
186
Entropy refers to the ______ of a system.
disorder or randomness
187
ΔG refers to the change in ______ of the system.
free energy
188
Which of the following equations relating enthalpy, entropy, and free energy is correct?
ΔG = ΔH - T ΔS
189
ΔG is negative.
are exergonic.
190
Which of the following statements about living cells is FALSE?
They are at equilibrium with their surroundings.
191
Oxidation is defined as the:
loss of electrons.
192
In biological reactions, when a molecule is oxidized it ______ an electron and a(n) ______.
loses; proton
193
In the following reaction, which molecule is oxidized?
| glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water
Oxygen
194
During the oxidation of glucose in the cell, most of the energy is released:
in small amounts.
195
An enzyme:
functions as a catalyst.
196
Most enzymes are:
proteins.
197
A substrate binds to its enzyme at a location called the ______ site.
active
198
A negatively charged portion of a substrate molecule would most likely fit into a ______ region of its enzyme’s active site.
positively charged
199
The general name for a nonprotein component required by some enzymes is a:
cofactor
200
Most enzymes that catalyze phosphorylation reactions require ______ as a cofactor.
Mg2+
201
The vitamin niacin is part of the ______ molecule.
NAD+
202
In a NAD+ molecule, a pyrophosphate bridge joins:
two ribose molecules.
203
Which of the following statements about metabolic pathways is FALSE?
The enzymes of most pathways allow intermediate products to accumulate.
204
Isozymes are:
different enzymes that catalyze identical reactions.
205
In an allosteric enzyme, the substrate binds at the ______ site and the regulatory substance binds at the ______ site.
active; effector
206
In feedback inhibition, the ______ enzyme in a metabolic pathway is inhibited by the ___________.
first; end product
207
Which of the following is NOT a component of an ATP molecule?
a pyrophosphate bridge
208
In an ATP molecule, phosphoanhydride bonds link:
the phosphate groups together.
209
Which type of enzyme catalyzes the following reaction?
| ATP + H2O → ADP + phosphate
ATPase
210
Which statement about the reaction ATP + H2O → ADP + phosphate is FALSE?
The reactants are more stable than the products.
211
Which of the following is a phosphorylation reaction catalyzed by a kinase in plant cells?
ATP + glucose → glucose phosphate + ADP
212
Which of the following statements about sucrose synthesis is FALSE?
In the cell, sucrose synthesis is endergonic.
213
Which of the following statements about the reactions of glucose oxidation is FALSE?
Oxygen is oxidized.
214
Which of the following statements concerning fermentation is FALSE?
It involves O2 as the ultimate electron acceptor.
215
Which of the following does NOT occur during respiration?
hydrolysis of starch to glucose
216
Formation of ATP from ADP and phosphate as a result of electron transport occurs in:
oxidative phosphorylation.
217
In respiration, most of the energy in the original glucose molecule is:
released as heat.
218
In glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is converted to ______ molecules of ______.
three; pyruvate
219
Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is FALSE?
It is an aerobic process.
220
Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
the cytosol
221
When one speaks of the cell’s “net energy harvest” from glycolysis one is referring to the amount of:
ATP and NADH
222
The preparatory phase of glycolysis involves:
2 molecules of ATP only.
223
As part of the first step in the first preparatory reaction of glycolysis:
glucose is phosphorylated.
224
For every molecule of glucose that begins glycolysis, how many ATP molecules are consumed?
2
225
As part of the cleavage step in glycolysis, glucose is:
converted to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate.
226
For each molecule of glucose that completes glycolysis, how many NAD+ molecules are reduced?
2
227
For every glucose molecule that completes glycolysis, how many total molecules of ATP are produced?
4
228
In glycolysis, what is the net energy harvest of ATP molecules per molecule of glucose?
2
229
Most of the enzymes of the citric acid cycle are found in the _____ of the _____.
matrix; mitochondria
230
Pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA in the ____ of the _____.
matrix; mitochondria
231
For every molecule of glucose that begins glycolysis, how many molecules of acetyl CoA are produced?
2
232
During the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, _____ is produced.
CO2
233
Upon entering the citric acid cycle, the acetyl group combines with ______ to produce ______.
oxaloacetate; citrate
234
After acetyl CoA enters the citric acid cycle, the coenzyme A portion of the molecule:
is released.
235
Which of the following does NOT occur during the citric acid cycle?
oxidative phosphorylation
236
In each turn of the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of ATP are produced?
1
237
In the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of FADH are produced per molecule of glucose?
2
238
In the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of NADH are produced per molecule of glucose?
6
239
Most of the carriers of the electron transport chain are:
embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
240
Which of the following statements about iron-sulfur proteins is FALSE?
They carry electrons and protons.
241
The most abundant component(s) of the mitochondrial electron transport chain is/are:
coenzyme Q.
242
Who am I? I move freely within the mitochondrial membrane and thus shuttle electrons between other carriers.
CoQ
243
The energy released by the flow of electrons along the electron transport chain is used directly to:
pump protons.
244
The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is:
oxygen.
245
For each pair of electrons passing from NADH to oxygen, how many ATP molecules can be generated?
3
246
Oxidative phosphorylation depends on a gradient of ______ across the mitochondrial membrane.
protons
247
In the electron transport chain, electrons pass from complex ____ directly to O2.
IV
248
The electrochemical gradient resulting from electron transport is due to differences in ______ across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
electric charge and proton concentration
249
Which of the following statements about ATP synthase is FALSE?
It transports electrons.
250
The number of ATP molecules generated from each NADH produced in glycolysis is _______.
2
251
The number of ATP molecules generated from each NADH produced in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA is _______.
2
252
Most of the ATP formed in respiration is produced by reactions associated with:
the electron transport chain.
253
The process of beta oxidation is involved in the breakdown of:
triglycerides.
254
Under anaerobic conditions, yeasts and most plant cells convert pyruvate to:
ethanol and carbon dioxide.
255
Which of the following processes occurs in both lactate fermentation and alcohol fermentation?
oxidation of NADH
256
In lactate fermentation and alcohol fermentation, the net ATP production is ______ molecules of ATP per molecule of glucose.
2
257
“Catabolism” specifically refers to the various pathways in which organisms ______ organic molecules.
break down
258
The metabolic “hub” of the cell is:
the citric acid cycle.
259
Who provided the first experimental evidence that soil alone does not nourish the plant?
Jan Baptista van Helmont
260
The O2 evolved in photosynthesis comes from:
water.
261
F. F. Blackman showed that:
photosynthesis has a light-dependent stage and a light-independent stage.
262
Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic spectrum is FALSE?
The longer the wavelength of light, the more energy it has.
263
Light is composed of particles called:
photons.
264
Chlorophyll absorbs light principally in the ______ wavelengths.
blue and violet
265
An action spectrum is different from an absorption spectrum in that an action spectrum:
is the relative effectiveness of different wavelengths for a specific process.
