Final Ch. 13 - 15 Flashcards
(504 cards)
1
Q
Like the DSM-5, the \_\_\_\_\_ is a diagnostic classification system. A. DMI-5 B. ICD-10 C. PSY-7 D. DCM-12
A
B. ICD-10
2
Q
The DSM-5 contains a listing of A. disorders not officially named. B. treatment options for most disorders. C. disorders common to ethnic groups. D. state-sponsored treatment resources.
A
A. disorders not officially named.
3
Q
To a seasoned clinician, a patient’s DSM-5 diagnosis instantly conveys information about
A. an individual’s behavior, cognition, and emotion.
B. how problematic a psychiatric disorder may be.
C. how responsive to intervention the disorder is likely to be.
D. All of these.
A
D. All of these.
4
Q
Applying the definition in your textbook, which of the following is a statement regarding
incidence?
A. the proportion of people diagnosed with depression who are also diagnosed with a physical
illness.
B. the proportion of people diagnosed with a physical illness who will develop depression.
C. the annual occurrence of suicide among people diagnosed with depression.
D. the number of clinical trials needed for a specific intervention to show efficacy.
A
C. the annual occurrence of suicide among people diagnosed with depression.
5
Q
Osborn et al. (2016) researched the \_\_\_\_ of anxiety in patients who had suffered traumatic brain injury. A. incidence B. prevalence C. occurrence D. severity
A
B. prevalence
6
Q
Knowledge of the incidence and prevalence of certain disorders can
A. influence the priorities of researchers
B. inform policies of health insurance companies
C. guide the plans of pharmaceutical manufacturers
D. all of these
A
D. all of these
7
Q
It is a fact that
A. there has been no controversy about DSM-5.
B. there has been no shortage of controversy about DSM-5.
C. the greatest controversy to date concerns the blueprinting of DSM-5.1.
D. the Chair of the Planning Committee for DSM-5.1 resigned in protest.
A
B. there has been no shortage of controversy about DSM-5.
8
Q
“A culturally informed understanding of what is and is not abnormal can have profound
consequences for society-at-large.” This statement from the textbook was elaborated on with
reference to
A. varieties of bereavement.
B. the CFI.
C. homosexuality.
D. biopsychosocial assessment.
A
C. homosexuality.
9
Q
In \_\_\_\_\_, the American Psychiatric Association de-listed homosexuality as a psychiatric disorder. A. 1970 B. 1971 C. 1972 D. 1973
A
D. 1973
10
Q
The American Psychiatric Association's de-listing of homosexuality as a psychiatric disorder was the result of A. political lobbying. B. new scientific evidence. C. the formulation of new theory. D. All of these
A
A. political lobbying.
11
Q
The DSM-5 is more culturally sensitive than any of its predecessors. Which is NOT a
reason why?
A. the DSM-5 contains a discussion of cultural formulation.
B. the DSM-5 suggests that a Cultural Formulation Interview be conducted with clients.
C. the DSM-5 contains an 18-item Cultural Competence Test.
D. the DSM-5 contains a section which lists cultural concepts of distress.
A
C. the DSM-5 contains an 18-item Cultural Competence Test.
12
Q
DSM-5 departed from the tradition set by previous versions of the diagnostic manual
because it
A. expanded the criteria for a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia.
B. used Arabic numbers not Roman numerals to designate its version number.
C. employed committees of psychiatric social workers to contribute to its development.
D. added to the manual a new disorder called binge-consumption disorder.
A
B. used Arabic numbers not Roman numerals to designate its version number.
13
Q
Which psychometric concept is cited in Chapter 13 of your textbook to emphasize that
two diagnosticians using the same diagnostic manual and procedures should come to the same
diagnosis when presented with the same patient?
A. inter-rater reliability
B. inter-rater validity
C. concurrent validity
D. internal consistency reliability
A
A. inter-rater reliability
14
Q
Dr. Neil Aggarwal was cited in Chapter 13 of your textbook because he
A. was a co-author of the CFI.
B. is a user of the CFI.
C. questioned the reliability of the CFI.
D. introduced the CFI to the World Health Organization.
A
B. is a user of the CFI.
15
Q
Controversial changes in the DSM-5 included
A. the de-listing of schizophrenia as a mental disorder.
B. the listing of grief from loss as a mental disorder.
C. the inclusion of cultural and sub-cultural terminology.
D. All of these.
A
B. the listing of grief from loss as a mental disorder.
16
Q
Charges of elder abuse and elder neglect are typically levied against
A. the spouse of the abused or neglected person.
B. one who has something to gain from the further disabling of the abused or neglected
person.
C. life insurance salespeople and investment counselors.
D. one who stands in a position of trust with respect to the abused or neglected person.
A
D. one who stands in a position of trust with respect to the abused or neglected person.
17
Q
Which is not a form of elder abuse mentioned in your textbook?
A. sexual abuse
B. financial abuse
C. online abuse
D. Neither sexual abuse nor financial abuse are mentioned in the textbook.
A
C. online abuse
18
Q
Which of the following should raise a red flag regarding the existence of elder abuse?
A. an unexpected change in physical health or appearance
B. a change in communication habits
C. suspicious discrepancies in accounts given by elders and their caregivers
D. All of these.
A
D. All of these.
19
Q
Dr. Ronald Jay Cohen’s vignette about the Bellevue outpatient who took prescription
medication during a therapy session was presented as a cautionary tale regarding
A. suicide.
B. homicide.
C. drug abuse.
D. patient insight.
A
A. suicide.
20
Q
Which is true about the vignette Dr. Ronald Jay Cohen presented about the Bellevue
outpatient who took prescription medication during a therapy session?
A. Dr. Cohen turned out to be right in the end.
B. the supervisor turned out to be right in the end.
C. the patient turned out to be right in the end.
D. the patient’s wife turned out to be right in the end.
A
B. the supervisor turned out to be right in the end.
21
Q
According to statistics cited from the World Health Organization, approximately ______
people, worldwide, die annually from suicide.
A. 200,000
B. 400,000
C. 800,000
D. 1,600,000
A
C. 800,000
22
Q
Which of the following is not a sign of possible suicidal intent on the part of a patient?
A. the patient talks about committing suicide.
B. the patient has a detailed plan for committing suicide.
C. the patient has attempted suicide in the past.
D. the patient’s family member committed suicide.
A
D. the patient’s family member committed suicide.
23
Q
Interpretation of interview, test, or other suicidal assessment data by a clinician may
result
A. the signing of a “no suicide” agreement by the patient.
B. the initiation of therapy that is focused on reducing and eliminating the risk of suicide.
C. the immediate placement of the patient in an inpatient therapeutic facility.
D. All of these.
A
D. All of these.
24
Q
An estimated _________ of military veterans and serving military personnel are expected
to experience posttraumatic stress injuries either immediately after, or even years after, their
deployment.
A. 12 to 20%
B. 6 to 11%
C. 18 to 24%
D. 9 to 18%
A
A. 12 to 20%
25
Novel diagnostic and therapeutic insights relevant to post-traumatic stress disorder in
returning vets may be obtained from the study of military
A. recruiting.
B. deployments.
C. culture.
D. groups.
C. culture.
26
Historically, training for military service entails a kind of re-socialization process wherein
traditional masculine gender norms of behavior are traded-in for what might be termed
A. "male warrior norms."
B. "new Centurion norms."
C. "hyper-masculine gender norms."
D. "Spartan-reminiscent role norms."
C. "hyper-masculine gender norms."
27
According to the Close-Up in Chapter 13, veterans diagnosed with PTSD may see
themselves as going from ________ in fairly short order.
A. "hero to zero"
B. "zero to sixty"
C. "friend to foe"
D. "winner to loser"
A. "hero to zero"
28
```
Which is not a type of competency mentioned in the textbook?
A. competency to consent to surgery
B. competency to make a will
C. competency to stand trial
D. competency to choose homelessness
```
A. competency to consent to surgery
29
__________ is defined as "the capability of people to make reasonably sound decisions
regarding day-to-day money matters as well as more global aspects of their personal
finances."
A. Monetary competency
B. Real world competency
C. Financial competency
D. Wealth management competency
C. Financial competency
30
```
Working in the country of ________, Liliana Sousa and her colleagues developed a
measure of financial competency.
A. Columbia
B. Portugal
C. Brazil
D. Puerto Rico
```
B. Portugal
31
Many variables may be considered when conducting an examination of an individual's
financial competency. Which is not a variable mentioned in the textbook?
A. the assessee's pre-morbid functioning
B. the assessee's past values and preferences
C. the complexity of the finance-related decisions that need to be made
D. the presence of legal challenges to the individual's financial competency
D. the presence of legal challenges to the individual's financial competency
32
A classic work by Cleckley profiled 15 psychopaths. Cleckley's profiles have since been
re-evaluated by Crego and Widiger (2016) in an effort to
A. formulate an updated model of psychopathy.
B. disprove Cleckley's basic thesis regarding psychopathy.
C. redefine psychopathy in a culturally competent way.
D. contrast Cleckley's work with that of contemporary researchers in the field of criminal
justice.
A. formulate an updated model of psychopathy.
33
According to Dr. Stephen Finn's description of how tools of assessment are selected for
use in the process of therapeutic assessment,
A. clients are tested on a standard battery first and then decisions are made.
B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
C. the selection of tests is made in consultation with the therapist of the clients.
D. only specially developed Center for Therapeutic Assessment tests are used.
B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
34
Dr. Stephen Finn characterized psychological tests as "empathy magnifiers," meaning
that
A. test enlarge the "world of psychology" for clients.
B. test data place clients' focus on bigger problems.
C. test data can make "molehills out of mountains."
D. tests allow evaluators to "get into their clients' shoes."
D. tests allow evaluators to "get into their clients' shoes."
35
Dr. Stephen Finn characterized psychological tests as "empathy magnifiers," meaning
that
A. test enlarge the "world of psychology" for clients.
B. test data place clients' focus on bigger problems.
C. test data can make "molehills out of mountains."
D. tests allow evaluators to "get into their clients' shoes."
D. tests allow evaluators to "get into their clients' shoes."
36
```
In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen Finn characterized
clients as
A. "co-experimenters."
B. "co-therapists."
C. "co-assessment professionals."
D. All of these
```
A. "co-experimenters."
37
In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen Finn cited different tools
used in therapeutic assessment including "performance-based personality tests" such as
A. the MMPI.
B. situational stress tests.
C. the Rorschach.
D. All of these
C. the Rorschach.
38
In the Chapter 13 Meet an Assessment Professional, Dr. Stephen Finn described how tools
of assessment are selected for use in the process of therapeutic assessment. He said that
A. clients are tested on a standard battery first and then decisions are made.
B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
C. the selection of tests is made in consultation with the therapist of the clients.
D. tests and procedures specially developed by the Center for Therapeutic Assessment tests
are used.
