Final Flashcards
(201 cards)
1
Q
Which hemodynamic system serves as a reservoir for circulating blood?
A
Veins
2
Q
A patient has taken a medication that causes the arterioles to dilate. What will likely happen to the cardiac afterload?
A
It will decrease
3
Q
Which drugs will lead the nurse to monitor a patient closely for reflex tachycardia?
A
- A drug that dilates veins
* A drug that dilates arterioles
4
Q
Which patient receiving losartan should be monitored closely while receiving this therapy?
A
The patient with an elevated creatine level
5
Q
Which statement is true regarding the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?
A
Angiotensinogen is catalyzed by renin into angiotensin I
6
Q
A patient with hypertension and left ventricular hypertrophy takes losartan mg daily. What is a benefit of this therapy for a patient with hypertension?
A
This medication decreases the risk of stroke
7
Q
The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed aliskiren. How does this medication lower blood pressure?
A
It inhibits the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
8
Q
The nurse is caring for a patient who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. If the patient develops a persistent nonproductive cough, what should the nurse do?
A
Notify the provider of the new development
9
Q
The nurse administers candesartan to a patient. Which assessment finding should the nurse use as a clinical indicator of the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication?
A
Blood pressure reduction
10
Q
For which purpose should the nurse administer aliskiren to a patient with hypertension?
A
To reduce blood pressure
11
Q
Which medication is most likely to cause constipation?
A
Diltiazem
12
Q
Which patient finding would cause the nurse to hold the 8 a.m. dose of verapamil?
A
The patient has hypotension
13
Q
What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?
A
Notify the healthcare provider of nausea, vomiting, and visual changes
14
Q
A patient develops hypotension after administration of verapamil. Which intervention is appropriate?
A
Place in modified Trendelenburg position
15
Q
A patient is receiving nifedipine. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for this patient?
A
Ankle edema
16
Q
A staff member asks how calcium channel blockers (CCBs) work. Which response should the nurse provide?
A
CCBs relax vascular smooth muscle
17
Q
The nurse is caring for patients receiving vasodilators. Which instruction should the nurse give the patients to combat a common adverse effect?
A
Rise slowly from a sitting to standing position
18
Q
The nurse is preparing to administer minoxidil 5mg orally. What is the only cardiovascular indication for this medication?
A
Severe hypotension
19
Q
A patient is taking minoxidil and develops hypertrichosis. Which area should the nurse assess first?
A
Face
20
Q
which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering hydralazine?
A
Blood pressure
21
Q
The nurse is caring for a patient with a ventricular dysrhythmia resulting from digoxin toxicity. Which medication does the nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe?
A
Phenytoin
22
Q
Which statement by a patient demonstrates correct understanding of the nurse’s teaching about quinidine?
A
I should call my provider immediately if my ears are ringing
23
Q
Which should the nurse teach a patient who is diagnosed with nonsustained ventricular tachycardia?
A
The risk of drug therapy outweighs the benefits for this disorder in most cases
24
Q
Before administering amiodarone, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to complete?
A
Heart rate
25
The cardiac monitor alarm alerts the nurse that the patient is experiencing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) with a heart rate of 180 bets/min; the nurse would expect to administer which injectable, fast-acting medication?
Adenosine
26
The nurse should teach a patient with intractable atrial fibrillation about which characteristic of amiodarone?
This drug has some server toxicities
27
The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed quinidine for a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Which is a common side effect of this drug?
Diarrhea
28
The patient has received a dose of esmolol. The nurse should carefully monitor for which adverse effects?
* Hypotension ‘
* Bronchospasm
* Decreased cardiac output
* Capillary blood glucose 145 mg/dL
29
A patient receiving amiodarone develops chest pain. Which is the nurse’s priority action?
Assess the patient’s lungs
30
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving dronedarone for treatment of atrial fibrillation. Which electrocardiogram (ECG) change indicates an adverse effect of this medication?
The QT-interval measurement changes from 400msec to 520 msec.
31
Which statement indicates the nurse understands the action of calcium channel blockers?
These medications slow cardiac conduction
32
Which drug is a class III antidysrhythmic?
Amiodarone
33
The nurse can safely administer verapamil to a patient with which vital signs?