266
Which of the following is the very next event that occurs when a chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?
The electron is boosted to an excited state.
267
Which pigment occurs in all photosynthetic eukaryotes?
Chlorophyll a
268
The primary function of ______ is as an anti-oxidant.
carotenoids
269
Xanthophylls and carotenes:
are carotenoids.
270
The energy-transduction reactions of photosynthesis are also called the ______ reactions.
light
271
Which of the following statements about an antenna complex is FALSE?
It converts light energy into chemical energy.
272
The light-harvesting complex is different from a photosystem in that the light-harvesting complex:
lacks a reaction center.
273
In the antenna complex, light energy is transferred from one pigment molecule to another by:
resonance energy transfer.
274
In contrast to Photosystem I, Photosystem II is located primarily:
in grana thylakoids.
275
In Photosystem II, energized electrons are transferred from pheophytin directly to:
PQA.
276
In the light reactions, the cytochrome b6/f complex receives electrons directly from:
plastoquinol.
277
Following photolysis, the resulting protons are released into the ______, contributing to the proton gradient across the ______ membrane.
lumen of the thylakoid; thylakoid
278
The ______ complex links photosystems I and II.
cytochrome b6/f
279
In photophosphorylation, the role of the ATP synthase complex is to provide a channel for protons to flow back into the:
chloroplast stroma.
280
Which of the following events is NOT associated with Photosystem I?
transfer of electrons from cytochromes to iron-sulfur proteins
281
Which of the following statements concerning ferredoxin is FALSE?
It is found in the chloroplast grana.
282
Which of the following is produced during noncyclic AND cyclic electron flow?
ATP
283
During cyclic electron flow, electrons are transferred directly from P700 to Ao to:
the photosynthetic electron transport chain.
284
The Calvin cycle takes place in the:
chloroplast stroma.
285
Carbon dioxide is “fixed” by bonding to:
ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.
286
The role of Rubisco is to catalyze the conversion of:
CO2 to an unstable six-carbon compound.
287
How many molecules of CO2 are fixed during each turn of the Calvin cycle?
one
288
Which of the following does NOT occur in the Calvin cycle?
ADP is phosphorylated to ATP.
289
Which of the following statements about the Calvin cycle is FALSE?
It uses ATP from noncyclic, but not cyclic, photophosphorylation.
290
Most of the glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate not exported to the cytosol is converted to ______ and stored in the chloroplasts.
starch
291
Rubisco can use ______ or CO2 as a substrate.
O2
292
Which of the following statements about photorespiration is FALSE?
It yields ATP but not NADPH.
293
Which of the following conditions favors photorespiration?
a hot, dry environment
294
One of the benefits of photorespiration is removing toxic:
phosphoglycolate.
295
In the C4 pathway, the enzyme PEP carboxylase:
catalyzes the formation of oxaloacetate.
296
The malate or aspartate produced in the C4 pathway moves next into:
the bundle-sheath cells.
297
Kranz anatomy is characterized by a layer of ____ around a layer of ____.
mesophyll cells; bundle-sheath cells
298
Suaeda aralocaspica is different from many other C4 plants because it:
lacks Kranz anatomy.
299
Compared with a C3 plant, a C4 plant:
needs more ATP to fix CO2.
300
Which of the following is a C4 plant?
crabgrass
301
Compared with C3 plants, C4 plants:
use nitrogen more efficiently.
302
In CAM plants, malate formed as the end product of CO2 fixation in the dark is stored as malic acid in the:
vacuole.
303
Which of the following is most likely to occur in a leaf cell of a CAM plant during the day?
decarboxylation of malic acid
304
Which of the following is not considered a CAM plant?
wheat
305
Which of the following statements about CAM plants is FALSE?
All CAM plants are flowering plants.
306
By crossing different varieties of peas ______ discovered the principles of heredity.
Gregor Mendel
307
Which of the following statements about sexual reproduction is FALSE?
It is the principal mode of reproduction in prokaryotes.
308
Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is FALSE?
Homologs resemble each other in size but not in shape.
309
Chromatin consists of:
DNA, histones, and other proteins.
310
Which of the following statements concerning histones is FALSE?
They are present in four distinct types.
311
A nucleosome consists of:
a core of histones wrapped with DNA.
312
A cell that unites with another cell is called a:
gamete.
313
The pairing of homologous chromosomes is called:
synapsis.
314
Which of the following statements about the synaptonemal complex is FALSE?
It forms just before prophase.
315
Crossing-over occurs during:
prophase I.
316
Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate during:
anaphase I.
317
Nuclear envelopes form around single-stranded chromosomes during:
telophase II.
318
Unpaired double-stranded chromosomes line up on the equatorial plane during:
metaphase II.
319
Sister chromatids become daughter chromosomes during:
anaphase II.
320
If a cell has three pairs of homologous chromosomes, in how many ways could they be distributed among the haploid cells produced by meiosis?
eight
321
Which of the following statements about alleles is FALSE?
They occupy different sites on homologous chromosomes.
322
The seeds of all the progeny of a cross between yellow-seeded plants and green-seeded plants are as yellow as those of the yellow-seeded parent. From this information, it is clear that:
the F2 generation consists entirely of yellow-seeded plants.
323
When a particular trait appears in the F2 generation but not in the F1 generation, it is an indication that:
the trait is recessive.
324
If we say that the phenotype of an individual is purple, we are saying that:
the appearance of the individual is purple.
325
If the allele for red flower color is dominant over the allele for white flower color, which of the following represents a cross between a white-flowered plant and a plant heterozygous for flower color?
Rr × rr
326
In peas, green pod color is dominant over yellow pod color. If a plant heterozygous for pod color is crossed with a plant homozygous recessive for pod color, what phenotypes would you expect in the offspring?
half with green pods and half with yellow pods
327
In peas, tall stem length is dominant over short length. What genotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring of a cross between a heterozygous tall plant and a homozygous short plant?
one heterozygous tall: one homozygous short
328
If W represents the allele for purple flower color, and w represents the allele for white flower color, what phenotypic ratio would you expect for the offspring of a testcross?
One WW: one ww
329
Consider the two traits, seed shape and seed color. R represents the allele for round seeds, r the allele for wrinkled seeds, Y the allele for yellow seeds, and y the allele for green seeds. Which of the following indicates a cross between a plant heterozygous for both traits and a plant homozygous recessive for both traits?
RrYy × rryy
330
Consider the two traits, seed shape and seed color. R represents the allele for round seeds, r the allele for wrinkled seeds, Y the allele for yellow seeds, and y the allele for green seeds. What phenotypic ratio would you expect in the offspring of a cross between a plant with wrinkled green seeds and a plant heterozygous for both traits?
one round yellow: one round green: one wrinkled yellow: one wrinkled green
331
Which of the following is true of Mendel’s second law but not his first law?