B. the tools of assessment are selected after an initial session with clients.
39
According to Dr. Stephen Finn, therapeutic assessment typically ends
A. with the termination of the client from therapy.
B. when the client has achieved a "modicum of insight."
C. with a discussion of test scores and "next steps."
D. when the client can no longer afford it.
C. with a discussion of test scores and "next steps."
40
Tools of assessment used by profilers include
A. tests.
B. the interview.
C. the case study.
D. Both the interview and the case study.
D. Both the interview and the case study.
41
Most of the highly publicized crimes for which profilers have been employed have been
solved
A. with the aid of forensic psychologists as profilers.
B. by persons from a law enforcement background.
C. as the result of a perpetrator "slip-up."
D. as the result of the FBI "Top 10 Most Wanted" List.
B. by persons from a law enforcement background.
42
The psychiatrist and philosopher Karl Jaspers wrote that "there is no sharp line to be
drawn between different types, nor between what is healthy and what is not." This quote was
a reference to a potential problem with
A. a dimensional approach to personality disorder.
B. overlapping criteria for the diagnosis of schizophrenia.
C. a proposed Personality Disorder Trait Specified diagnosis.
D. a categorical approach to personality disorder.
D. a categorical approach to personality disorder.
43
```
An interview procedure similar to a hypnotic interview but without the hypnotic induction
is
A. the mental status examination.
B. the stress interview.
C. the cognitive interview.
D. None of these
```
C. the cognitive interview.
44
```
An interview technique that is similar to the hypnotic interview entails
A. focused meditation.
B. collaborative evaluation.
C. insightful recollection.
D. None of these
```
A. focused meditation.
45
As discussed in Chapter 13 of your text, case history data was used to support the view
that
A. a rhesus monkey is capable of experiencing anxiety disorder and depression.
B. racial intolerance can lead to a number of debilitating psychosomatic conditions.
C. exposure to Christian Science predisposed one patient to an obsessive disorder.
D. All of these
C. exposure to Christian Science predisposed one patient to an obsessive disorder.
46
```
The most widely used test to measure the severity of depression is
A. the MMPI.
B. the BDI-II.
C. the MCMI-III.
D. the SADS.
```
B. the BDI-II.
47
The MAC was a scale derived from the MMPI that was constructed to aid in
differentiating
A. appetite-disordered from non-appetite disordered patients.
B. marijuana-abusing from non-marijuana-abusing patients.
C. alcoholic from non-alcoholic patients.
D. so-called "foodies" from "fast foodies."
C. alcoholic from non-alcoholic patients.
48
```
The legal term mens rea refers to one's
A. "lack of awareness."
B. "clean slate."
C. "pureness of motives."
D. "guilty mind."
```
D. "guilty mind."
49
Competence to stand trial has largely to do with understanding the charges against the
defendant and being able to assist in one's own defense. The "understand and assist"
requirement is an extension of the constitutional prohibition against trial
A. a posteriori.
B. nolo contendere.
C. in absentia.
D. mens rea.
C. in absentia.
50
```
Many measures may be used to evaluate competency to stand trial. Which of the
following is NOT such a measure?
A. the RCRAS
B. the ECST-R
C. the MacCAT-CA
D. the FIT
```
A. the RCRAS
51
```
What is commonly referred to as profiling is referred to by the FBI as
A. criminal psychological analysis.
B. criminal psychoanalysis.
C. criminal investigative analysis.
D. investigative psychological analysis.
```
C. criminal investigative analysis.
52
```
At the core of profiling is the assumption that perpetrators of serial crimes leave at their
crime scenes
A. physical evidence.
B. psychological evidence.
C. philosophical evidence.
D. business cards.
```
B. psychological evidence.
53
```
A type of interview in which the interviewee is given wide latitude to interact with the
interviewer is called a
A. hypnotic interview.
B. elaborative interview.
C. structured interview.
D. collaborative interview.
```
D. collaborative interview.
54
Biopsychosocial assessment was likened by your textbook authors to
A. the great paradigm shift in disability research.
B. being the prized "Snagglepuss" pokemon in Pokemon GO.
C. closing the barn door after the cows have left.
D. broadcasting in widescreen.
D. broadcasting in widescreen.
55
```
Who is the person credited with having coined the term Barnum effect?
A. Tallent
B. Patterson
C. P. T. Barnum himself
D. Meehl
```
B. Patterson
56
```
The biopsychosocial approach to assessment could BEST be described as
A. multicultural.
B. multidisciplinary.
C. psychoanalytic.
D. All of these
```
B. multidisciplinary.
57
```
A culturally sensitive psychological assessment includes sensitivity to
A. acculturation and language.
B. values and worldview.
C. personal identity.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
58
Culturally sensitive psychological assessment
A. includes differential diagnosis with attention to cultural issues.
B. includes consideration of cultural issues when evaluating suicidal potential.
C. includes differential diagnosis with attention to cultural issues and includes consideration
of cultural issues when evaluating suicidal potential.
D. None of these
C. includes differential diagnosis with attention to cultural issues and includes consideration
59
A mental status examination may be administered to
A. screen for intellectual, emotional, and neurological deficits.
B. assess thought content and thought processes.
C. assess whether an individual is oriented "times three."
D. All of these
D. All of these
60
Which of the following would NOT typically be assessed in a routine mental status
examination?
A. short-term memory
B. memory for one's own name
C. memory for who is currently serving as President of the United States
D. All of these would typically be assessed.
D. All of these would typically be assessed.
61
```
The current version of the DSM is a diagnostic system that is used by psychologists and
other mental health professionals
A. to diagnose patients.
B. for insurance reimbursement purposes.
C. for research purposes.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
62
```
The outcome of the debate on what constitutes a disorder is important because it will
influence
A. research.
B. treatment.
C. public policy.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
63
A case history
A. is not appropriate for children under age 8.
B. may be found in hospital records.
C. is more important in clinical than counseling psychology.
D. is rarely utilized by behavioral psychologists.
B. may be found in hospital records.
64
Which measures are typically included as part of a standard battery?
A. measures of intelligence and personality
B. measures of intelligence, personality, and neurological intactness
C. measures of intelligence, personality, neurological intactness, and case history data
D. a measure of intelligence, a measure of neurological intactness, and the Mooney Problem
Checklist
B. measures of intelligence, personality, and neurological intactness
65
A problem with self-report measures of depression, such as the Beck Depression
Inventory, is that
A. testtakers can fake depression or fake the absence of depression.
B. they are highly unreliable and based solely on what happened to the testtaker during the
previous day or so.
C. they do not gauge the severity of depression, only its presence or absence.
D. the theory on which they are based has been shown to be severely flawed.
A. testtakers can fake depression or fake the absence of depression.
66
Forensic psychological assessment entails evaluation in matters involving
A. whether a parent should retain custody of a child.
B. whether an individual is competent to stand trial.
C. whether an individual is guilty by reason of insanity.
D. All of these
D. All of these
67
Forensic psychology is different from clinical psychology because in forensic
psychology:
A. the clinician's client may not be the assessee.
B. when the assessee is in an adversarial relationship with the assessor, the assessee may not
be truthful.
C. the clinician may be called on to offer recommendations that run counter to the stated
interests of the assessee.
D. All of these
D. All of these
68
An assessor determines that Farley is incompetent to stand trial. This means that Farley
A. is unable to understand the charges against him and is unable to assist in his defense.
B. is mentally retarded or psychotic.
C. may have been under the influence of alcohol or some controlled substance at the time the
alleged offense was committed.
D. All of these
A. is unable to understand the charges against him and is unable to assist in his defense.
69
Psychologists who are called on by the courts to render an opinion regarding a person's
sanity must be prepared to
A. explain all the ramifications of the fact that "sanity" and "insanity" are psychological, and
not legal terms.
B. deal with all the ramifications of the fact that the determination of "sanity" and "insanity"
are ultimately left to a judge or a jury to decide.
C. be sued by the patient if their opinions regarding the sanity of the patient are at odds with
the determination of the court.
D. undergo an examination evaluating their own mental status prior to being admitted to the
courtroom.
B. deal with all the ramifications of the fact that the determination of "sanity" and "insanity"
are ultimately left to a judge or a jury to decide.
70
A convict's readiness for parole or probation
A. can be predicted by the "Readiness for Parole Checklist."
B. is determined solely on the basis of self-report testimony from the convict.
C. is a decision often made on the basis of Rorschach protocols.
D. None of these
D. None of these
71
"If a person is judged to be mentally retarded, psychotic, or suffering from a debilitating
neurological disorder, that person is automatically judged to be incompetent to stand trial."
This statement is
A. true.
B. false.
C. true if two or more of the listed criteria are met.
D. true if the defendant was a minor at the time of the alleged offense.
B. false.
72
Which of the following tools of psychological assessment is MOST likely to be used in
order to evaluate a patient's level of premorbid functioning?
A. role-play
B. behavioral observation
C. the case history
D. All of these
C. the case history
73
Computer-based test interpretation
A. is always actuarial in nature.
B. may be actuarial in nature.
C. has nothing to do with actuarial assessment.
D. is synonymous with mechanical prediction.
B. may be actuarial in nature.
74
A compromise between the two extreme positions in the clinical versus mechanical
prediction controversy has it that clinical information developed by clinicians be
A. put to optimal use by computers using decision rules.
B. reviewed and modified by other clinicians before submission for processing by computer.
C. checked by computer before submission to a panel of "second opinion" clinicians for
action.
D. sent to the main frame supercomputer at the National Institutes of Health for processing
using that organization's own data base.
A. put to optimal use by computers using decision rules.
75
Which question might a mental health professional be MOST likely to be asked during the
course of a civil proceeding?
A. Is this individual competent to stand trial?
B. Was this individual sane at the time the crime was committed?
C. To what extent did this individual suffer emotional distress?
D. All of these
C. To what extent did this individual suffer emotional distress?
76
In determining parental custody
A. one impartial mental health professional is always used to assess both parents.
B. tests of intelligence or personality may be necessary in addition to interviews.
C. the child's parental preference will not be taken into account by the court.
D. All of these
B. tests of intelligence or personality may be necessary in addition to interviews.
77
One problem in confirming a diagnosis of child abuse is that
A. no legal definition of this term exists.
B. signs of abuse may also be symptoms of other conditions.
C. definitions of this term vary from state to state.
D. professionals who wrongfully report abuse or neglect, even in good faith, are subject to
fines, imprisonment, or both.
B. signs of abuse may also be symptoms of other conditions.
78
```
Which tools of psychological assessment are used to assess child abuse and neglect?