Systolic blood pressure 110 mm Hg
34
A patient with cardiovascular disease is taking rosuvastatin. Which finding would indicate a potential adverse effect of this drug?
Muscle pain and tenderness
35
The nurse is caring for a patient who has hyperlipidemia and who has been prescribed gemfibrozil. On reviewing the medical history of the patient, the nurse learns that the patient is taking warfarin. What does the nurse anticipate after reviewing the patient’s medical history?
The patient has an increased risk of bleeding
36
Which statement indicates the patient understands discharge instructions regarding cholestyramine?
I will take cholestyramine with water, fruit juice, or soup
37
Which patient’s statement indicates a need for further medication instruction about colestipol?
I should stir the powder in as small an amount of fluid as possible to maintain potency of the medication
38
The nurse reviews the history for a patient taking atorvastatin. What will the nurse act on immediately?
The patient is on oral contraceptives
39
Which antilipemic medication reduces serum cholesterol by inhibiting its absorption in the small intestine?
Ezetimibe
40
A patient is admitted in a hypertensive emergency, and examination revels papilledema. The nurse would anticipate administering which medication?
Sodium nitroprusside
41
Which goal does the nurse document in the plan of care for a 63-year-old patient with hypertension?
Maintain blood pressure below 150/90 mm Hg
42
The nurse is reviewing a medication history on a patient taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse will contact the health care provider if the patient is also taking which medication?
Spironolactone
43
A patient taking clonidine for hypertension is being discharge teaching about the therapy. Which information would be included in this teaching plan?
Do not drink alcohol when on this therapy
44
Which patient assessment would assist the nurse is evaluating the therapeutic effects of a calcium channel blocker?
Absence of chest pain
45
Which medication combination is useful in the treatment of variant angina?
Diltiazem and isosorbide mononitrate
46
Which patient with angina would be at increased risk for adverse effects after the administration of beta blockers?
A patient with diabetes mellitus
47
Which nitrate preparation or dosage form has the longest duration of action?
Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
48
Which assessment finding could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI) in a patient who is taking nitroglycerin for angina?
Chest pain is not relieved by administering nitroglycerin
49
The nurse is monitoring a patient during intravenous (IV) nitroglycerin infusion. Which assessment finding will cause the nurse to take action?
Chest pain
50
Which medication is the treatment of choice for ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)-associated pain?
Morphine
51
Which adverse effect is the greatest concern with thrombolytic therapy?
Intracranial hemorrhage
52
The patient has been placed on aspirin as an antiplatelet drug. Which side effect is the patient most likely to experience?
Nausea
53
Which best describes the mechanism of action of an anticoagulant?
Reduces the formation of fibrin
54
The patient is scheduled to receive argatroban. Which is the correct route by which to administer the drug?
Intravenous
55
A nurse is teaching students about macrophages. What does the nurse identify as the macrophages’ primary function?
Phagocytosis
56
A nurse is describing mediator molecules released by any immune system cell. Which specific term does the nurse use to identify a mediator molecule released by a phagocyte?
Monokine
57
Which substance serves as the stimulus for macrophage activation in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions?
Interferon gamma
58
A patient has tuberculosis. Which type of process acts to rid the body of mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Type IV hypersensitivity
59
Which statement by a student nurse indicates an understanding of the characteristics and route of administration for the rotavirus vaccine?
This is a live virus that will be administered orally
60
A nurse is preparing to administer the rotavirus vaccine. Which route will the nurse use?
oral
61
Which population group will the nurse target for meningococcal conjugate vaccine?
College freshmen living in dormitories
62
A 3-year-old child is scheduled to receive pneumococcal vaccine (PCV). Which condition, if reported by the patient’s father, would prompt the nurse to hold the vaccine and contact the prescribing provider?
Temperature of 103oF
63
A nurse is preparing to administer the last dose of the haemophilus influenzae type b(Hib) vaccine. Which dose is the nurse giving?
Fourth
64
A patient takes tacrolimus. Which drug prescription will prompt the nurse to notify the provider?
Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
65
A nurse teaches a class about the action of calcineurin inhibitors. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session?
They suppress t-lymphocyte proliferation
66
Which medication is a monoclonal antibody used to inhibit allograft rejection in transplant recipients?
