Final Flashcards

(151 cards)

1
Q

Variolation

A

inoculation of healthy individuals with a small amount of viral pathogen through a scratch on the skin to protect against infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vaccination

A

inoculation of healthy individuals with less virulent forms of a microorganism to produce an immune response that will protect against the wild-type pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

attenuated

A

a reduced level of virulence where symptoms are mild or inconsequential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ebolavirus illness categroy

A

life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

rhinovirus illness category

A

inconvenient illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hepatitis C illness category

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which is NOT a characteristic of viral nucleic acids?

  1. always double stranded
  2. used to classify viruses
  3. can be linear or circular
  4. stored in capsid or nucleocapsid
A

they are always double stranded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The first person to use a less pathogenic virus to vaccinate and prevent infection by a more pathogenic virus was

A

edward jenner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

influenza was the first human virus discovered

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which researchers worked with food and mouth disease

A

leoffler and frosch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Leeuwenhoek

A

invented microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

leoffler and frosh

A

first to discover an animal virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ivanosky and Beijernick

A

pathogen causing tobacco mosiac disease was smaller than bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F virus replication rarely causes disease symptoms because symptoms are always there result of the host immune response to infection

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F viral infection always results in some apparent change to the cell

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a person acquiring a viral infection after handling reptiles is what type of transmission

A

zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which are viral shapes: icosahedral, helical, prolate, sputnick

A

icosahedral, helical, prolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what type of virus is there a nucleocapsid?

A

enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

allantoic inocculation of embryonated chicken eggs with ___ is still used for what virus

A

influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pyknosis

A

nuclear shrinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

syncytium formation

A

cell fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

negri bodies

A

virions in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which of the following techniques can overestimate the number of infectious viral particles present?
plaque assays
antibody based assays
genetic assays

A

antibody

genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

t/f plaque assays are useful for indentying the specific viruses present in a sample