A. psychological tests
B. interviews
C. anatomically correct dolls
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
79
The Barnum effect in psychological report writing refers to
A. very technical jargon that is too difficult for lay readers to understand.
B. conflicting statements about the assessee within the same report.
C. statements that are by their very nature tend to be prejudicial.
D. vague, general statements that could be applied to most people.
D. vague, general statements that could be applied to most people.
80
In the child custody evaluation conducted by your textbook's author, the child expressed a
preference for
A. leaving Earth with E.T. and his father.
B. leaving Earth with E.T. and his mother.
C. leaving Earth with E.T. only.
D. not leaving Earth with any extra-terrestrial but staying at home with his parents.
B. leaving Earth with E.T. and his mother.
81
Which of the following statements from a hypothetical psychological report BEST
exemplifies the Barnum effect in report writing?
A. "Herb exhibits significant indicators of a specific learning disability in the visual channel
of learning."
B. "At times, Betty's unconscious hostile urges become evident in the form of expressed
anger."
C. "Patty's mild mental retardation indicates that she may need close supervision in a job
setting."
D. "Tom reports frequent auditory hallucinations commanding him to take out the garbage."
B. "At times, Betty's unconscious hostile urges become evident in the form of expressed
anger."
82
```
Which of the following tools of assessment is MOST frequently used by clinicians in their
daily work?
A. an interview
B. a rating scale
C. a picture-story projective test
D. reports from others
```
A. an interview
83
```
A physical examination is to a physician as a _______ is to a clinician.
A. psychological examination
B. neuropsychological examination
C. mental status examination
D. differential diagnosis
```
C. mental status examination
84
```
A clinician's note that a person is "oriented × 3." This means that the person is oriented to
A. person, place, and thing.
B. person, place, and time.
C. who, what, and where.
D. when, where, and how.
```
B. person, place, and time.
85
A stress interview is most similar in nature to
A. an analogue study.
B. a mental status examination.
C. a structured interview.
D. watching back-to-back episodes of Dancing with the Stars.
A. an analogue study.
86
According to your textbook, who was known for encouraging the use of a test battery
rather than the use of a single psychological test?
A. Thurstone
B. Thorndike
C. Exner
D. Rapaport
D. Rapaport
87
```
A group of personality tests administered to a client is referred to as a
A. personality test battery.
B. personality mix.
C. personality re-mix.
D. specific battery.
```
A. personality test battery.
88
```
The most commonly used measure of depression is
A. the MMPI-II.
B. the Beck Depression Inventory.
C. the Draw-A-Person.
D. the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).
```
B. the Beck Depression Inventory.
89
Amy is a teenager with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. She understands that she is
being charged with assaulting her parents, and she is able to assist her attorney in her defense.
Amy will MOST probably be found by the court
A. competent to stand trial.
B. incompetent to stand trial.
C. competent but not mentally able to stand trial.
D. competent but not physically able to stand trial.
A. competent to stand trial.
90
A psychotic individual who has broken the law and has been apprehended would MOST
likely be
A. found competent to stand trial.
B. screened to determine if she or he meets the "understand and assist" requirement.
C. found not guilty by reason of insanity regardless of the specific facts of the case.
D. found guilty but insane under Rule Number 76015 of the Federal Rules of Evidence.
B. screened to determine if she or he meets the "understand and assist" requirement.
91
Research on the Psychopathy Checklist suggests that it is useful in
A. predicting crimes committed by inmates.
B. identifying a psychotic disorder.
C. identifying criminal recidivists.
D. predicting violence within prisons.
C. identifying criminal recidivists.
92
```
A person with few inhibitions and little regard for others is MOST likely to be found to
be
A. a recidivist.
B. a psychopath.
C. severely depressed.
D. a dentist.
```
B. a psychopath.
93
It is important for clinicians who conduct child custody evaluations to understand that
A. there may be many reasons for a custody battle, some not involving the child.
B. the parents' intentions are always in the best interest of the child.
C. both parents desperately want custody of the child.
D. All of these
A. there may be many reasons for a custody battle, some not involving the child.
94
The definition of the term child abuse
A. was developed by the federal government.
B. varies from state to state.
C. requires the direct observation of abusive behavior by a professional.
D. does not include sexual offenses against the child.
B. varies from state to state.
95
```
Under law, the failure to provide a child with adequate food and shelter is considered
A. abuse.
B. neglect.
C. malnourishment.
D. abandonment.
```
B. neglect.
96
```
Which of the following physical signs are MOST suggestive of child abuse?
A. crying.
B. a bruise on the knee.
C. poor hygiene.
D. grab marks.
```
D. grab marks.
97
If a psychologist strongly suspects that a child has been abused or neglected, the
psychologist
A. is required to tell the parents.
B. is mandated by law to report the suspected abuse to authorities.
C. must discuss the suspected abuse with colleagues before taking any further action.
D. must contact the American Psychological Association's Office of Child Abuse.
B. is mandated by law to report the suspected abuse to authorities.
98
```
The Parenting Stress Index is MOST appropriately used as
A. evidence in court.
B. a predictor of child abuse.
C. a tool of prevention.
D. a diagnostic instrument.
```
C. a tool of prevention.
99
A psychological report is BEST written with
A. the diagnosis in mind.
B. the goal of the assessment in mind.
C. the tools of assessment that were employed at hand.
D. the best interest of the referral source in mind.
B. the goal of the assessment in mind.
100
When it comes to the matter of writing a psychological report
A. there exists no one acceptable style or form.
B. most contain a section describing the credentials of the examiner.
C. a detailed, physical description of the testtaker is typically presented in the
Recommendations section of the report.
D. All of these
A. there exists no one acceptable style or form.
101
Which is MOST likely to engender a Barnum-like effect in its reader?
A. the headlines of a tabloid newspaper
B. a crossword puzzle in a book of puzzles
C. a birthday card on the rack of a store
D. a horoscope published in a newspaper
D. a horoscope published in a newspaper
102
The Parenting Stress Index (PSI) was designed to measure
A. risk for child abuse.
B. difficulties in parenting resulting from particular parenting styles.
C. parent competency to testify in court.
D. how well a parent is doing from the perspective of a child or adolescent.
A. risk for child abuse.
103
Data from the Child Abuse Potential Inventory (CAP) is MOST likely to be used
A. by police when responding to domestic disputes.
B. to provide evidence of child abuse in a court of law.
C. to compel abusive parents to take a risk-reduction class.
D. to prioritize families for social services.
D. to prioritize families for social services.
104
Making diagnostic criteria specific and listing specific areas to be addressed in an
interview are ways of ____ the Barnum effect in the resulting psychological report.
A. decreasing
B. increasing
C. maximizing
D. eliminating
A. decreasing
105
One way in which the description of disorders has changed in successive editions of the
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) is that greater relationship to
________ is in evidence with regard to the descriptions of the various disorders.
A. psychoanalytic theory
B. behavioral measures
C. cognitive-behavioral measures
D. None of these
D. None of these
106
Dr. Marks wishes to conduct a research study that has to do with the private lives and
thoughts of substance abusers. Which ethical issue is MOST relevant for Dr. Marks to keep in
mind?
A. the issue of "First, do no harm"
B. the issue of informed consent
C. the issue of right to treatment
D. the issue of cultural sensitivity
B. the issue of informed consent
107
An experiment is conducted wherein college student subjects play the role of party-goers
who are thinking aloud as they are being asked to participate in illicit drug use. What tool of
assessment is being used?
A. case study
B. behavioral analogue
C. the MAC-R
D. drug paraphernalia
B. behavioral analogue
108
Which of the following tools of assessment is MOST likely to be administered to a new
civilian employees of the United States Department of Defense?
A. the Rorschach
B. the MMPI-2-RF
C. the Addiction Potential Scale
D. a urine test for drugs
D. a urine test for drugs
109
```
Which of the following is MOST typically used early in independent practice settings to
help devise a therapeutic contract?
A. behavioral observation
B. case history data
C. an interview
D. an attorney
```
C. an interview
110
```
Of the following tests, which one is the MOST commonly used in evaluating substance
abuse?
A. MacAndrew Alcohol Scale-Revised
B. The Addiction Potential Scale
C. Addiction Severity Index
D. Addiction Acknowledgment Scale
```
C. Addiction Severity Index
111
One difference between the MacAndrew Alcohol Scale-Revised (MAC-R) and The
Addiction Acknowledgment Scale (AAS) is that the
A. AAS requires hand-scoring by the examiner, the MAC-R does not.
B. MAC-R was validated with college students, the AAS was not.
C. AAS has more face validity than the MAC-R.
D. MAC-R is a self-report measure and the AAS is not.
C. AAS has more face validity than the MAC-R.
112
Compared with clinical psychologists, counseling psychologists are more likely to be
A. practicing in independent practice.
B. concerned with more forms of psychopathology.
C. involved in providing vocational guidance.
D. users of the MMPI-2-RF.
C. involved in providing vocational guidance.
113
Which of the following is generally TRUE regarding the similarities and differences
between the specialties of clinical and counseling psychology?
A. Clinical psychologists tend to be more involved in consumer issues.
B. Counseling psychologists tend to be more involved in psychoanalysis.
C. Clinical psychologists are more involved with career and vocational assessment.
D. More similarities than differences exist between the two specialties.
D. More similarities than differences exist between the two specialties.
114
Which of the following is TRUE of the cognitive interview?
A. It is typically used for the assessment of mental retardation.
B. It is a viable alternative to a hypnotic interview.
C. It tends to include more closed than open-ended questions.
D. It has been found to have application in the evaluation and treatment of sleep disorders.
B. It is a viable alternative to a hypnotic interview.
115
```
The Beck Depression Inventory-II measures testtakers' feelings over what period of
time?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. the last month
```
B. 2 weeks
116
Which of the following is the BEST predictor of violence on the part of an assessee?
A. the assessee reports having written a threatening letter to someone.
B. the assessee's case history is replete with acts of violence.
C. the assessee contemplates the commission of a violent act aloud.
D. the assessee agrees to appear as a guest on an episode of Jerry Springer that deals with a
love triangle.
B. the assessee's case history is replete with acts of violence.
117
Instruments used to screen for depression are
A. routinely administered to prospective contestants on Match Game.
B. valuable only in detecting manic-depressive disorder.
C. exclusively validated on introductory psychology students.
D. None of these
D. None of these
118
```
Which type of interview is MOST likely to be used in a criminal investigation?
A. stress interview
B. cognitive interview
C. nonverbal interview
D. good cop/bad cop interview
```
B. cognitive interview
119
Which of the following tools is MOST useful in identifying factors related to an
individual's potential for violence against public official?