Basiliximab
67
A patient who has had a kidney transplant develops diabetes after taking an immunosuppressant drug. The nurse recognize which agent is the culprit?
Everolimus
68
The patient has an allergic reaction. The nurse identifies that histamine1 (h1) activation will cause which symptom?
Localized edema
69
A patient asks the nurse, “why should I switch to fexofenadine for my allergies when I’ve taken diphenhydramine for so long?” which response should the nurse make?
There is not nearly as much drowsiness and sedation
70
A patient is taking a first-generation H1 blocker for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which side effect?
Dry mouth
71
Which antipyretic drug will the nurse recommend to the parent of a child with influenza?
Acetaminophen
72
After administering acetylcysteine to a patient who overdose on acetaminophen, a nurse should recognize which outcome as an indicator of the therapeutic effects of acetylcysteine?
Absence of jaundice
73
The nurse should question an order for glucocorticoids in the treatment of a patient with which condition?
Systemic fungal infection
74
A patient takes glucocorticoids and digoxin. It is most important for the nurse to monitor which electrolyte?
Potassium
75
The nurse is developing a plan to minimize the risk of adrenal insufficiency for a patient who is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. Which outcome should be included?
Patient increases or supplements dosage of glucocorticoid at times of stress
76
Which medication is associated with risk for superinfection?
Ciprofloxacin
77
What is the difference bactericidal drugs and bacteriostatic drugs?
Bactericidal drugs are directly lethal to bacteria, and bacteriostatic drugs work to slow bacterial growth but do not cause cell death
78
Which class of drugs is most effective on human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
Drugs that suppress viral replication
79
How does penicillin work to destroy bacteria?
It interferes with cell wall synthesis
80
A patient has urticaria 10 minutes after having a penicillin intramuscular injection. Which type allergic reaction is the patient most likely experiencing?
Immediate
81
Which class of penicillin antibiotic is known as antistaphylococcal penicillin?
Penicillinase-resistant penicillins
82
An immunocompromised patient who is receiving piperacillian/tazobactam develops oozing and bleeding from the gums. Which additional data should the nurse determine?
The most recent platelet count
83
Which instructions should the nurse provide to a patient who is to start taking amoxicillin/clavulanate?
Amoxicillin/clavulanate may be taken with food or meals
84
Before administering a cephalosporin to a patient, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for an allergy history to which substance?
Penicillins
85
A patient has been prescribed cephalexin. Which instruction should the nurse give to the patient to improve drug efficacy?
Keflex can be taken with meals to avoid gastric upset
86
A patient has methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which is the only cephalosporin active against MRSA?
Ceftaroline
87
The nurse is monitoring a patient on vancomycin for indication of major toxicity. Which test should be monitored closely?
Creatinine level
88
What is the principal cause of cephalosporin resistance?
The production of beta-lactamases
89
Which best describes the action of vancomycin?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis promoting bacterial lysis
90
When ceftriaxone is administered intravenously, it is most important for the nurse to avoid mixing it with which substance?
Lactated ringer’s solution
91
Which laboratory reports should the nurse evaluate if the patient is administered vancomycin and tobramycin?
Serum creatinine
92
A patient with a clostridium difficile infeaction is placed on vancomycin. Which laboratory test results should the nurse expect to be drawn for this patient?
* Creatinine levels
* Serum electrolytes
* Trough serum levels
93
Which laboratory results should the nurse monitor more frequently when a patient is receiving clarithromycin and warfarin?
International normalized ratio (INR)
94
A patient who has a vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) infection is receiving linezolid. Which laboratory result indicates that the patient is having an adverse effect?
White blood cell (WBC) count of 1200 units/L
95
A patient has been ordered telithromycin as well as simvastatin. What is the nurse’s best action?
Hold the medication and call the health care provider
96
Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient receiving tetracycline?
Use sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors
97
A chronic alcoholic patient has developed cirrhosis of the liver. The primary health care provider has prescribed erythromycin. Which possible drug interaction should the nurse be aware of when administering additional drugs?
Development of drug toxicity
98
Which cardiovascular finding does the nurse identify as possible adverse effect of erythromycin therapy?