The two alleles of a gene assort independently of the alleles of the other genes.
332
If two genes are linked, then by definition they:
occur on the same chromosome.
333
Suppose that a plant has two genes that are linked, with Ab on one homolog of a homologous pair of chromosomes and aB on the other homolog. What gametes could the plant produce if crossing-over occurred between these genes during meiosis?
Ab, aB, AB, and ab only
334
Consider a chromosome represented as ABC·DEFG, where · indicates the centromere. Suppose ultraviolet light causes the chromosome to change to AC·DEFG. What type of mutation has occurred?
deletion
335
Consider a chromosome represented as ABCD·EFG, where · indicates the centromere. Suppose ultraviolet light causes the chromosome to change to ACBD·EFG. What type of mutation has occurred?
inversion
336
Which of the following statements about transposons is FALSE?
They occur only in bacteria.
337
The exchange of segments between nonhomologous chromosomes is called a(n):
translocation.
338
Polyploidy refers to the:
gain of a complete set of chromosomes.
339
Which of the following statements concerning mutations is FALSE?
The mutation rate in eukaryotes is about one mutant gene at a given locus per 2000 cell divisions.
340
When the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotypes of its homozygous parents, the condition is known as:
incomplete dominance.
341
In snapdragons, a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant produces a plant with pink flowers. What offspring would you expect from a cross between two pink-flowered plants?
1/4 red, 1/2 pink, 1/4 white
342
A population of organisms that has four alleles for a given gene is said to have:
multiple alleles.
343
In peas, the dominant alleles A and B must be present for purple flower pigment to be produced; otherwise the flowers are white. What offspring would you expect from a cross between plants of genotypes Aabb and aaBb?
one purple: three white
344
When a trait exhibits continuous variation in a population of organisms, it most likely is due to:
several different genes interacting.
345
In ______, a single gene has many different effects on the phenotype.
pleiotropy
346
Cytoplasmic inheritance in plants involves genes present in the:
mitochondria and plastids.
347
Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of maternal inheritance?
Plastids and mitochondria are present in sperm cells but only plastids are transmitted into the egg.
348
An aquatic plant produces one type of leaf above water and another type of leaf under water. This is most likely an example of:
interaction of the genotype with the environment.
349
Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is FALSE?
It increases the ability of a population to adapt to differing conditions.
350
Which of the following statements about sexual reproduction is FALSE?
It is necessary for the survival of the population.
351
The pyrimidine bases of DNA are:
cytosine and thymine.
352
Data obtained by Erwin Chargaff indicated that in DNA the ratio of nucleotides containing _________ to those containing _______ is approximately 1:1.
adenine; thymine
353
The DNA molecule has the shape of a:
double helix
354
In the ladder analogy of DNA structure, the sides of the ladder are composed of:
alternating sugars and phosphates.
355
In a DNA molecule, the hydrogen bonds join:
the paired nitrogenous bases.
356
Which of the following are complementary bases?
guanine and cytosine
357
Each strand in a DNA molecule:
has a 5′ end and a 3′ end.
358
Which of the following statements about DNA replication in eukaryotes is FALSE?
There is only one origin of replication.
359
After a DNA molecule “unzips,” the two strands are kept separated by:
single-strand binding proteins.
360
DNA replication requires a short strand of _____ as a primer to initiate synthesis.
RNA
361
In DNA replication, the lagging strand differs from the leading strand in that the lagging strand is synthesized:
in fragments.
362
In DNA replication, _______ catalyzes the joining of Okazaki fragments.
DNA ligase
363
RNA contains ______ instead of the ______ found in DNA.
uracil; thymine
364
The role of ______ is to carry amino acids to the ribosomes.
tRNA
365
The process of translation results in the synthesis of:
protein.
366
A codon consists of _____ nucleotides in a(n) ____ molecule.
three; RNA
367
When scientists describe the genetic code as redundant, they mean that:
many amino acids have more than one codon.
368
Which of the following statements about promoters is FALSE?
They consist of three nucleotides that bind to a codon.
369
Which of the following molecules contains an anticodon?
tRNA
370
A transfer RNA molecule carries a(n) ______ to the ribosomes.
amino acid
371
An aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the:
attachment of a particular amino acid to a particular tRNA.
372
A ribosome consists of ______ and ______.
rRNA; protein
373
An incoming aminoacyl-tRNA molecule binds to the ribosome at the ______ site.
A (aminoacyl)
374
Which of the following events is NOT part of the initiation stage of translation?
The initiator tRNA is released from the E site.
375
During the elongation stage of translation:
a peptide bond is formed.
376
Which of the following events is NOT part of the termination stage of translation?
The ribosome moves along the mRNA to the next codon.
377
Polypeptides destined for membranes of the Golgi complex are synthesized on ribosomes:
attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.
378
In a cell of a multicellular organism:
all enzymes are expressed continuously.
379
Euchromatin differs from heterochromatin in that euchromatin:
is more readily transcribed during interphase.
380
Which of the following statements concerning telomeres is FALSE?
They are regions of active transcription.
381
Which of the following is the most likely next step after histones are acetylated?
Transcription occurs.
382
Acetyltransferases catalyze the attachment of acetyl groups to:
histones.
383
When DNA is methylated:
transcription is repressed.
384
Which of the following is the best estimate for the percentage of DNA in eukaryotic cells that codes for proteins?
less than 10 percent
385
Interspersed repeated DNA units:
are believed to have originated from transposons.
386
Which of the following statements about simple-sequence repeated DNA segments is FALSE?
They are dispersed throughout the DNA.
387
Which of the following statements concerning transposons is FALSE?
They replicate more slowly than other genes.
388
Exons are segments of a gene that:
are translated into protein.
389
Which of the following events occurs in eukaryotic cells but NOT in prokaryotic cells?
mRNA transcripts are extensively modified before they leave the nucleus.
390
Which of the following events is NOT involved in mRNA processing?
the forming of peptide bonds
391
Which of the following statements concerning noncoding RNAs is FALSE?
They are types of tRNA molecules.
392
Traditional breeding programs:
depend on inherent genetic variability.
393
Genetically modified plants were first grown commercially in:
1996.
394
Which of the following statements concerning restriction enzymes is FALSE?
They recognize single-stranded DNA sequences.
395
A sticky-ended fragment can join with another DNA segment only if that segment:
has been cut with the same restriction enzyme.
396
DNA ligase would most likely be used in recombinant DNA technology to:
join DNA fragments together.
397
Which of the following statements concerning vectors is FALSE?
A host cell can be a vector.
398
By definition, a transformed cell:
contains a recombinant DNA molecule.
399
The ampR gene is used in recombinant DNA technology to:
screen for the presence of cells containing recombinant plasmids.