A. objective personality tests
B. projective personality tests
C. the case study
D. analysis of dreams
C. the case study
120
In which type of interview would the interviewee most likely be encouraged to shift his
or her perspective and describe events from the viewpoint of the person who committed a
crime?
A. stress
B. mental status
C. hypnotic
D. cognitive
D. cognitive
121
Why might a clinician interview a culturally different client about cultural aspects of his
or her life?
A. to develop hypotheses about the intelligence and personality of the interviewee
B. to distinguish psychopathological behavior from that which is more typical of the culture
of the interviewee
C. to differentiate between what constitutes psychopathology in the majority culture from
what constitutes psychopathology in the client's culture
D. to sample new foods
B. to distinguish psychopathological behavior from that which is more typical of the culture
of the interviewee
122
Compared to an unstructured interview, a structured interview
A. has questions that are all prepared in advance.
B. involves interviewers asking questions in areas that they believe are important.
C. tends not to be useful as a pre-or post-measures of outcome.
D. is the method of choice for homicide investigators.
A. has questions that are all prepared in advance.
123
```
The Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia is an example of
A. an unstructured clinical interview.
B. a structured clinical interview.
C. a projective test.
D. an objective personality test.
```
B. a structured clinical interview.
124
```
Which of the following is the most common reason for psychiatric hospitalization?
A. anxiety
B. depression
C. attention deficit disorder
D. schizophrenia
```
B. depression
125
```
In an evaluation to determine dangerousness, information pertinent to ______________
is typically gathered.
A. the availability of a weapon
B. the type of weapon to be used
C. the specificity of the plan
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
126
If a psychologist determines that a client is a danger to others, that psychologist has a
legal obligation to
A. share this information with a colleague before taking any action.
B. seek a legal opinion from an attorney.
C. warn the person who is in danger.
D. keep the information privileged.
C. warn the person who is in danger.
127
It is recommended that the BDI-II be used with other tests such as the MMPI-2-RF
because
A. the BDI-II items are now dated and the MMPI-2-RF was published in 2008.
B. the poor discriminant validity of the BDI-II makes use with another scale advisable.
C. the BDI-II items are easily faked and there are no validity scales on the test.
D. the BDI-II items lack cultural sensitivity.
C. the BDI-II items are easily faked and there are no validity scales on the test.
128
Which of the following is TRUE of the use of the MMPI-2 with Chicano clients?
A. The MMPI-2 is as culturally sensitive as the MMPI.
B. The MMPI-2 overpathologizes Chicano clients.
C. Conflicting evidence exists regarding whether the MMPI-2 is culturally sensitive or
overpathologizes Chicano clients.
D. The MMPI-2 was shown to be more culturally sensitive than the MMPI-2-RF.
C. Conflicting evidence exists regarding whether the MMPI-2 is culturally sensitive or
overpathologizes Chicano clients.
129
According to your textbook, which is TRUE of cultural competence?
A. The term refers to developing tests that reflect particular values.
B. The term refers to knowledge of a particular culture through academic study, life
experience, or both.
C. The textbook authors recommend it not only for psychologists but many other groups such
as sales people.
D. All of these
B. The term refers to knowledge of a particular culture through academic study, life
experience, or both.
130
Caution is urged with the use of translators in assessment situations because
A. there is a shortage of translators who are truly "culturally competent."
B. managed care and other third-party payers do not reimburse translation fees.
C. words do not always retain their original meaning in translation.
D. few translators are qualified to develop, administer, or interpret psychological tests.
C. words do not always retain their original meaning in translation.
131
A journal article entitled "Socially Reinforced Obsessing" was cited in Chapter 13 of
your textbook. That article is an account of how exposure to
A. an obsessive-compulsive parent can result in an obsessive-compulsive child.
B. an obsessive-compulsive teacher can result in an obsessive-compulsive child.
C. a particular religious ideology led to obsessive-compulsive behavior on the part of an
adult.
D. a socialist political orientation contributed to obsessive-compulsive symptomatology.
C. a particular religious ideology led to obsessive-compulsive behavior on the part of an
adult.
132
```
Which of the following would NOT be properly characterized as demographic data?
A. religion
B. occupation
C. telephone number
D. medical history
```
D. medical history
133
```
Which of the following is NOT a category listed in your textbook in the description of a
mental status examination?
A. sensorium
B. socioeconomic status
C. memory
D. appearance
```
B. socioeconomic status
134
During the course of a mental status examination, the examiner asks the examinee,
"What is the meaning of the proverb, ‘A stitch in time saves nine?'" By doing this, the
examiner is MOST likely trying to assess the examinee's
A. aptitude for a position as a tailor.
B. intellectual resources.
C. patience.
D. stress level.
B. intellectual resources.
135
During the course of a mental status examination, the examiner asks the examinee, "Do
you know why we are here and why I am interviewing you today?" By raising these
questions, the examiner is MOST likely trying to assess the examinee's
A. verbal abilities.
B. intellectual resources.
C. insight.
D. orientation.
C. insight.
136
```
Which of the following is NOT case history data?
A. hospital records
B. school records
C. a letter from current employer
D. All of these are case history data
```
D. All of these are case history data
137
When it comes to child custody, the courts have recognized that the best interest of the
child is typically best served by awarding custody to
A. the mother.
B. the father.
C. the mother or the father.
D. Angelina Jolie.
C. the mother or the father.
138
A controversial issue with regard to profiling is whether or not
A. profiling should be done by psychologists or criminologists.
B. profiling is indeed a profession or an "ill-formed forensic discipline."
C. profiling has a sound theoretical and methodological base.
D. All of these
D. All of these
139
Which of the following is the BEST example of a factual item from the Georgetown
Criteria for Competency to Stand Trial?
A. the defendant's ability to identify and locate witnesses
B. the defendant's ability to make decisions after advice
C. the defendant's ability to tolerate stress while awaiting trial or at the trial
D. the defendant's ability to refrain from irrational behavior during trial
A. the defendant's ability to identify and locate witnesses
140
```
The FBI refers to it as criminal investigative analysis but most other people would know
it as
A. forensic assessment.
B. legal evaluation.
C. examining.
D. profiling.
```
D. profiling.
141
According to your textbook, a key assumption in criminal profiling is that perpetrators of
serial crimes
A. can be identified from profiles gathered on the Psychopathy Checklist.
B. can be identified by psychologists.
C. leave more than physical evidence at a crime scene.
D. are unable to control themselves from repeat offenses.
C. leave more than physical evidence at a crime scene.
142
```
Hypotheses typically made by profilers regarding crime scene evidence usually relates to
the perpetrators'
A. organizational skills.
B. planning ability.
C. degree of risk.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
143
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, in an outpatient setting, the person coming for an evaluation
of dementia typically
A. is accompanied by a significant other or caregiver.
B. complains of forgetfulness.
C. has word-finding difficulties.
D. All of these.
D. All of these.
144
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a neurologist's in-office evaluation for dementia will
typically begin with observation and an interview question like,
A. "What is your name?".
B. "Who referred you to this office?".
C. "Where are you right now?".
D. "Why are you seeking help at this time?".
D. "Why are you seeking help at this time?".
145
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, it is during the initial interview that
A. the patient's ability to comprehend communication and to express thought is assessed.
B. tests such as the trail-making test are administered.
C. the social skills of the caregiver are informally evaluated.
D. All of these
A. the patient's ability to comprehend communication and to express thought is assessed.
146
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, red flags for the presence of dementia include
A. receipt of a number of late payment notices.
B. a recent accident or incident while driving—uncharacteristic of the patient in the past.
C. a sudden feeling of being lost in an otherwise familiar locale while driving or being driven.
D. All of these
D. All of these
147
```
Which test was specifically cited by Dr. Eric Kramer as one typically administered in an inoffice
evaluation for dementia?
A. the UCLA Memory Test
B. the Montreal Cognitive Assessment
C. the Mini-Mental-Status-Examination
D. All of these
```
C. the Mini-Mental-Status-Examination
148
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, prior behavioral and
medical records as compared to more current information may be particularly useful in
identifying a potentially reversible cause of the observed cognitive dysfunction. Here, the
category of "reversible causes" includes pathology related to
A. metabolic disturbances.
B. inflammatory conditions.
C. infectious conditions.
D. All of these
D. All of these
149
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, the possibility of the
existence of dementia-like symptoms must be ruled out. One such test for that purpose
measures
A. the amount of kale one has consumed.
B. the number of steps one has taken.
C. the amount of Vitamin B-12 in the body.
D. the amount of free uric acid in the bloodstream.
C. the amount of Vitamin B-12 in the body.
150
```
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, the existence of dementia-like symptoms is a state called
A. pseudo-dementia
B. petite-folie
C. memory-lapsis
D. None of these
```
A. pseudo-dementia
151
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, it may be useful to
determine if the patient has a prior history of
A. a gluten-free diet.
B. a syphillitic infection.
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D. playing Pokemon Go.
B. a syphillitic infection.
152
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia,
neuropsychological assessment has value in differentially diagnosing dementia of the
A. Alzheimer's type.
B. vascular type.
C. frontotemporal type.
D. All of these
D. All of these
153
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, the neurologist
may order technologically sophisticated medical tests to provide information critical to
making a differential diagnosis. In this context, Dr. Kramer made reference to a relatively new
procedure that
A. attempts to identify a particular protein accruing in the blood vessels and nerve cells.
B. provides an image of the plaque and tangles thought to be causal in dementia.
C. yields a working map of the thyroid gland and its possible contribution to dementia-like
symptoms.
D. scans for the amount of dopamine the brain has available for its use.
A. attempts to identify a particular protein accruing in the blood vessels and nerve cells.
154
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, when evaluating a patient for dementia, a neurologist may
order both an EEG and an MRI for the patient so that
A. the neurologist has data from both a static structural and dynamic functional evaluation.
B. the neurologist can compare brain pathology images at different critical points in time.
C. the neurologist can better evaluate the extent of current damage that has been done.
D. the neurologist's billing department is satisfied that every possible test that can be ordered
has been ordered.
A. the neurologist has data from both a static structural and dynamic functional evaluation.
155
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a particular protein deposit in the blood vessels or the
nerve cells that may act as a marker for senile dementia of the Alzheimer's type is called
A. a suetoxin.
B. an edithalid.
C. a jentinen.
D. an amyloid.
D. an amyloid.
156
According to Dr. Eric Kramer, a diagnosis of dementia, or senile dementia Alzheimer's
type, is made
A. on the basis of three or more instance of forgetting in a week.
B. if senile dementia or Alzheimer's type markers are present in urine specimens.
C. using various psychological and biological tools of assessment.
D. All of these
C. using various psychological and biological tools of assessment.
157
```
The largest referral source for neuropsychologists is
A. psychologists.
B. neurologists.
C. pediatricians.
D. attorneys.
```
B. neurologists.
158
________ is an example of a neurological condition that is most typically diagnosed on
the basis of presenting signs and symptoms rather than any formal test.