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
``` which of the following are differences between single step and mutli step growth curves the number of cells infected the number of burst phases the MOI used to start infection the number of eclipse periods ```
the number of cells infiitally infected the number of burst phases the MOI
26
T/F During viral infection, the viral genome is copied before the viral mRNA is translated
false
27
T/F a resistant cell has a viral receptor but will not support viral replication
false
28
At an MOI =10, which of the following statements is correct
on average, approximately 10 viruses were added per 1 target cell
29
the titer or concentration of a virus stock can be measured using a plaque assay and is calculated in..
PFUs
30
T/F an advantage of using immortalized cell lines to grow and study viruses is that they have a relativley short life span
false
31
T/F viral enzymes packaged in the viral particle are used to convert ssDNA viral genomes into double stranded DNA
false
32
Out of the DNA viral genomes, which is the only one that can be converted direcetly into mRNA
dsDNA
33
T/F RV differer from other ss(+) RNA viruses in that their genomes are NOT directly translated into proteins
true
34
T/F all +RNA is mRNA
false
35
Which of the following types of proteins are encoded by all viruses
NOT: those used for viral release from cells
36
what two enzymes are only encoded by viruses
RdRp and RT
37
What virally encoded enzyme is responsible for converting RNA to DNA
RT
38
the ribosomes and other cellular enzymes necessary for most RNA viruses to replicate are found at what location
cytoplasm
39
T/F the genomes of all independently replicating viruses encode for at least 2 proteins
false
40
Which type of antigenic change is responsible for seasonal flu?
antigenic drift
41
T/F viral capsids can aid in packaging of viral nucleic acids
true
42
T/F during the lytic cycle, bactiophage incorporate their DNA into the bacteral host chromosome
false
43
T/F the lysogenic phase of bacteriophage supports the coevolution hypothesis
false
44
T/F only icosahedral shaped capsids can be enveloped
false
45
T/F viral capsids are generally made from small number of structural subunits that are repeated to form a regular symmetrical strucutre
true
46
glycoproteins are found on the viral
envelope
47
why do most DNA viruses need to migrate to the nucleus in otder to replicate
because the enzymes and machinery needed for replication are found in the nucleus
48
which type of receptor mediated endocytosis results in the formation of a caveosome
caveolin-dependent endocytosis
49
T/F viral capsids and glycoproteins often undergo conformaitonal change when they interact with the host cell recptor
true
50
what is the first step to all viral infectious cycles
attachment of the virus to host cell
51
which of the following entry mechanims begins with a virus binding to protein or carb coated pits? 1. caveolin dependent endocytosis 2. pinocytosis 3. clathrin and caveolin independent endocysis 4. clathrin dependent endocytosis
caveolin dependent endocytosis clathrin dependent endocytosis
52
viral fusion proteins can be exposed for insertion into the host cell membrane under what conditions
the endosome becomes acidified | the entry receptor is bound
53
What is false about viral infection
the cell cytoplams is largley empty which allows viruses to move freely
54
T/F closely related viruses always find to the same receptors on cells
false
55
T/F virus uncoating in the caveosome is pH dependent process
false
56
what is false about Antibody dependent enhancment of dengue infection
antibodies generated agaisnt one strain of dengue bind optimally to all other strains
57
what is false about alphaviruses
all alphavirus proteins are translated directly from the genomic TNA
58
T/F dengue viruses acquires its envelope from the endoplasmic reticulum
true
59
which areas of the body can non polio enteroviruses infect
skin, heart, meninges
60
T/F the HBGA type expressed by an individual can dictate which norovirus strain that person is susceptible to
true
61
viruses that possess ss(+) RNA genomes that are not retrovirues replicate at which location
cytoplasm
62
for ss(+) RNA viruses why must translation occur prior to replication of the viral genome
because Rdrp must be made in order to copy the genome
63
which of the following structural features of ss(+) RNA genomes allows them to serve as mRNA? protein linked to 5' end exons intergenic sequences poly-a tails
protein linked to the 5' end | poly A tails
64
why do certain arboviruses like Zika virus spread so prolifically in areas with high mosquito populations
infected people have high viral titers in the blood and can transmit the viruses to mosquitoes when bitten
65
which of the following statements is false
all RT have icosahedral shaped nucelocapids
66
which is the most common type of HIV virus
HIV-1
67
T/F the HIV genome is transcribed into RNA and translated into proteins by viral enzymes
false
68
T/F during HIV replication the ss(+) RNA viral genome is concerted to dsDNA outside of the nucleus
true
69
what is false regarding retrovirus integration into mammalian chromosomes
viral enzymes are responsible for the duplication of host DNA around the insertion site
70
which host cell receptor is the first one to be bound by HIV during attachment
CD4
71
Mature HIV virions possess how many copies of RNA
2
72
of the lentivirus proteins listed below, which ones can only be made when a stop codon is being suppressed
gag-pol proteins
73
which ebola virus proteins are involved in blocking the host immune response
VP 40 | VP 24
74
Which influenza viral surface proteins interacts with sialic acid
neuraminidase | hemagglutinin
75
T/F people can only transmit influenza if they are activley experiencing symptoms
false
76
the mRNA made generated from the INfluenza virus genome segments are full length copies of the genomic RNA
false
77
T/F some influenza mRNAs encode for multiple proteins
true
78
t/f new influenza virus particles are formed in the cytoplasm
true
79
which area of the body is the first site of rabies virus replication
muscle cells
80
t/f ss(-) RNA viruses produce mRNAs that are shorter thn viral genome
true
81