Prolonged QT interval
99
What does the nurse identify as an adverse effect of clindamycin therapy?
Frequent, loose, watery stools with mucus and blood
100
The nurse identifies which drug as a short-acting tetracycline?
Tetracycline
101
A primary healthcare provider has prescribed neomycin to a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. What should the nurse check before administering the drug to the patient?
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
102
Which drug is considered more ototoxic and nephrotoxic than any other aminoglycoside?
Neomycin
103
Which enteral aminoglycoside would the nurse expect to be ordered preoperatively for a patient having intestinal surgery?
Neomycin
104
A nurse is administering a daily dose of tobramycin at 10:00 AM. At which time should the nurse obtain the patient’s blood sample to determine the trough level?
9:00 am
105
The nurse knows that there is an increased risk of ototoxicity in a patient receiving aminoglycoside if which level is high?
Trough
106
Which patient is a potential candidate for antibiotic therapy involving an aminoglycoside?
A patient with pseudomonas aeruginosa pneumonia
107
Which of the following sulfonamides, applied topically, has the greatest therapeutic benefit for burns?
Silver sulfadiazine
108
Oral trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) is prescribed for a patient and is being administered four times a day. Which intervention is appropriate?
Call the health care provider
109
The nurse teaches the patient taking sulfamethoxale the importance of which action reduce crystalluria?
Increased fluid intake
110
Which sulfonamide has bacterial activity?
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ)
111
Why are sulfonamides avoided, if possible, for infants younger than 2 months of age?
They can cause kernicterus
112
When planning care for a patient receiving a sulfonamide antibiotic, which is the appropriate intervention?
Force fluids to at least 2000 mL/day
113
The nurse is teaching a patient who is begin taking nitrofurantoin. Which manifestation should be the priority to report to the health care provider?
Muscle weakness and tingling
114
With the exception of pyelonephritis, the nurse should be aware that most urinary tract infections (UTIs) are treated by which method?
Oral antibiotics in the home setting
115
A patient asks about a urinary tract infection (UTI) antibiotic that requires only one dose. Which first-line UTI antibiotic requires only one dose?
Fosfomycin
116
A patient who has acute cystitis is receiving treatment with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. Which manifestation should indicate to a nurse that the patient’s condition is worsening?
Flank pain
117
Which medication would be most beneficial for a patient with acute pyelonephritis?
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ)
118
What is the mechanism of action for nitrofurantoin?
It injuries bacteria by damaging DNA
119
A patient is taking nitrofurantoin. Which finding should a nurse recognize as an indication that the treatment is having an undesired effect?
Dyspnea with chills
120
After the induction phase of treatment for drug-sensitive tuberculosis using isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, a patient’s sputum still test positive for M. tuberculosis. Currently, there is no evidence of drug resistance. Which instruction would the nurse provide to this patient?
Continue with current regimen using directly observed therapy
121
What should the nurse teach a patient who is taking isoniazid?
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6 ) will prevent numbness and tingling that can occur when taking isoniazid
122
Which statement should the nurse include when teaching a patient about rifampin?
A harmless side effect will be a red-orange discoloration of body fluids
123
A patient is treated with rifabutin for tuberculosis. Which side effect would the nurse expect in the patient?
Reddish-brown feces
124
Which is a first-line antitubercular drug?
Isoniazid
125
Which is the most common site for infection caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Lung
126
For which condition can rifampin be prescribed to a patient?
Leprosy
127
Which statement by a patient indicates that the patient has understood the teaching regarding ethambutol?
I will need to have my eyes checked periodically while I am taking this drug
128
From which bacterial strain is bacillus Calmette-guerin derived?
Mycobacterium bovis
129
Which antitubercular drug works by disrupting cell wall synthesis and essential cellular functions?
Isoniazid
130
Which approach should the nurse take when administering an oral dose of levofloxacin?
Give the medication with or without food
131
A patient with diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. The nurse has administered fluconazole to this patient. Which possible drug interaction could occur?
Reduced metabolism of metformin
132
Which is the appropriate drug to treat a patient diagnosed with onychomycosis of the toenail?
Terbinafine oral
133
It is most important that the nurse assess a patient taking itraconazole for the development of which adverse effect?
Pedal edema
134
The nurse planning care for the patient receiving nystatin should establish which outcome on the care plan?