A. Diabetic neuropathy
B. Brain tumor
C. Microcephaly
D. Parkinson's disease
D. Parkinson's disease
159
```
It is second only to dementia as the most common neurological disorder in the world.
A. ALS
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Microcephaly
D. Parkinson's disease
```
D. Parkinson's disease
160
Being able to call for help and supply first responders with emergency-relevant
information is referred to in the text as an
A. executive function.
B. emergency capability.
C. urgent capacity.
D. ability to multi-task.
A. executive function.
161
A performance-based test which is abbreviated as the ______ is used to help in the
assessment of one's capacity for independent living.
A. AAFR
B. SOS-1
C. TEFE
D. 911-FR
C. TEFE
162
```
A second edition of the Bender-Gestalt was published ____ years after the original.
A. 8
B. 13
C. 18
D. 65
```
D. 65
163
Larrabee (2015) described a valid flexible battery that required about ____ hours of
administration time including administration time for the MMPI-2.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
A. 5
164
```
Of the following, who is considered the "founding father of neuropsychology"?
A. L. L. Thurstone
B. Ralph Reitan
C. Ward Halstead
D. Mehmet Oz
```
B. Ralph Reitan
165
Ralph Reitan shied away from writing textbooks because he felt that
A. students had no basis of comparing his "readable" writing from other, difficult-to-getthrough
books.
B. his writing style was better suited to publication in scholarly journals.
C. he could do more good by personally presenting at scientific meetings.
D. writing textbooks should be reserved for the end of one's career.
D. writing textbooks should be reserved for the end of one's career.
166
```
Parkinson's disease is a neurological disorder characterized by
A. tremors.
B. slowness of movement.
C. problems with balance.
D. All of these.
```
D. All of these.
167
```
Non-motor symptoms typically associated with Parkinson's disease include
A. depression.
B. indigestion.
C. compulsions.
D. All of these.
```
A. depression.
168
```
In 1817, a British physician named _____________ authored a journal article entitled "An
Essay on the Shaking Palsy."
A. James Parkinson
B. William Constable
C. Cecil Parkinson
D. Samuel Goldwyn
```
A. James Parkinson
169
```
Parkinson's disease was first referred to as such by
A. Mesmer.
B. Charcot.
C. Rush.
D. None of these.
```
B. Charcot.
170
```
Parkinson's disease results from cell loss in an area of the brain called the
A. cingulate gyrus.
B. superior colliculous.
C. substantia nigra.
D. None of these
```
C. substantia nigra.
171
```
Parkinson's disease results from a deficiency in the brain of
A. glutamate.
B. dopamine.
C. acetylcholine.
D. serotonin.
```
B. dopamine.
172
Legendary boxers like Muhammed Ali are thought to have contracted a form of
Parkinson's disease called _________ as a result of repeated head trauma.
A. pugilistic Parkinson's
B. traumatic Parkinson's
C. concussive Parkinson's
D. Rocky Parkinson's
A. pugilistic Parkinson's
173
Initially, Parkinson's disease may present as a
A. puzzling loss of perceptual-motor ability.
B. subtle loss of ability to focus attention.
C. clear problem in standing from a sitting position.
D. barely noticeable tremor in the finger.
D. barely noticeable tremor in the finger.
174
The most common variety of Parkinson's disease is called idiopathic Parkinson's disease.
Here, the adjective idiopathic may best be defined as
A. familial.
B. unpredictable.
C. of non-genetic origin.
D. of unknown origin.
D. of unknown origin.
175
As Parkinson's Disease progresses, patients typically complain of
A. unwanted nerve sensations.
B. loss of normal arm swing when walking.
C. difficulties associated with balance.
D. All of these.
D. All of these.
176
Possible problems reported by Parkinson's patients include
A. stiffness in the limbs or facial muscles.
B. issues with swallowing and salivation.
C. excessive, unexplained sweating.
D. All of these
D. All of these
177
Parkinson's disease
A. may be cured through regular dopamine infusions.
B. may be cured through deep brain stimulation.
C. both may be cured through regular dopamine infusions and may be cured through deep
brain stimulation.
D. None of these.
D. None of these.
178
Many of the medications available to treat Parkinson's Disease elicit their own problems,
such as dyskinesias. Dyskinesias are
A. slowness in standing from a seated position.
B. involuntary, jerking-type movements.
C. tremors spreading from one side of the body to the other.
D. muscular problems affecting the production of speech.
B. involuntary, jerking-type movements.
179
The elevation in certain chemicals that naturally occurs during exercise may
A. serve a protective function against dopamine depletion.
B. mimic the effects of certain anti-oxidants.
C. reduce depression in patients with Parkinson's disease.
D. All of these.
A. serve a protective function against dopamine depletion.
180
A number of conditions can present like, and be misdiagnosed as Parkinson's disease.
Which is NOT such a condition?
A. tremors induced by certain medications
B. serotonin deficiency syndrome
C. a neurological disorder called essential tremor
D. Lewy body dementia
B. serotonin deficiency syndrome
181
Psychologists who suspect that a patient may have undiagnosed Parkinson's disease
should refer the patient for
A. a neurological battery to confirm the diagnosis.
B. a DaTscan to rule out the diagnosis.
C. an evaluation by a medical doctor.
D. an evaluation by a neurologist who specializes in movement disorders.
D. an evaluation by a neurologist who specializes in movement disorders.
182
A DaTscan entails the use of high-tech imaging equipment to gauge
A. whether or not a brain tumor has changed in size.
B. approximately how damaged the brain is by plaque.
C. the amount of dopamine that is present in the brain.
D. approximately how damaged the brain is by tangles.
C. the amount of dopamine that is present in the brain.
183
Which is true about Parkinson's Disease?
A. There is no cure.
B. There is no way to slow its progression.
C. It is best treated by a team of multi-discipline professionals.
D. All of these
D. All of these
184
```
The dominant brain hemisphere takes the lead in all of the following EXCEPT
A. spatial recognition.
B. arithmetic calculations.
C. writing.
D. reading.
```
A. spatial recognition.
185
```
These brain lobes contain areas for visual reception:
A. temporal lobes.
B. occipital lobes.
C. parietal lobes.
D. frontal lobes.
```
B. occipital lobes.
186
```
These brain lobes contain areas for auditory reception:
A. temporal lobes.
B. occipital lobes.
C. parietal lobes.
D. frontal lobes.
```
A. temporal lobes.
187
```
This term refers to a deficit in writing ability:
A. acopia.
B. agnosia.
C. agraphia.
D. aphasia.
```
C. agraphia.
188
```
This term refers to a deficit in the sense of smell:
A. amusia.
B. anolfactoria.
C. ataxia.
D. anosmia.
```
D. anosmia.
189
Cranial nerve damage as evidenced by neuroimaging is
A. a hard sign of neurological deficit.
B. a soft sign of neurological deficit.
C. indicative of a verbal-performance discrepancy.
D. All of these
A. a hard sign of neurological deficit.
190
If you did not have a copy of the UPSIT and had to improvise, which of the following
would you be MOST LIKELY to employ in your evaluation of a patient?
A. water
B. a whisper
C. a wire hanger
D. perfume
D. perfume
191
```
At what age does a child typically reach the developmental milestone of being able to say
"mama" and "da-da"?
A. 6 months
B. 9 months
C. 12 months
D. 18 months
```
C. 12 months
192
In 2010, the second edition of the MMSE was published. Which is TRUE of the MMSE-
2?
A. It was also published in a brief version.
B. It was also published in an expanded version.
C. It should be used for screening, not diagnosis.
D. All of these
D. All of these
193
```
The Romberg test is also referred to as the
A. standing still test.
B. nose-finger-nose test.
C. finger wiggle test.
D. walking-running-skipping test.
```
A. standing still test.
194
As reported by Dr. Jeanne Ryan in Chapter 14's Meet an Assessment Professional feature,
every athlete in the public school system of New York State must have on file a baseline
neuropsychological assessment on file. Data from this assessment
A. is compiled for research on sports-related neurological injuries.
B. is used in the event that the athlete suffers a concussion.
C. has been helpful in designing treatment programs for athlete injuries.
D. All of these
B. is used in the event that the athlete suffers a concussion.
195
As used in Chapter 14, the term pattern analysis refers to
A. a tool for evaluating eye-to-brain visual perception ability.
B. a pattern of test responses indicative of neuropsychological deficit.
C. a neuropsychological tool of assessment that entails feeling textures.
D. None of these
B. a pattern of test responses indicative of neuropsychological deficit.
196
"It's an ill wind that blows nobody good." One would MOST likely find this proverb on a
neuropsychological test designed to measure
A. aptitude for meteorology.
B. episodic memory.
C. perceptual-motor ability.
D. the ability to abstract.
D. the ability to abstract.
197
MRI is to fMRI as
A. photo is to video.
B. wrist is to arm.
C. standard definition is to high definition.
D. two-dimensional is to three-dimensional.
A. photo is to video.
198
Which of the following is NOT a research question raised in an fMRI study cited in
Chapter 14 of your textbook?
A. How does traumatic brain injury impact the brain network that mediates memory?
B. How does depression moderate reward anticipation?
C. How does watching aggression on the tv show Cops affect the brain?
D. How does one's favorite song activate brain circuitry?
C. How does watching aggression on the tv show Cops affect the brain?
199
According to your textbook, which of the following is BEST completed while the
individual is blindfolded?
A. the Seashore Test of Musical Talent
B. the Piers-Harris Children's Self-Concept Scale
C. the Seguin-Goddard Formboard
D. getting dressed to attend the Grammy Awards
C. the Seguin-Goddard Formboard
200
```
According to your textbook, so-called "unconscious memory" is thought to be accessible
only by means of
A. hypnosis.
B. meditation.
C. indirect measures.
D. direct measures.
```
C. indirect measures.
201
A test discussed in Chapter 14 of your textbook features a three-dimensional matrix. The
test was designed to evaluate nonverbal reasoning primarily through the testtaker's
A. visual sense.
B. olfactory sense.
C. kinesthetic sense.
D. haptic sense.
D. haptic sense.
202
```
Soft sign is to hard sign as
A. functional is to organic.
B. inborn is to acquired.
C. probable is to definite.
D. Robert Downey Jr. is to Iron Man.
```
C. probable is to definite.
203
```
Which of these is likely to be a hard sign of neurological damage?