what is the most common type of influenza virus to infect people
A
82
During mRNA synthesis, specific regions of the VSV genome cause the RdRp to stop making mRNA. what is the name of that region
intergenic region (Ig)
83
what is the incubation period for measles infection
10-14 days
84
parovovirus are able to infect which of the following hosts
human, dog, cats
85
ssDNA viruses only package a (+) stand of DNA into new viral particles
false
86
which of the following viruses is a dsRNA virus
rotavirus
87
what is the first viral protein made during AAV replication
rep 78/68
88
t/f most of the deaths resulting from rotavirus infection occur in developing countries
true
89
match the virus to the correct family norovirus influenza hepatitis B virus
calici orthomyxo hepadna
90
mode of transmisison: zika ebola rabies
mosquito contact with fluid animal bites
91
what is tramitted by bats
ebola and rabies
92
which of the following viruses are able to infect dendritic cells
zika, ebola HIV
93
which activity of the polymerase is responsible for degrading the pregenomic RNA during hepatitis B DNA replication
Rnase H activity
94
which of the following are characteritis of the hepattis B genome?
circular | partially double stranded
95
how is Hep B virus transported through the cell to the nucleus after entry?
by microtubles
96
which of the following HBV antigens signfiy active infection
E antigen
97
T/F in hep b replication, cellular enzymes are respnosible for generating mRNA
true
98
which of the following are functions of herpes virus immediate early proteins
activate transcription of early genes | shut off protein synthesis
99
T/F all herpes virus tegument proteins remain inthe cytoplasm after uncoating of the virus
false
100
viral enzymes nick the Pox virus genome to intiatie DNA replicaiton
true
101
which of the following is a reason that pox viruses have very large genomes
they replicate in the cytoplasm and so must encode many of their own polyermarses
102
T/F cellular enzymes are responsible for cleaving apart the multiple copies dsDNA made during rolling circle replication
false
103
Which EBV diagnostic test detects antibodies the patient has made against the viral capsid antigen
anti VCA
104
which herpes causes mononucleosis disease
EBV
105
during reactivation of herpesviruses how long do blisters last
1 week
106
what are the modes of transmission for herpes viruses
passing from mother to child | sexual
107
T/F viruses that are undergo latent infections are able to control the timig of their gene expression
true
108
Which type of infection is characterized by a low and steady level of vial tities that resultin death
slow infection
109
what was the first antival therapy for Hep C
interfron +ribovirin
110
T/F the M2 protein is only found on Flue A and no Flu B
false
111
which of the following influenza components can be targetedt by antivirals
M2 ion channel
112
what is the most common chronic blood borne infection i nthe US
Hep C
113
what component of Hep C provides us with multiple drug targets for antivirals
non-strctural proteins
114
If a disease can be prevented by vaccination why do we see increased incidences of those diseases in some populations
because the number of vaccinated people in the population has dropped below the threshold for herd immunity
115
The major antiviral drug agaisnt HSV is what
nuceloside analog
116
which organization decides the strains for the influzena vacine
WHO
117
``` which viruses of the following have vaccines available noro yellow fever hepC polio ```
yellow fever | poilo
118
which component of influenza aids in lowering the internal pH of theviral particle
M2 ion channel
119
what viral functions can be targeted by herpes simplex
DNA/RNA replication assembly Penetration and uncoating
120
T/F attenuated pathogens used in live vaccines are not able to revert back to wild type
false
121
bacteriophage are less specific in their cellular binding compared to eukarotic viruess
false
122
once bacteriophage has enetered the lysogenic phase and integrated it is locked in that phase
false
123
what is not a charcteristic of transformed cells
contact inhibition
124
which of the following is one of the major reasons that transformation is the first step in oncogenesis
transfromed cells continually replicate
125
all types of HPV are equally capable of causing cancer
false
126
which of the follwoing are human onocogenic virues
karposi sarcoma | human genital papilomaviurs
127
How can doctors minimize the impact of the narrow host range of bacteriophage when using phage therapy
phage cocktail
128
T/F retroviruses are able to carry mutated genes from one cell to another
true
129
resting cell infection
infect those not activley divding
130
infection efficienty
how well thevirus infects a given type
131
pathogenistiy
ability to cause disease
132
stability of gene expression
ability of a deleivered gene to beexpressed for extendedperiods fotime
133
advantages for RT as gene therapy
low inflamm response | high infection rate
134
what virus is being developed as an ocolytic virus to treat cancer
adenovirus
135
TF oncolytic viruses can have their surface proteins modified to change the cells they recognize
false
136
what property of cells a makes cell based delivery possible
homing properties
137
Adenovirus advantages
large genome, broad tropism
138
AAV advantge
high tissue specificigy and cn persit in non dividng cells
139
adenovrius paticles formed in
nucleus
140
oncolytic viruses
herpes and reo
141
which is not a live attenuated vaccine
hep B
142
primary site of infection of chicken pox
upper respit
143
which processes allow for direct transport of newly made Pox virues into neighboring cels
dissolution of viral factories actin polymerationzation
144
which of the following is one function of Hep B polymerase?
rna synthesis
145
ebola zika human B19
ss- rna ss+rna ssDNA
146
mechanism of DNA replication for parvovirus
strand displacement
147
where in the cell do parvocairuess uncoat and release genetic material
nucleus
148
cellular receptor for VSV
LDL
149
why cant VSV replication immediatley
N protein
150
early symptoms of Ebola
fever, muscle pain, stomach pain
151
where are the packacked RdRp enzymes of Reoviruses located in the viral particle
beneth the turret