400
Suppose a plasmid containing a gene of interest plus the ampR gene is used to transform E. coli cells. When these cells are placed on a medium containing ampicillin, what will happen?
They will survive and grow.
401
An example of a selectable marker gene is:
ampR.
402
When the lacZ gene technique is used to detect recombinant DNA in host bacterial cells, the colonies will appear _______ if the cells have been successfully transformed.
white
403
Which of the following would be linked to a promoter to determine if a particular gene introduced into a host cell is directing the synthesis of protein?
the luciferase gene
404
Which of the following statements concerning DNA libraries is FALSE?
A genomic library lacks exons.
405
In recombinant DNA technology, reverse transcriptase is used to:
synthesize cDNA.
406
The polymerase chain reaction is used to:
produce millions of copies of a DNA segment in a short time.
407
The Taq polymerase is used in recombinant DNA technology to:
make up to a millionfold copies of a DNA segment in a few hours.
408
One important characteristic the Taq polymerase is its
resistance to high temperature.
409
In recombinant DNA technology, cutting different samples of a single DNA molecule with different restriction enzymes allows one to:
determine the nucleotide sequence of a gene.
410
The first eukaryotic genome to be sequenced was that of:
Saccharomyces cerevisae.
411
By definition, hydroponics is the technique for growing:
plants without soil.
412
It was not until the discovery of ________ that organ and tissue culture became feasible.
plant hormones
413
Because meristems lack _________ tissues, meristem culture results in plants that lack _________.
vascular; viruses
414
Crown-gall tumors are produced by a(n):
bacterium.
415
Agrobacterium induces the formation of crown-gall tumors by transferring the ____ plasmid containing ______ to the host plant’s nuclear DNA.
Ti; T-DNA
416
In Agrobacterium, genes that code for enzymes involved in the synthesis of the hormone auxin are found in the _____ region of the plasmid.
onc
417
In the Agrobacterium Ti plasmid, the ____ gene codes for the synthesis of amino acids that are used as food.
O
418
In the Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens, the onc region contains genes that code for enzymes in:
auxin and cytokinin synthesis.
419
Opines are:
amino acid derivatives.
420
In _________, electrical pulses cause pores in the plasma membrane to open, thus allowing DNA to enter the cell.
electroporation
421
Which of the following statements about particle bombardment is FALSE?
It is used to deliver DNA but not RNA into a cell.
422
The BT gene is transferred for the purpose of:
conferring resistance to caterpillars.
423
Glyphosate is:
an herbicide that kills all plants
424
One advantage of inserting into crop plants a gene that codes for an altered enzyme in aromatic amino acid synthesis is that the plants would:
be resistant to glyphosphate.
425
Mutant forms of the ethylene receptor gene from Arabidopsis are inserted into plants for the purpose of:
delaying flower wilting.
426
Why would a gene for cytokinin synthesis be fused to a promoter that is expressed only in senescent leaves?
to delay leaf senescence
427
"Golden rice” is notable because of its:
high β-carotene content.
428
The advantage of using the “ice-minus” strain of Pseudomonas syringae is:
reducing susceptibility to frost.
429
One aspect of structural genomics is:
preparing physical maps.
430
A genetic map is different from a physical map in that a genetic map is:
based on rates of recombination
431
Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of functional genomics?
determining the location of genes on a chromosome
432
The transcriptome refers to all of the:
RNA molecules transcribed by the genome.
433
The preparation of knockout mutants involves:
inserting a piece of DNA into the gene of interest.
434
Which of the following statements about prokaryotic genomes is FALSE?
Approximately 90% of the identified genes have been assigned a function.
435
Which of the following statements about eukaryotic genomes is FALSE?
The greater the complexity of the organism, the more protein-coding genes it has.
436
______ warned of the hazards of increased human population growth.
Thomas Malthus
437
Humans breed plants and animals through the process of:
artificial selection.
438
______ is the sum total of all the alleles of all the genes in a population.
The gene pool
439
When biologists speak of the “fitness” of an organism they are referring to:
the number of its surviving offspring.
440
Which of the following statements concerning the Hardy-Weinberg Law is FALSE?
It involves conditions that are usually met in natural populations.
441
Which of the following is NOT a necessary condition for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
nonrandom mating
442
Which is the mathematical representation of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
p2+ 2pq + q2 = 1
443
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular recessive allele is 40 percent. What proportion of the population is homozygous for the dominant allele?
36 percent
444
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular dominant allele is 20 percent. What percentage of the individuals in this population will be heterozygous for that trait?
32 percent
445
In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a particular dominant allele is 70 percent, and the frequency of the recessive allele is 30 percent. In the next generation, the frequency of the dominant allele will be ______ percent and the frequency of the recessive allele will be ______ percent.
70; 30
446
The raw material for evolutionary change is provided by:
mutations.
447
In a population, ______ results from the immigration or emigration of individuals.
gene flow
448
In a population of 1000 plants, the frequency of the a allele is 5 percent. Suppose a fire causes the loss of 500 individuals who are homozygous for the A allele. In this case the fire caused the frequency of a to change from ______ to ______.
0.05; 0.1
449
By definition, _______ is the term that refers to changes in a gene pool due to chance.
genetic drift
450
An example of ______ is when a single plant seed is carried by the wind to a remote island where it initiates a new population.
the founder effect
451
An example of ______ is when a forest fire destroys a large percentage of a population of trees.
the bottleneck effect
452
When plants heterozygous for a trait self-pollinate there will be a(n):
decrease in the frequency of individuals heterozygous for that trait.
453
In a population, natural selection:
can preserve and promote variability.
454
As an example of rapid evolutionary change, one variety of Agrostis grows much faster on tailings and dumps around abandoned lead mines than does another variety. What is the explanation for this?
Selection has favored the development of the lead-resistant variety.
455
Which of the following statements about adaptation is FALSE?
It is correlated with selective forces exerted by the environment but not by other organisms.
456
The tendency of individuals to vary over time in response to different environmental conditions is called:
developmental plasticity.
457
Which of the following statements concerning ecotypes is FALSE?
They exhibit a gradual change in phenotype correlated with gradual changes in the environment.
458
The experiments with Potentilla glandulosa showed that this organism:
exists as four distinct ecotypes.
459
The experiments with Oxyria digyna and Solidago virgaurea provide evidence that:
ecotypes differ physiologically.
460
______ refers to the adjustments that occur when populations of different species exert a strong selective force on each other.
Coevolution.
461
The key criterion of the biological species concept is that the members of a species:
are all genetically isolated from other species.
462
If two groups are genetically isolated from each other, then by definition:
one group cannot exchange genes with the other group.
463
The existence of Platanus × hybrida is indicative of the fact that:
fertile hybrids between species can occur.
464
One approach of the phylogenetic species concept states that species are defined on the basis of their:
historical relatedness to other organisms in the species.