A. headaches
B. abnormal reflex responses
C. poor attention
D. consistent difficulty sleeping
```
B. abnormal reflex responses
204
```
Problems with one's sense of touch are MOST likely related to injury to (or lesions in)
A. the frontal lobe.
B. the temporal lobe.
C. the occipital lobe.
D. the parietal lobe.
```
D. the parietal lobe.
205
A neuropsychologist blindfolds a patient and then moves the patient's arms and legs in
various positions. The patient is unable to identify where his limbs are located. The
neuropsychologist would MOST likely suspect that the patient has suffered some sort of
damage to the
A. frontal lobe.
B. temporal lobe.
C. parietal lobe.
D. occipital lobe.
C. parietal lobe.
206
The thalamus acts as
A. an executive controller for volitional motor movements that are transmitted from the brain
to the muscles.
B. a communications relay station for sensory information being transmitted to the cerebral
cortex.
C. visual-spatial sequencer for perceiving complex patterns of movement from the cingular
gyrus.
D. a kind of brake on emotional impulses that exerts a calming influence when one becomes
too angry.
B. a communications relay station for sensory information being transmitted to the cerebral
cortex.
207
The hypothalamus
A. inhibits the emotional impulses generated by the thalamus with hormones.
B. regulates basic bodily functions such as eating, drinking, and body temperature.
C. makes smooth movements possible for complex motor and tactile sequences.
D. is primarily involved in the perception and recognition of complex visual patterns.
B. regulates basic bodily functions such as eating, drinking, and body temperature.
208
```
Neurology is to neuropsychology as
A. brains is to beauty.
B. psychiatry is to psychology.
C. prince is to pauper.
D. neuron is to neutron.
```
B. psychiatry is to psychology.
209
A brain-injured patient appears impulsive and inattentive. She tends to make tactless
comments in conversation, and seems unable to anticipate the consequences of her actions.
Based on these facts, a neuropsychologist would suspect damage to which area of the brain?
A. the frontal lobe
B. the temporal lobe
C. the occipital lobe
D. the parietal lobe
D. the parietal lobe
210
Symptoms of a neurological deficit may become evident
A. during an intake interview.
B. during the administration of psychological tests.
C. as the result of the administration of a psychological test.
D. All of these
D. All of these
211
Neuropsychologists
A. are trained to screen for signs and symptoms of neurological deficit.
B. make use of case-study information in the evaluation process.
C. may administer a test such as "Trail Making" in the evaluation process.
D. All of these
D. All of these
212
The phenomenon of ________ operates when an injury to the right side of the brain
results in sensory or motor deficit on the left side of the body.
A. diffuse organicity
B. contralateral control
C. bilateral functioning
D. reticular formulation
B. contralateral control
213
If a patient reports having severe visual deficits while attempting to read a Facebook page,
a neuropsychologist would suspect damage to the
A. occipital lobes.
B. limbic system.
C. frontal lobes.
D. Facebook server.
A. occipital lobes.
214
If a patient suddenly begins to experience extremes in mood ranging from blunted affect
to emotional outbursts, a neuropsychologist would suspect damage to the
A. limbic system.
B. cerebellum.
C. occipital lobes.
D. spinal cord.
A. limbic system.
215
If a patient exhibits disturbances in sound discrimination, voice recognition, and auditory
memory, a neuropsychologist would suspect damage to
A. the cerebellum.
B. the temporal lobe.
C. the occipital lobe.
D. the parietal lobe.
B. the temporal lobe.
216
The terms organicity and neurological damage
A. both refer to damage to the brain, the spinal cord, and the peripheral nervous system.
B. are basically the same diagnostic entities and are unitary in nature.
C. were generally used interchangeably from about the time of World War I to the 1950s.
D. both refer to the fact that most brain-damaged children share a similar pattern of cognitive,
behavioral, and motor deficits.
C. were generally used interchangeably from about the time of World War I to the 1950s.
217
A patient exhibits deficits in word recall, vocabulary, and finding words to name things. A
neuropsychologist would be MOST likely to consider diagnosing this patient with
A. akinesia.
B. apraxia.
C. anomia.
D. alcoholism.
C. anomia.
218
Focal brain lesions
A. are diffusely scattered throughout the brain.
B. may have broad ramifications with regard to behavioral deficits.
C. may result in paralysis unless they are surgically addressed within 30 days of formation.
D. rarely have serious consequences.
B. may have broad ramifications with regard to behavioral deficits.
219
A neuropsychological examination by an experienced neuropsychologist
A. varies as a function of the referral question.
B. consists of a standard battery of tests.
C. is usually initiated only if "hard signs" are found in screening.
D. is usually initiated only if "hard signs" are suspected.
A. varies as a function of the referral question.
220
A client complains of memory loss, headaches, and hand tremors. Which test or
assessment technique is LEAST likely to be used by a neuropsychologist?
A. a case history
B. a mental status examination
C. a measure of self-concept
D. a measure of intelligence
C. a measure of self-concept
221
A 16-year-old male suspected of drug abuse is referred for neuropsychological evaluation.
Which tool of assessment is LEAST likely to be used?
A. case history data
B. familial medical history data
C. referral for blood and urine tests
D. a measure of creative thinking
D. a measure of creative thinking
222
Neuropsychologists
A. do not conduct physical examinations of an individual, since that is the sole responsibility
of the neurologist.
B. perform many of the noninvasive procedures that a neurologist might perform as part of a
physical examination.
C. are trained in the use of equipment such as CT scans and PET scans.
D. are legally entitled to do everything a neurologist can do with a patient in most states.
B. perform many of the noninvasive procedures that a neurologist might perform as part of a
physical examination.
223
A typical neuropsychological evaluation includes
A. a medical history of the patient.
B. a psychosocial history of the patient.
C. a history regarding developmental milestones.
D. All of these
D. All of these
224
A mental status examination conducted during the course of a neuropsychological
evaluation may yield data regarding
A. the examinee's motor abilities.
B. the examinee's estimated intellectual functioning.
C. the examinee's sensory perception.
D. All of these
D. All of these
225
The mental status examination used as part of the neuropsychological evaluation
A. is exactly the same as a mental status examination used during a clinical or counseling
assessment.
B. will typically delve into specific areas related to the referral more extensively than the one
used routinely as part of a clinical or counseling assessment.
C. typically includes the administration of an intelligence test.
D. typically includes the administration of a neuropsychological adjective checklist.
B. will typically delve into specific areas related to the referral more extensively than the one
used routinely as part of a clinical or counseling assessment.
226
As part of a mental status examination during a neuropsychological evaluation, a
neuropsychologist would be LEAST likely to routinely evaluate
A. consciousness.
B. thought content.
C. physical appearance.
D. socioeconomic status.
D. socioeconomic status.
227
Each of the following might be performed by a neuropsychologist in his or her office
during the course of a routine neuropsychological evaluation EXCEPT
A. testing of reflexes.
B. the taking of an MRI.
C. physical examination of muscle tone.
D. asking the assessee to skip from one end of the room to the other.
B. the taking of an MRI.
228
```
The 7-Minute Screen and the Mini-Mental State Examination both measure
A. cognitive ability.
B. language.
C. memory.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
229
```
The 7-Minute Screen was developed to identify symptoms associated with which of the
following?
A. personality disorders
B. Alzheimer's disease
C. seizure disorders
D. All of these
```
B. Alzheimer's disease
230
Which of the following is TRUE of the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test-64 Card Version?
A. The test is primarily used to screen for seizure disorders, psychotic disorders, and
personality disorders.
B. Test results may suggest neurological impairment when in reality the testtaker is mentally
ill.
C. The test was developed by a Wisconsin neuropsychologist best known for conducting
taste-tests with 64 varieties of muenster cheese.
D. None of these
B. Test results may suggest neurological impairment when in reality the testtaker is mentally
ill.
231
The Tower of Hanoi is used
A. as a measure of various aspects of executive functioning.
B. as a measure of planning ability.
C. as a measure of cognitive flexibility.
D. All of these
D. All of these
232
The Porteus Maze Test is NOT
A. a measure of executive functioning.
B. to be used with children under the age of 8.
C. used to study personality traits of testtakers.
D. a measure used by neuropsychologists.
B. to be used with children under the age of 8.
233
The Tower of Hanoi is appealing
A. to testtakers because it is a puzzle-like task.
B. to testtakers because they receive instantaneous feedback on their performance.
C. to test users because it requires little more than paper-and-pencil to administer.
D. All of these
A. to testtakers because it is a puzzle-like task.
234
```
The Trail Making Tests are part of which neuropsychological test battery?
A. Halstead-Reitan
B. Kaufman Assessment Battery
C. Woodcock-Johnson III
D. None of these
```
A. Halstead-Reitan
235
A testtaker is shown a sample item and then must scan a group of items to find one that
matches the sample. Which test is this testtaker taking?
A. Trail Making Test
B. Field of Search
C. Porteus Tests
D. The Mooney Problem Checklist
B. Field of Search
236
Which of the following neuropsychological tests BEST taps skills known to be important
in both piloting aircraft and monitoring air traffic control?
A. Trail Making Test
B. Field of Search
C. Tower of Hanoi
D. Boston Naming Test
B. Field of Search
237
Which of the following is NOT true of picture absurdity items?
A. They are included as items on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale.
B. They are uncommon on contemporary cognitive ability tests and batteries.
C. They are used as a measure of neuropsychological functioning.
D. They tap skills known to be important in piloting aircraft.
D. They tap skills known to be important in piloting aircraft.
238
Neuropsychological tests are LEAST likely to be used as
A. an adjunct to medical examinations.
B. an aid in assessing a person's ability to stand trial.
C. an aid in identifying intellectual giftedness.
D. a measure of outcome in rehabilitation research.
C. an aid in identifying intellectual giftedness.
239
Poor performance on a Wechsler Block Design subtest indicates
A. that the testtaker has a pre-senile dementia.
B. that the testtaker is suffering from Alzheimer's Disease.
C. that severe head trauma has occurred.
D. None of these
D. None of these
240
If a patient performs poorly on a task entailing interpretation of well-known proverbs, a
neuropsychologist would further investigate the patient's
A. ability to abstract.
B. possible deficits in organizational skills.
C. ability to be "oriented time three."
D. financial resources to pay for the consultation.
A. ability to abstract.
241
Asking a patient to explain the meaning of proverbs such as "The early bird catches the
worm" may assist a neuropsychologist in assessing a cognitive deficit in which area?
A. planning
B. vocabulary
C. abstraction
D. orientation
C. abstraction
242
Patients suffering from aphasia exhibit a loss of the ability to
A. perceive smells.
B. perceive sounds lower in volume than a "dollar watch."
C. express themselves orally or in writing.
D. hold their hands steady.
C. express themselves orally or in writing.
243
A person who performs very poorly in reproducing abstract geometric forms on a paperand-
pencil task is most likely to have a deficit in which area of functioning?