Decrease in mouth pain
135
When teaching patients about influenza vaccine, how often does the nurse advise patients to be vaccinate?
Once a year
136
Which drug is used to manage viral pneumonia in patient with respiratory syncytial virus?
Ribavirin
137
Which approach should a nurse take to administer intravenous acyclovir to an immunocompromised patient?
Infuse intravenous fluids during administration of the dose and for 2 hours afterward
138
A patient with cytomegalovirus infection is prescribed antiviral therapy with ganciclovir. Which diagnostic test results should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of the antiviral therapy prescribed for this patient?
Neutrophils
139
Which drug’s mechanism of action is to block the fusion process in the replication cycle of human immunodeficiency virus(HIV)?
Enfuvirtide
140
Which condition is the leading cause of vision loss in people with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
Cytomegalovirus retinitis
141
Which class of medication block human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) entry into cells?
Fusion inhibitors
142
During the assessment of a pregnant patient in labor, the nurse finds that the patient has active genital herpes lesions. What is the best strategy to prevent the spread of infection to the newborn?
Performing a cesarean section
143
Which outcome should a nurse establish for a patient with trichomoniasis who is receiving metronidazole?
Decreased in yellow-green, odorous vaginal discharge
144
What is true regarding treatment of a hospital patient with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Intravenous antibiotic treatment combined with oral or intramuscular treatment is required
145
What information have studies shown regarding antiseptic and disinfectants?
Antiseptics applied directly to the average patient contribute relatively little to prophylaxis against infection
146
Which statement about the use of glutaraldehyde does the nurse identify as true?
Glutaraldehyde should be used in a well-ventilated area
147
The nurse plans tracheostomy care by selecting hydrogen peroxide as one of the supplies to use for which purpose?
Disinfection of the inner cannula
148
The nurse is caring for a patient who has mild thrombocytopenia after chemotherapy. Which action should the nurse take?
Use minimal cuff inflation when taking the blood pressure
149
A patient with liver cancer requires assistance and frequent medical care. The nurse would give this patient which Karnofsky performance scale score?
50
150
The nurse planning care for a patient taking filgrastim would list which outcome as a goal for treatment?
An increase in white blood cells
151
The nurse understands that which type of anticancer drugs can act during any phase of the cell cycle?
Phase nonspecific
152
The nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to a patient diagnosed with choricinoma. Which intervention would the nurse perform prior to administration of methotrexate in a patient with choriocarcinoma?
Alkalinizing the urine
153
The nurse will anticipate which medication to patients receiving high-dose methotrexate?
Leucovorin
154
The nurse should identify which cytotoxic anticancer agent as most likely to cause pulmonary toxicity in the patient?
Nonanthracyclines
155
Before an infusion of paclitaxel, the nurse administers which medication to prevent a complication?
Diphenhydramine
156
The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of intravenous cetuximab. To prevent a complication, the nurse should have which medication readily available?
Epinephrine
157
The nurse will administer docetaxel to the patient with which type of cancer?
Hormone-refractory prostate cancer
158
Which symptoms does the nurse investigate first when monitoring a patient taking tamoxifen?
Vaginal bleeding
159
Which type of cancer will the nurse expect to find documented in the chart for a patient receiving tamoxifen?
Breast cancer
160
A patient who takes cromolyn for exercise-induced bronchospasms should follow which approach for maximum therapeutic effectiveness?
It should be administered by inhalation 15 minutes before anticipated exertion
161
To achieve therapeutic effectiveness, a nurse teaches a patient with chronic asthma to use an inhaled glucocorticoid medication according to which schedule?
On a consistent, daily basis
162
The nurse is caring for a patient with a theophylline level of 14 mcg/mL. what is the priority nursing intervention?
Continue to assess the patient’s oxygenation
163
Which are adverse effects of albuterol?
* Tremors
* Tachycardia
* Palpitations
164
Which medication disrupt the inflammatory response and is indicated in the treatment of asthma?
Montelukast
165
Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching for a patient who is to be started on zileuton?
Get liver tests performed once a month for the next three months
166
Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching a patient about the proper use of metered-dose inhalers?
Hold your breath for 10 seconds if you can after you inhale the medication
167
Which is the most effective antitussive?