465
Allopatric speciation is different from sympatric speciation in that allopatric speciation involves:
geographic isolation.
466
Which of the following statements about allopatric speciation is FALSE?
Organisms with restricted dispersal should form new species over large areas.
467
Which of the following statements about sympatric speciation is FALSE?
It is more common than allopatric speciation.
468
The type of polyploidy known as allopolyploidy:
is more common than autopolyploidy.
469
Approximately ______ percent of flowering plants are polyploid.
47 to 70
470
Tragopogon mirus and Tragopogon miscellus are examples of species formed by:
allopolyploid speciation.
471
One of the most important polyploid groups is the:
wheats.
472
An example of recombination speciation is provided by:
Helianthus anomalus.
473
Which of the following statements concerning recombination speciation in sunflowers is FALSE?
It involves polyploidy.
474
Varieties of Kentucky bluegrass undergo a form of asexual reproduction known as ______ in which embryos that are genetically identical to the parent are produced.
apomixis
475
Apomixis is a type of:
asexual reproduction.
476
Cross-pollination between individuals of the same species is called:
outcrossing.
477
The origin of taxonomic groups above the level of the species is called:
macroevolution.
478
According to the gradualism model:
evolution occurs by the accumulation of many small changes in the frequencies of genes in a gene pool.
479
According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium:
long periods of little phyletic change are interrupted by short periods of rapid change.
480
Modern biological classification began with:
Carl Linnaeus.
481
Which of the following statements about Linnaeus is FALSE?
He developed a “shorthand” designation for each species consisting of a single word.
482
The binomial for poison ivy is Toxicodendron radicans. To what genus does this plant belong?
Toxicodendron
483
The binomial for the coast redwood is Sequoia sempervirens. What is the species name of this plant?
Sequoia sempervirens
484
Which of the following statements about the naming of species and varieties is FALSE?
When used alone, the specific epithet provides valuable taxonomic information.
485
Which of the following lists the taxonomic categories in the correct hierarchy, from most to least inclusive, under kingdom?
Phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
486
Cattleya is one genus in the Orchidaceaea, the orchid family. In this example:
Cattleya and Orchidaceae are taxa.
487
The term “phylum” is nomenclaturally equivalent to:
division.
488
The names of almost all plant families end in:
-aceae.
489
Phylogeny refers to the:
evolutionary history of an organism.
490
A natural classification system differs from an artificial classification system in that a natural classification system:
reflects the evolutionary relationships among organisms.
491
When the members of a taxon are all descendents of a common single ancestral species, the taxon is said to be:
monophyletic.
492
When the members of a group have two or more ancestors, that group is said to be:
polyphyletic.
493
Biological features that have a common origin, even if they have a different function, are said to be:
homologous.
494
The wing of a bird and the wing of an insect are:
analogous but not homologous.
495
Synapomorphies are:
shared derived characters.
496
In a cladogram, groups that terminate in adjacent branches are called:
sister groups.
497
The rule of parsimony states that:
cladograms should be constructed in the least complicated way.
498
Which of the following statements concerning the use of molecular data in systematics is FALSE?
Molecular data concerning the amino acid sequences of proteins are the most widely used.
499
Neutral mutations:
can be used to determine changes occurring in homologous genes since lineages diverged.
500
If you analyze the neutral mutations from two groups and find there are few differences in their nucleotide sequences, you would logically conclude that the two groups:
diverged relatively recently from a common ancestor.
501
Which of the following statements concerning chloroplast DNA is FALSE?
It contains more nucleotides than the mitochondria.
502
Which of the following statements concerning the rcbL gene is FALSE?
It is a rapidly evolving gene.
503
The DNA barcode used for animals is _____, and for plants the DNA barcode is ______.
CO1; rbcL or matK
504
The three domains of organisms are the:
Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya
505
The eukaryotes are divided into _____ supergroups.
7
506
According to the serial endosymbiotic theory, chloroplasts evolved from:
bacteria.
507
By definition, an endosymbiont is an organism that:
lives within another, dissimilar organism.
508
Which of the following best indicates the correct sequence in which the evolution of these organelles occurred?
lysosome, mitochondrion, chloroplast
509
The endomembrane system of plant cells most likely evolved from:
portions of the plasma membrane.
510
The nucleus of plant cells most likely evolved from:
portions of the plasma membrane.
511
In the Vorticella/Chlorella endosymbiosis:
Chlorella provides photosynthetic products for Vorticella.
512
In the course of evolution of eukaryotic cells, some mitochondrial DNA was transferred to:
the host cell’s nucleus.
513
In secondary endosymbiosis, a ______ is engulfed by a eukaryotic host.
cell containing a primary plastid
514
A eukaryotic, multicellular organism that absorbs its food belongs to the kingdom:
Fungi.
515
A multicellular organism that ingests its food belongs to the kingdom:
Animalia.
516
Water molds and slime molds are included in the _____
protist
517
_____ are a paraphyletic group of eukaryotic organisms that are unicellular, colonial or multicellular.
Protists
518
Multicellular eukaryotes that have an embryo during the sporophyte phase belong to the kingdom:
Plantae.
519
Which of the following describes zygotic meiosis?
The zygote is the only diploid cell in the life cycle.
520
Which of the following describes sporic meiosis?
It is characteristic of organisms having an alternation of generations.
521
The gametophyte:
occurs in organisms having sporic meiosis.
522
Life cycles in which the haploid and diploid forms are similar in external appearance are said to have ______ generations.
isomorphic
523
One clear evolutionary trend in the vascular plants is the increasing dominance of:
the sporophyte.
524
Which of the following statements about phylum Anthophyta is FALSE?
The two major classes are the monocots and dicots.
525
Which of the following statements about myco-heterotrophic plants is FALSE?
They form haustoria with their host plant.
526
In a myco-heterotrophic relationship, the ______ transfers carbohydrates to the _______.
fungus; myco-heterotroph
527
The pedicel of a flower is:
the stalk of a flower in an inflorescence.
528
The fertile parts of a flower are the:
carpels and stamens.
529
The perianth consists of all the ______ of a flower.
sepals and petals
530
Which of the following statements about a stamen is FALSE?
It is part of the gynoecium.
531
The gynoecium consists of all the ______ of a flower.
carpels
532
The portion of a carpel that encloses the ovules is the:
ovary.
533
The style connects the _____ to the ______.
ovary; stigma
534
In axile placentation, the ovules are borne:
on a central column of tissue in a partitioned ovary.
535
A perfect flower contains:
carpels and stamens.
536
A monoecious species has:
staminate and carpellate flowers on the same plant.
537
A flower that has only stamens and petals is:
imperfect and incomplete.
538
An example of connation is the union of stamens with:
other stamens.
539
By definition, a flower with a aposepalous calyx has:
sepals not joined together.