A. visual scanning ability
B. visual response speed
C. visual sequential memory
D. visual-motor integration
D. visual-motor integration
244
The Bender-Visual Motor Gestalt Test
A. requires a considerable amount of time and special equipment to administer.
B. relies solely on qualitative clinical judgment because no normative data are available.
C. was re-standardized using year 2000 census data.
D. was designed to assess perceptual maturation and neurological impairment.
D. was designed to assess perceptual maturation and neurological impairment.
245
Which is TRUE of a flexible battery in neuropsychological assessment?
A. A flexible battery of tests is typically preferable to a standard or prepackaged battery
because it is more tailored to the assessee's presenting problem.
B. Tests administered in a flexible battery frequently overlap with some of the functions
typically assessed in a standard battery, although both should always be administered.
C. All tests in a flexible battery have usually been normed on similar populations.
D. Tests administered in a flexible battery are less time-consuming than those in a standard
battery.
A. A flexible battery of tests is typically preferable to a standard or prepackaged battery
because it is more tailored to the assessee's presenting problem.
246
Most neuropsychologists prefer which of the following when conducting a
neuropsychological evaluation?
A. a prepackaged neuropsychological battery
B. a flexible neuropsychological battery
C. the Halstead-Reitan
D. the Luria-Nebraska
B. a flexible neuropsychological battery
247
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a fixed, prepackaged neuropsychological test
battery?
A. Great care is taken by the neuropsychologist in pre-selecting the tests to be administered.
B. Scoring guidelines are frequently vague and require subjective clinical judgment.
C. Each test in the battery is designed to measure only one neuropsychological variable.
D. It is most likely to be used by a novice rather than an experienced neuropsychologist.
D. It is most likely to be used by a novice rather than an experienced neuropsychologist.
248
Which is TRUE of a fixed, prepackaged neuropsychological test battery?
A. All of the tests in the battery are standardized.
B. All of the tests were developed based on one particular battery.
C. The tests can be administered in a flexible fashion.
D. Each test in the battery is designed to measure only one neuropsychological variable.
A. All of the tests in the battery are standardized.
249
The NEPSY is to the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery as the
A. Trail Making Test is to the Porteus Maze Test.
B. WISC is to the WAIS.
C. Tower of Hanoi is to the Bender.
D. Halstead-Reitan is to the Luria-Nebraska.
B. WISC is to the WAIS.
250
As compared to the Halstead-Reitan, the Luria-Nebraska
A. typically takes much longer to administer.
B. requires greater verbal ability.
C. is the more appropriate test for patients with aphagia.
D. is not for use by inexperienced clinicians.
B. requires greater verbal ability.
251
The Luria-Nebraska is
A. a personality assessment battery.
B. a flexible neuropsychological test battery.
C. a fixed neuropsychological test battery.
D. the only psychological test battery that Mutual of Omaha offers reimbursement for.
C. a fixed neuropsychological test battery.
252
```
An administration of the Montreal Neuropsychological Institute Battery entails the
administration of
A. the Wechsler Intelligence Test.
B. the Mooney Faces Test.
C. the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
253
The Severe Impairment Battery
A. entails an administration of the Tower of Hanoi.
B. reliably and validly assesses aphasia.
C. is used to assess the more severely impaired.
D. Both entails an administration of the Tower of Hanoi and is used to assess the more
severely impaired.
C. is used to assess the more severely impaired.
254
The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery
A. is relatively easy to administer and can be administered by paraprofessionals.
B. is useful in assessing perceptual, cognitive, and motor deficits.
C. can be administered in under two hours by a well-trained and experienced examiner.
D. Both is useful in assessing perceptual, cognitive, and motor deficits and can be
administered in under two hours by a well-trained and experienced examiner.
B. is useful in assessing perceptual, cognitive, and motor deficits.
255
```
Which is NOT a subtest of the Halstead-Reitan Battery?
A. Category
B. Coding
C. Tactual performance
D. Finger-tapping
```
B. Coding
256
```
Medical diagnostic procedures, such as PET scans and CT scans, are LEAST likely to be
used to diagnose
A. epilepsy.
B. brain lesions.
C. brain tumors.
D. depression.
```
D. depression.
257
The study of neuropsychology is BEST characterized as the study of
A. nervous system/cognition relationships.
B. brain/behavior relationships.
C. stimulus/response relationships.
D. physical/platonic relationships.
B. brain/behavior relationships.
258
A patient had documented damage to the left hemisphere of the brain. Given this, a
neuropsychologist would suspect that this patient would have difficulty moving
A. the left arm.
B. both arms.
C. the left leg.
D. the right leg.
D. the right leg.
259
```
If damage from an infection was limited to a deficit in the sense of smell, this deficit
could BEST be attributed to a
A. contralateral defect.
B. diffuse lesion.
C. focal lesion.
D. cerebral hemorrhage.
```
C. focal lesion.
260
In general, contemporary researchers consider organicity to be
A. a shared pattern of behaviors among persons with brain damage.
B. a descriptor of human anatomy.
C. a singular diagnostic entity for the brain injured.
D. None of these
D. None of these
261
```
A ____________ is typically administered during the course of a neuropsychological
examination.
A. personality measure
B. measure of intellectual functioning
C. specific neuropsychological test
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
262
A neuropsychological evaluation
A. will vary as a function of the referral question.
B. typically begins with specific neuropsychological tests.
C. will vary depending upon the assessee's insurance.
D. typically begins with the administration of the Bender-Gestalt.
A. will vary as a function of the referral question.
263
Which information is typically LEAST important in a neuropsychological examination
and history-taking?
A. the age at which the patient was able to tie his or her shoelaces
B. the patient's estimated IQ
C. the patient's social values
D. the medical history of the patient's parents
C. the patient's social values
264
The physical exam of a person suspected of brain injury as conducted by a
neuropsychologist
A. typically includes invasive procedures if the neuropsychologist was trained in them.
B. typically does not include invasive procedures.
C. will answer most medical questions except these pertaining to the exact location of a
lesion.
D. Both typically does not include invasive procedures and will answer most medical
questions except these pertaining to the exact location of a lesion.
B. typically does not include invasive procedures.
265
```
Noninvasive diagnostic procedures include all of the following EXCEPT
A. the testing of reflexes.
B. the walking and skipping test.
C. an angiogram.
D. an electroencephalogram.
```
C. an angiogram.
266
A self-report rating scale of neurological impairment is
A. the Patient's Assessment of Own Functioning Scale.
B. the Short Portable Mental Status Questionnaire.
C. the Neuropsychological Impairment Scale.
D. the Seashore Rating Scale.
C. the Neuropsychological Impairment Scale.
267
The phrase "Birds of a feather flock together" would MOST likely be recited by a
neuropsychologist for the purpose of evaluating a patient's
A. memory.
B. abstract reasoning.
C. social skills.
D. knowledge of ornithology.
B. abstract reasoning.
268
```
Aphasia refers to a
A. deficit in motor ability.
B. deficit in writing.
C. memory deficit.
D. communication deficit.
```
D. communication deficit.
269
```
The Controlled Word Association Test is used primarily to
A. evaluate pre-senile dementia.
B. measure cognitive functioning.
C. assess verbal fluency.
D. diagnose Alzheimer's disease.
```
C. assess verbal fluency.
270
A prepackaged battery of neuropsychological tests allows a clinician to
A. pick and choose from a variety of tests in the battery.
B. choose tests based on the specific referral questions.
C. choose a complete battery that is individually tailored to the referral question.
D. administer a variety of tests that sample commonly evaluated areas.
D. administer a variety of tests that sample commonly evaluated areas.
271
```
The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is an example of
A. a flexible battery.
B. a routing battery.
C. an atheoretical battery.
D. a battery that keeps going and going.
```
C. an atheoretical battery.
272
```
The precise location of a brain tumor could BEST be identified by means of
A. a CT scan.
B. an X ray.
C. an electromyograph (EMG).
D. a spinal tap.
```
A. a CT scan.
273
```
Which is LEAST helpful in detecting brain lesions?
A. an X ray
B. a blood test
C. a PET scan
D. an echoencephalograph
```
B. a blood test
274
Research on the Wechsler Memory Scale has pointed to
A. distinctive verbal and visual memory factors.
B. a general memory factor.
C. verbal and performance memory factors.
D. memory that is organized by sensory input.
B. a general memory factor.
275
Studies with the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) indicate that high scores
indicative of neurological impairment are obtained by people with neurological difficulties.
High scores indicative of neurological impairment have also been found for people with
mental disorders, with no neurological impairment. This latter finding is indicative of which
type of problem with regard to WCST scores?
A. false positives
B. false negatives
C. true negatives
D. true positives
A. false positives
276
If a testtaker is asked to name familiar objects, write familiar words, and follow verbal
instructions on a test that takes 15 minutes or less, the test that the testtaker would most likely
be taking is
A. the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.
B. the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery.
C. the Wechsler Memory Scale.
D. the Aphasia Screening Test.
D. the Aphasia Screening Test.
277
Children with chronic middle-ear infections often have low scores on the Sequenced
Inventory of Communication Development (SICD). This finding is construed as evidence of
the SICD's
A. susceptibility to false positives.
B. deficient pre-screening of testtakers.
C. construct validity.
D. None of these
C. construct validity.
278
According to your textbook, the increasing ability of physicians to identify brain damage
with scans and other medical technology will MOST likely
A. lessen the importance of neuropsychological testing and assessment.
B. prompt neuropsychologists to develop better assessment techniques for understanding
cognitive strengths and weaknesses.
C. make neuropsychological testing and assessment shift its focus from diagnosis to
remediation.
D. encourage neuropsychologists to return to school, this time for an M.D. degree.
B. prompt neuropsychologists to develop better assessment techniques for understanding
cognitive strengths and weaknesses.
279
The case study approach is extremely valuable in neuropsychological assessments,
especially with regard to determinations concerning a patient's
A. level of compliance during testing and assessment.
B. level of premorbid functioning.
C. need for medication and other such medical intervention.
D. ability to pay for services on a sliding scale fee basis.
B. level of premorbid functioning.
280
The Seguin-Goddard Formboard was originally developed to measure
A. auditory memory.
B. visuopractic ability.
C. olfactory memory.
D. Both auditory memory and olfactory memory.
B. visuopractic ability.
281
```
The Wechsler Memory Scale-III taps primarily which type of memory?
A. procedural
B. semantic
C. declarative episodic
D. non-declarative procedural
```
C. declarative episodic
282
```
Neuropsychological deficits in organizing and planning can BEST be assessed by which
of the following?