Codeine
168
Which finding in a patient taking oxymetazoline nasal spray every 2 hours would indicate that the patient has developed an adverse effect?
Congestion and stuffiness
169
A nurse is planning care for a patient who takes fexofenadine for allergic rhinitis. Which outcome should the nurse anticipate?
Relief of sneezing and itching
170
Which statement by a patient indicates understanding of a nurse’s teaching about fluticasone nasal spray?
This drug will help prevent the inflammation and irritation caused by my allergies
171
Which antihistamine causes sedation in the patient as an adverse drug effect?
Diphenhydramine
172
Which symptoms of allergic rhinitis is treated with fluticasone?
Nasal congestion
173
Which is the mechanism of action of a proton pump inhibitor?
Suppresses acid secretion by inhibiting the enzyme that makes gastric acid
174
Why are proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) used in the treatment of patients with bleeding due to erosive esophagitis?
They act directly on the proton pump
175
What advise should a nurse give to a patient who was prescribed omeprazole for peptic ulcers?
Eat foods that are rich in magnesium
176
A nurse is planning care for a patient who has peptic ulcer disease and is taking amoxicillin. The nurse is aware that amoxicillin has which mechanism of action?
Disruption of the bacterial cell wall, causing lysis and death
177
A patient with hepatic encephalopathy receives lactulose. The nurse expects which therapeutic outcome if the medication is having the desired effect?
Reduced ammonia level
178
The patient has an order for magnesium oxide/anhydrous citric acid/sodium picosulfate to be given in two doses. The nurse knows that this medication is used for which indication?
Preparation before a colonoscopy
179
A patient is prescribed lorazepam and a glucocorticoid during chemotherapy treatments. What is the nurse’s best action?
Administer the medication and assess the patient for relief
180
A patient who has had a pancreatectomy is taking pancrelipase. Which finding would the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this drug?
Reduction of fatty stools
181
A patient is scheduled to start taking insulin glargine. Which information should the nurse give the patient regarding this medication?
This medication provides blood glucose control for 24 hours
182
The nurse administers neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin at 8:00 AM. Which intervention is essential for the nurse to preform?
Make sure patient eats by 5:00 PM
183
What should the nurse assess in a patient who is prescribed metformin for treatment of type 2 diabetes?
Renal function
184
Which manifestation should a nurse investigate first when monitoring a patient who is taking levothyroxine?
Tachycardia
185
A patient goes into cardiac arrest. Which endocrine drug has a potential role in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
Vasopressin
186
Which drug is used to diagnose adrenocortical insufficiency?
Cosyntropin
187
A patient who has Cushing’s syndrome is taking ketoconazole as an adjunct treatment to brain radiation. A nurse should expect the patient to have which therapeutic response
Enhanced radiation effect to the brain
188
Which clinical condition can be managed with estrogen therapy?
Symptomatic vaginal atrophy
189
Which condition may develop in patient who is taking leuprolide for a premenstrual disorder?
Bone loss
190
Which hormone is responsible for initiating activity in the ovary?
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
191
Which contraceptive device is most likely to prevent the transmission of sexually transmitted disease?
Male condom
192
The nurse is about to administer Dinoprostone to a patient. For what condition is this medication used?
Termination of pregnancy
193
Which statement regarding the intrauterine device (IUD), copper T 2804, indicates understanding of the product?
The device is spermicidal by causing an inflammatory response
194
Which mechanism of action is accurate for clomiphene?
Promotion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) release
195
Which fertility drug is appropriate for a patient with a diagnosis of ovarian failure?
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
196
A nurse is administering human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Which action is appropriate?
When used in conjunction with menotropins, administer 1 day after the last menotropins dose
197
For how long can terbutaline be safely used in the suppression of preterm labor before it is discontinued?
48 hours
198
Which adverse effect is associated with daily testosterone therapy?
Edema
199
Which condition may be treated with daily application of testosterone gel?
Hypogonadism
200
The nurse is educating a patient about sildenafil. Which adverse effect would be a priority for the patient to report to the prescriber?
Hearing loss
201
The nurse notes that a patient is to receive dutasteride. Which condition will the nurse most likely observe written in the chart?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