540
In flowers with sepals, petals, and stamens attached below the ovary, the ovary is said to be:
superior.
541
All bilaterally symmetrical flowers are:
irregular.
542
In angiosperms, the mature female gametophyte consists of _____ cells.
7
543
In angiosperms, the ovary develops into a(n):
fruit.
544
The innermost layer of the pollen sac wall is the:
tapetum.
545
Microsporocytes divide by ______, forming ______.
meiosis; haploid microspores
546
Which of the following statements concerning pollen grain apertures is FALSE?
They are located in the intine.
547
Sporopollenin is the primary constituent of the:
exine.
548
When the microspore of an angiosperm divides, it gives rise directly to:
a generative cell and a tube cell.
549
A polymer in the _____ protects the pollen grain against UV radiation, dehydration, and pathogen attack.
exine
550
Which of the following statements about pollen grains is FALSE?
They are poorly represented in the fossil record.
551
About 70% of living angiosperms have a(n) _______ type of megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis.
Polygonum
552
In the most common pattern of embryo sac development in angiosperms, how many nuclei end up at the chalazal end?
3
553
______ are found at the chalazal end of the embryo sac.
Antipodals
554
In embryo sac development, the egg apparatus contains the egg cell and the:
synergids.
555
In the center of the embryo sac are the:
polar nuclei.
556
The mature female gametophyte is called a(n):
embryo sac.
557
The mature megagametophyte consists of ______ nuclei and _____ cells.
8; 7
558
In the process of pollination, the:
pollen passes from the anther to a stigma.
559
Which of the following statements concerning transmitting tissue is FALSE?
It is classified as being either wet or dry.
560
________ mark the pathways of sperm cell and sperm nucleus migrations within the ovule.
Actin “coronas”
561
In the process of double fertilization, one sperm fuses with the ______, and the other sperm fuses with the ______.
egg; polar nuclei
562
In most angiosperms, the primary endosperm nucleus is:
3n.
563
The process of double fertilization occurs:
only in angiosperms, Ephedra, and Gnetum.
564
The function of the endosperm is to provide ______ for the embryo.
food
565
In some angiosperms, the food store of the seed is perisperm derived from the:
nucellus.
566
Unlike gymnosperms, the stored food in angiosperms is:
formed after fertilization.
567
As the seed develops, the ovary wall becomes the:
pericarp.
568
Angiosperms first appear in the fossil record in the ______ period.
Cretaceous
569
The most recent evidence indicates that:
The angiosperms have close relatives among the living gymnosperms.
570
Which of the following is NOT a unique characteristic of the angiosperms?
Stamens with four pairs of pollen sacs
571
The monocots and eudicots comprise approximately _____ percent of living angiosperms.
97
572
Which of the following do NOT have single-pored pollen?
eudicots
573
Which of the following statements concerning Amborella is FALSE?
It belongs to the Mesangiospermae.
574
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Archaefructus?
petals
575
The original angiosperms most likely:
had simple flowers.
576
In most angiosperms, petals are probably evolutionary derivatives of:
stamens.
577
In contrast to living angiosperms, the stamens of archaic angiosperms:
are colored and fleshy.
578
In archaic angiosperms, the carpels:
are leaflike.
579
Which of the following is NOT an evolutionary trend among flowers?
from an inferior ovary to a superior ovary
580
Ray flowers and disk flowers are characteristic of the:
Asteraceae.
581
The largest angiosperm family is the:
Orchidaceae.
582
The pollinium consists of the:
contents of an anther.
583
Which of the following was NOT an evolutionary adaptation of angiosperms in response to insects?
unisexual flowers
584
The most important flower-visiting animals in angiosperm evolution are:
bees.
585
Which of the following is NOT an example of coevolution of bees and flowers?
Flowers pollinated by bees are usually red.
586
Flowers with a long corolla tube are most likely pollinated by:
moths.
587
Which of the following statements concerning pollination by “deception” is FALSE?
“Sex-deception” occurs exclusively in the grasses.
588
Most flowers pollinated by birds:
are red or yellow.
589
Which of the following statements about most bat-pollinated flowers is FALSE?
They are relatively odorless.
590
Flowers pollinated by ______ are most likely to produce no nectar, have dull colors, are relatively small, and have the sexes separated on the same plant.
wind
591
The red, orange, and yellow pigments of flowers are:
carotenoids.
592
The most important pigments in floral coloration are:
flavonoids.
593
The red and blue pigments stored in vacuoles in flowers are:
anthocyanins.
594
______ are flavonoids that vary in color with the pH of the cell sap.
Anthocyanins
595
Ultraviolet absorbance in flowers is related to the presence of:
flavonoids.
596
The red color of beets is due to the presence of:
betacyanins.
597
By definition an accessory fruit develops from:
an ovary plus additional flower parts.
598
By definition, a parthenocarpic fruit lacks:
stamens.
599
Apples and pears are:
simple accessory fruits.
600
A simple fruit in which the inner layer of the fruit wall is fleshy is a(n):
berry.
601
A simple fruit in which the fleshy portion is derived largely from the base of the perianth is a(n):
pome.
602
By definition, an indehiscent fruit:
does not break open at maturity.
603
The fruit characteristic of the pea family is a(n):
legume.
604
Which of the following is NOT an indehiscent fruit?
capsule
605
The grains typical of the grass family are a type of fruit known as a:
caryopsis.
606
A _______, characteristic of the pea family and others, splits open at maturity into two or more one-seeded portions.
caryopsis
607
Which of the following is NOT an adaptation specific to wind-borne fruits or seeds?
tissue with large air spaces
608
In ______, the seeds are shot aloft from the plant.
Impatiens
609
The function of elaiosomes is to:
provide food for ants.
610
What is the apparent function of most secondary plant products?
restricting the palatability of the plant to herbivores
611
A relationship between plants of the mustard family Brassicaceae and larvae of the butterfly family Pierinae has developed such that the larvae:
feed only on those plants.
612
Which of the following statements about the coevolution of angiosperms and insects is FALSE?
Many of the possible coevolution variants have evolved only once within a particular plant family.
613
A plant’s body plan consists of a(n) ______ and a(n) ______ pattern.
apical-basal; radial
614
When the zygote first divides, the two daughter cells are the ______ cell and the ______ cell.
apical; basal
615
Located at the micropylar pole of the embryo is the:
basal cell.
616
Which of the following statements about the polarity of an embryo is FALSE?
It is established only after the zygote has divided.
617
Which primary meristem forms first?
protoderm
618
Which of the following statements concerning primary meristems is FALSE?
An example is the suspensor.
619
The procambium is the precursor of the:
xylem and phloem.
620
During early embryogenesis, the ground meristem surrounds the:
procambium.
621
Which of following lists the correct developmental sequence in eudicots, where I is the globular stage; II, the heart stage; III, the proembryo; IV, the torpedo stage; and V, the zygote?
V, III, I, II, IV
622
In embryogenesis in monocots, globular embryos next become:
cylindrical.
623
The root and shoot apical meristems first become discernible during the transition between the ______ and ______.
globular stage; torpedo stage
624
The cotyledons elongate most dramatically and may become curved during the _______ stage.
torpedo
625
Where does the shoot apical meristem arise in eudicot embryos?
between the two cotyledons
626
Normal development of the ______ prevents formation of extra embryos by the ______.
embryo proper; suspensor
627
During embryogenesis in Arabidopsis, mutants with the twn mutation:
form secondary embryos from the suspensor.
628
In Arabidopsis, embryonic development is thought to be coordinated by at least ______ distinct genes.
750
629
The stem-like axis above the cotyledon(s) is the:
epicotyl.
630
Which of the following CANNOT be part of the plumule?
radicle
631
In some embryos, below the hypocotyl the _________ is found.
radicle
632
In eudicots, in which most of the endosperm is absorbed by the embryo, the cotyledons:
are large and fleshy.
633
The cotyledon of grasses is called a(n):
scutellum.
634
In monocots, the cotyledon can have all of the following functions EXCEPT:
protection of the plumule.
635
In a grass embryo, the coleorhiza encloses the:
radicle.
636
The integuments develop into the:
seed coat.
637
Which of the following statements about the seed coat is FALSE?
It develops from the ovary.
638
In grasses, the pericarp consists of the:
mature ovary and remnants of the seed coat only.
639
The scar left on the seed coat after the seed has separated from its stalk is called the:
hilum.
640
Which of the following statements concerning the maturation phase of seed development is FALSE?
Cell division in the embryo accelerates.
641
Which of the following events is NOT associated with seed germination?
synthesis of food reserves
642
When the seed coat is ruptured during germination, the seed:
switches to aerobic respiration.
643
A quiescent seed is different from a dormant seed in that a quiescent seed will germinate:
when hydrated.
644
Which of the following would not typically cause coat-imposed dormancy?
prevention of the release of growth promoters from the seed
645
Embryo dormancy would typically be caused by:
an increase in abscisic acid concentrations.
646
The process of after-ripening involves:
enzymatic modification of a dormant seed so that it will germinate.
647
In temperate regions of the world, after-ripening is triggered by:
low temperature.
648
What induces the seeds of manzanita and other plants of the California chaparral to germinate?
fire
649
The ______ is usually the first structure to emerge from a germinating seed.
root
650
In monocots, the root system commonly develops from:
stem-borne roots.
651
In epigeous germination, which structure emerges above ground first?
hypocotyl
652
In the pea (Pisum sativum), the ______ forms the hook that pushes to the soil surface during seed germination.
epicotyl
653
Which of the following statements about seed germination in onion (Allium cepa) is FALSE?
Germination is hypogeous.
654
In maize (Zea mays), the first structure to emerge from the seed during germination is the:
coleorhiza.
655
Which of the following statements about the shoot and root apical meristems is FALSE?
They lose the potential to divide soon after embryogenesis is complete.
656
In contrast to derivatives, initials:
give rise to more initials and derivatives.
657
Which of the following statements about primary growth is FALSE?
It results in the thickening of the stem and root.
658
When a botanist uses the word “indeterminate,” she is referring to the:
unlimited growth of the apical meristems.
659
Most of the growth of a plant body is the result of:
cell enlargement.
660
Morphogenesis refers to:
the acquisition of a particular shape.
661
The developmental fate of a plant cell is determined mostly by:
its final position.
662
____________ refers to the phenomenon whereby a cell becomes increasingly committed to a course of development that weakens its ability to resume growth.
Determination
663
The three tissue systems of vascular plants are:
the dermal, vascular, and ground tissue systems.
664
From which primary meristem does sclerenchyma develop?
ground meristem
665
In a eudicot stem, ______ is the ground tissue external to the system of vascular strands and ______ is the ground tissue internal to these strands.
cortex; pith
666
______ is a simple tissue, and ______ is a complex tissue.
Collenchyma; xylem
667
The rays found in secondary vascular tissue consist of:
parenchyma cells.
668
Which of the following statements about parenchyma cells is FALSE?
They lack secondary walls.
669
Cells that are totipotent, play an important role in wound healing, and initiate adventitious structures are:
parenchyma cells.
670
The role of transfer cells is to:
facilitate the movement of solutes over short distances.
671
______ tissue is composed of cells having unevenly thickened primary walls.
Collenchyma
672
______ is the typical supporting tissue of growing stems, leaves, and floral parts.c
Collenchyma
673
Which of the following statements about sclerenchyma cells is FALSE?
They strengthen plant parts that are still elongating.
674
The two types of ______ cells are fibers and sclereids.
sclerenchyma
675
______ are types of tracheary elements.
Vessel elements and tracheids
676
Perforation plates are characteristic of the ______ of ______.
vessel elements; angiosperms
677
One role of pit membranes in tracheids is to:
trap air bubbles.
678
By definition, metaxylem is ______ protoxylem.
formed after
679
An example of programmed cell death is the differentiation of:
tracheary elements.
680
In vascular plants, food is conducted through:
sieve cells and sieve-tube elements only.
681
Which of the following statements about sieve cells is FALSE?
They are interconnected to form sieve tubes.
682
Callose is a ______ deposited in the ______ of sieve elements.
carbohydrate; pores
683
A cell that is alive at maturity but lacks a nucleus and certain organelles is the:
sieve element.
684
During the differentiation of sieve-tube elements, which of the following does not disintegrate?
endoplasmic reticulum
685
Which of the following statements about P-protein is FALSE?
In undisturbed cells, it plugs the sieve-plate pores.
686
Which of the following statements about forisomes is FALSE?
They seal the sieve-plate pores in undisturbed sieve tubes.
687
The parenchyma cells that are developmentally related to the ______ of angiosperms are called ______.
sieve-tube elements; companion cells
688
The _____ is thought to supply the sieve-tube element with essential molecules.
companion cell
689
Albuminous cells are thought to have the same function as:
companion cells.
690
Which of the following statements concerning the epidermis is FALSE?
Stomata are epidermal cells.
691
Stomata are the ______ between ______.
pores; guard cells
692
A subsidiary cell is most closely associated with which of the following?
guard cells
693
Which of the following is NOT a function of trichomes?
providing structural support
694
Which of the following is NOT part of the periderm?
phelloderm
695
The cork cambium produces ______ on its outer surface and ______ on its inner surface.
cork; phelloderm
696
When a seed germinates, the __________ is the first structure to emerge.
root
697
The two primary functions of roots are:
anchorage and absorption.
698
Which of the following statements concerning roots is FALSE?
Some roots contain an internal rhizosphere.
699
The rhizosphere is the volume of:
soil around the root.
700
In gymnosperms and eudicots, the primary root is called the:
taproot.
701
Which of the following statements about monocot roots is FALSE?
The main root system has one prominent root.
702
Which of the following statements about feeder roots is FALSE?
They are usually found in the lower 15 centimeters of soil.
703
After you transplant a shrub, which of the following is the more effective next step you should do to increase the chances that the shrub will survive?
Cut back the shoot.
704
Which of the following statements about the rootcap is FALSE?
Its peripheral cells are not replaced.
705
Which of the following statements about border cells is FALSE?
They produce a similar array of proteins during their lifetime.
706
Gravity- and water-potential gradients are perceived by the:
lateral rootcap.
707
The promeristem of the root:
is the most distal part of the apical meristem.
708
In a “closed type” of root apical organization, the:
rootcap, vascular cylinder, and cortex each have their own initials.
709
Which of the following statements about the quiescent center is FALSE?
It is located a short distance behind the apical meristem.
710
The sequence of regions in a growing root, beginning immediately behind the rootcap, is:
cell division, elongation, maturation.
711
Root hairs are produced in the:
region of maturation.
712
Protophloem and protoxylem mature in the:
region of elongation.
713
The ______ occupies the greatest area of the primary root.
cortex
714
Aerenchyma is found in the:
cortex
715
Substances moving through the root cortex:
follow both symplastic and apoplastic pathways.
716
The innermost layer of the cortex is the:
endodermis.
717
Which of the following statements about Casparian strips is FALSE?
They are permeable to water but not to ions.
718
The presence of Casparian strips forces substances entering and leaving the vascular cylinder to pass through the protoplasts of ______ cells.
endodermal
719
Suberin lamellae, such as those found in some older roots, are alternating layers of:
suberin and wax.
720
Endodermal cells that do not become suberized in older roots are called ______ cells.
passage
721
Which of the following statements about the exodermis is FALSE?
It is part of the epidermis.
722
The outermost layer of a root’s vascular cylinder is the:
pericycle.
723
At the center of most eudicot roots is:
metaxylem.
724
The protoxylem poles are located next to the:
pericycle.
725
Primary phloem is located between the:
xylem ridges.
726
In the center of maize roots is:
a pith.
727
The vascular cambium is initiated by cells:
between the primary xylem and primary phloem.
728
In roots, the vascular cambium arises from the:
procambium and pericycle only.
729
s the vascular cambium continues to divide during secondary growth of the root, most of the primary phloem:
is crushed.
730
In roots, cork cambium arises in the:
pericycle.
731
Immediately inside the cells of the cork cambium is:
phelloderm.
732
If you placed your hand on the outer surface of a root that is one meter in diameter, you would be touching:
cork.
733
In a woody root one meter in diameter, which tissue would NOT be present
epidermis
734
In angiosperms, cells of the ______ and the ______ contribute to lateral root formation.
endodermis; pericycle
735
A stilt root is an example of a(n):
aerial root.
736
A pneumatophore is:
negatively gravitropic.
737
Velamen is a(n):
multiple epidermis.
738
Which of the following statements about supernumerary cambia in sugarbeet roots is FALSE?
They produce phloem toward the inside and xylem toward the outside.
739
Which of the following is(are) NOT produced by the shoot apical meristem?
a protective covering
740
Which of the following is NOT part of a phytomere?
apical meristem
741
Which of the following statements about cells of the tunica is FALSE?
They form four layers in most angiosperms.
742
In the angiosperm shoot apex, the corpus and overlying tunica constitute the:
central zone.
743
In Arabidopsis, the protoderm originates from the:
outermost tunica layer.
744
Which of the following statements about the Tilia stem is FALSE?
The xylem is located outside the phloem.
745
In the Sambucus stem, phloem differentiates toward the ______ and xylem differentiates toward the ______.
outside; center
746
Which of the following statements about the Ranunculus stem is FALSE?
It has a vascular cambium.
747
______ has a stem with scattered vascular bundles.
Zea
748
Extensions of vascular tissues into the leaves from the stem are called:
leaf traces.
749
A leaf trace extends between the leaf and a:
stem bundle.
750
A sessile leaf, by definition, lacks a ______.
petiole.
751
In most monocots, the base of the leaf is expanded into a ______.
sheath.
752
A leaf having a rachis is a ______ leaf.
pinnately compound
753
Plants that are characterized as xerophytes:
are adapted to dry habitats.
754
Which of the following statements about the leaf epidermis is FALSE?
Its cells are loosely arranged.
755
Which of the following statements about palisade parenchyma is FALSE?
It is usually located on the lower side of the leaf.
756
Unlike the leaves of eudicots, most monocot leaves:
have parallel venation.
757
Which of the following statements about bundle-sheath extensions is FALSE?
They interconnect all the bundle sheaths in a leaf.
758
Unlike C3 grasses, C4 grasses have leaves:
with mesophyll and bundle-sheath cells in two concentric layers.
759
Which of the following statements about bulliform cells is FALSE?
They are large mesophyll cells.
760
Which layer(s) of the peripheral zone of the shoot apical meristem are the founder cells?
L1, L2, and L3
761
Unlike the midrib, the leaf blade develops from:
marginal meristems.
762
In leaves, intercalary growth occurs by:
cell division and cell enlargement throughout the blade.
763
In eudicots, the major veins develop toward the ______ and the minor veins develop toward the ______.
leaf margins; leaf base
764
In grass leaves, the midvein and other large longitudinal strands arise at the _____ of the primordium and develop _____.
base; both upward and downward
765
Compared with sun leaves, shade leaves:
have a lower ratio of mesophyll surface area to leaf blade surface area.
766
Which of the following events is NOT associated with leaf abscission?
Return of reusable substances to the leaf
767
Which of the following statements about the transition region and its formation is FALSE?
Vascular transition is initiated soon after seed germination.
768
Which of the following events does NOT occur in a shoot apex during flower development?
A change from determinate to indeterminate growth
769
he homeotic mutation that results in “double flowers” in some rose varieties causes ______ to be converted into ______.
stamens; petals
770
Studies of Arabidopsis mutants have identified classes of ______ that affect the identity of floral organs.
homeotic genes
771
The studies of homeotic mutations in Arabidopsis initially identified _____ classes of genes essential to normal flower development, but this model has recently been expanded to ____ gene classes.
3; 5
772
Most tendrils are modified:
leaves.
773
A spine is a modified:
leaf.
774
A prickle is a modification of:
the epidermis.
775
The edible portion of an Irish potato is a:
tuber.
776
A stolon is different from a rhizome in that a stolon:
grows aboveground.
777
A bulb is different from a corm in that a bulb:
stores food in its leaves.
778
When you eat celery and rhubarb you are eating:
petioles.
779
A succulent leaf is one that is specialized for:
water storage.