A. the Wechsler Similarities Test
B. a proverb interpretation test
C. the Porteus Maze Test
D. an object sorting test
```
C. the Porteus Maze Test
283
```
All of the following are used to assess the ability to abstract EXCEPT
A. the Wechsler Similarities subtest.
B. the Object Sorting Test.
C. the Porteus Maze Test.
D. proverb interpretation.
```
C. the Porteus Maze Test.
284
Neuropsychologists use the Wechsler Scales
A. only as a gauge of current intellectual functioning.
B. to help identify neuropsychological impairment.
C. as a stand-alone measure of neurological impairment.
D. to establish rapport prior to administering the Halstead-Reitan battery.
B. to help identify neuropsychological impairment.
285
```
first-grader is able to recite the complete alphabet in his kindergarten class but not at
home. This BEST exemplifies
A. nondeclarative procedural short-term memory.
B. declarative-episodic long-term memory.
C. context-dependent long-term memory.
D. procedural short-term memory.
```
C. context-dependent long-term memory.
286
Your ability to remember all of the different types of reliability discussed in your
textbook is an example of __________ memory.
A. procedural
B. declarative
C. short-term
D. focused
B. declarative
287
```
Getting dressed in the morning puts to use which kind of long-term memory?
A. procedural
B. declarative
C. episodic
D. context-dependent
```
A. procedural
288
Which of the following is TRUE of short-term memory, according to the model
presented in your textbook?
A. Passive and active components of short-term memory are included.
B. Only active components are included.
C. Only passive components are included.
D. All information in short-term memory is encoded into long-term memory.
A. Passive and active components of short-term memory are included.
289
```
Individuals who lack awareness, insight, and the ability to recognize problems are
referred to as
A. agnostic.
B. anosognostic.
C. amnesiac.
D. anhedonics.
```
B. anosognostic.
290
Factor-analytic research with the Wechsler Memory Scale-III suggests that
A. different factor solutions emerge as a function of age.
B. g emerges in adulthood but not old age.
C. no one factor can be used to explain test performance.
D. the memory of the examiner is a factor that accounts for the majority of the variance in
pathology findings.
A. different factor solutions emerge as a function of age.
291
Attention, concentration, and related factors play what role in the model of memory that
was presented in your textbook?
A. They play a role only in episodic and procedural memory.
B. They enhance memory to the extent that they are operating normally.
C. They determine which input becomes conscious.
D. They inhibit memory when operative under extreme conditions.
C. They determine which input becomes conscious.
292
Preliminary tests administered to a patient as part of a neuropsychological examination
might evaluate the patient's visual and auditory abilities. The purpose of these tests is to
evaluate
A. how cooperative the patient is actually going to be before proceeding.
B. sensory input capabilities before proceeding with more specialized tests.
C. whether or not the patient will be able to assist in the conduct of the examination.
D. the adequacy of the patient's health before proceeding.
B. sensory input capabilities before proceeding with more specialized tests.
293
Tests such as the University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT) are
capable of providing evidence that the testtaker is suffering from
A. AIDS
B. Parkinson's disease
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. All of these
D. All of these
294
A man has a stroke on Monday and is recovering in the hospital on the following
Tuesday. On Wednesday morning, the family of the patient asks a neuropsychologist to test
the patient to determine how extensive the damage was from the stroke. In accordance with
BEST practices, the neuropsychologist replies that he plans to test the patient
A. later that afternoon.
B. later that evening.
C. first thing in the morning on Thursday.
D. in about a month or so.
D. in about a month or so.
295
The term pseudodementia refers to
A. a malingerer pretending to be demented.
B. a condition that presents clinically like dementia.
C. a clinical presentation on the subject of dementia.
D. efforts to avoid dementia through diet and nutrition.
B. a condition that presents clinically like dementia.
296
```
Members of populations at risk for neurological impairment include all of the following
EXCEPT
A. psychiatric patients.
B. the elderly.
C. war veterans.
D. alcoholics.
```
C. war veterans.
297
Which of the following statements about reflexes is NOT true?
A. their existence can be tested for by a neuropsychologist during the course of a
neuropsychological examination
B. the mastication or chewing reflex is elicited by stroking the normal infant's tongue or lips
C. they are defined as voluntary motor responses to stimuli
D. many of them have survival value for infants
C. they are defined as voluntary motor responses to stimuli
298
Why are Wechsler tests so popular with neuropsychologists for use in
neuropsychological evaluations?
A. the varied nature of the tasks on these tests make them appealing
B. the culture-fairness of the materials make them appropriate for administration to a wide
variety of people
C. most of these tests feature special norms for neurologically impaired populations
D. All of these
A. the varied nature of the tasks on these tests make them appealing
299
Which is the BEST example of pattern analysis by an examiner who administers
Wechsler tests?
A. An examiner takes note of a familiar melody in the voice of the testtaker as the testtaker
repeats the digits recited during the Digit Backwards subtest.
B. An examiner takes note of the fact that a testtaker arranges the blocks in a Block Design
subtest in ways that appear to be designed to spell out certain words.
C. An examiner notes extremely poor performance on tests that tap nonverbal abstraction
ability and superior performance on tests that tap verbal abstraction ability.
D. An examiner notes a pattern of responses that consistently alternates between true and
false for all responses that can be answered with a true or false response.
C. An examiner notes extremely poor performance on tests that tap nonverbal abstraction
ability and superior performance on tests that tap verbal abstraction ability.
300
```
When a neuropsychologist uses the word "concrete," the neuropsychologist is typically
making reference to the variable of
A. level of intelligence.
B. level of abstraction.
C. strength of will.
D. strength of character.
```
B. level of abstraction.
301
Which of the following is the BEST measure of executive function?
A. a Field-of-Search test
B. a Digits Forward and Digits Backward test
C. the Tower of Hanoi
D. the Isihara
C. the Tower of Hanoi
302
Confrontation naming is a type of task presented on a test that entails
A. a name-calling exchange with a spouse or other family member for a given period of time.
B. confronting a testtaker with a list of names—negative or positive—that the assessor feels
aptly describe the testtaker.
C. naming items one is confronted with.
D. re-naming items one is confronted with.
C. naming items one is confronted with.
303
```
Which is a test to measure colorblindness?
A. the Benton
B. the Isihara
C. the Wepman
D. the Bruininks-Oseretsky
```
B. the Isihara
304
The "Gestalt" in Bender-Gestalt comes from
A. Lauretta Bender's homage to Max Gestalt.
B. the German word gestalten meaning "configurational wholes."
C. the Romanian term, nisht gessen allis meaning "don't guess at all."
D. None of these
B. the German word gestalten meaning "configurational wholes."
305
```
A quantitative scoring system for the Bender-Gestalt was published by
A. Bender.
B. Koppitz.
C. Pascal and Suttell.
D. Both Koppitz and Pascal and Suttell.
```
D. Both Koppitz and Pascal and Suttell.
306
Max Hutt believed that perceptual-motor behavior
A. rapidly declined after age 60.
B. could reveal personality conflicts.
C. began to decline in the late teen years.
D. was not adequately sampled by the Bender-Gestalt test.
B. could reveal personality conflicts.
307
In the Controlled Word Association Test, the examiner
A. controls stimulus words presented on a computer monitor to the test-taker and the testtaker
must type in an association to that word.
B. keeps a record of the number of seconds it takes to respond to "neutral" and "emotional"
stimulus words.
C. Both controls stimulus words presented on a computer monitor to the test-taker and the
testtaker must type in an association to that word and keeps a record of the number of seconds
it takes to respond to "neutral" and "emotional" stimulus words.
D. says a letter of the alphabet and the testtaker's task is to say as many as words as possible
that begin with that letter.
D. says a letter of the alphabet and the testtaker's task is to say as many as words as possible
that begin with that letter.
308
In the model of memory presented in Chapter 14 of your textbook, information stored in
long-term memory is available for retrieval. After this information is retrieved and used, it is
returned to long-term memory. How does this return to long-term memory happen?
A. The information is first processed in short-term memory.
B. The information is restored directly to long-term memory.
C. After the passage of about 3 months without further use, the information is restored to
long-term memory.
D. It is a matter of debate how this happens and neither the information is first processed in
short-term memory, the information is restored directly to long-term memory, or after the
passage of about 3 months without further use, the information is restored to long-term
memory can be stated with certainty.
D. It is a matter of debate how this happens and neither the information is first processed in
short-term memory, the information is restored directly to long-term memory, or after the
passage of about 3 months without further use, the information is restored to long-term
memory can be stated with certainty.
309
```
The Wechsler Memory Scale-III (WMS-III) is the successor to the test known as
A. the WMS-II.
B. the WMS-R.
C. the WMS-la Deuxieme Partie.
D. the WMS.
```
B. the WMS-R.
310
```
The type of task measured in the test referred to simply as "the Boston" is
A. controlled word association.
B. figure copying.
C. visual memory.
D. confrontation naming.
```
D. confrontation naming.
311
```
In the jargon of neuropsychology, reference to a "CDT" by a neuropsychologist MOST
probably refers to:
A. central daylight saving time.
B. click-down tap-time.
C. clock-drawing test.
D. court-determined test.
```
C. clock-drawing test.
312
```
The Wechsler Memory Scale-III is appropriate for ages
A. 3-21.
B. 5-18.
C. 16-74.
D. 6-74.
```
C. 16-74.
313
```
Behavioral neurology is a specialty area within
A. neuropsychology.
B. neurology.
C. neuroscience.
D. neuroanatomy.
```
B. neurology.
314
Why must the neuropsychologist have a working knowledge of the effects of prescription medication taken by assessees?
A. the prescription medication can mask certain neurobehavioral symptoms.
B. the prescription medication can cause certain neurobehavioral problems.
C. the prescription medication can be unnecessary for the patient to take.
D. Both the prescription medication can mask certain neurobehavioral symptoms and the
prescription medication can cause certain neurobehavioral problems.
D. Both the prescription medication can mask certain neurobehavioral symptoms and the
prescription medication can cause certain neurobehavioral problems.
315
Of the following, which tool of assessment is BEST for determining if behavior
exhibited by a patient is the result of dementia or pseudodemtia?
A. an interview
B. a case history
C. the Bender
D. a confrontation naming task
B. a case history
316
```
One variety of memory thought to exist beyond conscious control is referred to as
A. reflexive memory.
B. iterative memory.
C. illicit memory.
D. implicit memory.
```
D. implicit memory.
317
```
Which is NOT a subspecialty of neuropsychology?
A. forensic neuropsychology.
B. school neuropsychology.
C. vocational neuropsychology.
D. geriatric neuropsychology.
```
C. vocational neuropsychology.
318
```
According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the first intelligence service in the United States was
created under President
A. Theodore Roosevelt.
B. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
C. Dwight D. Eisenhower.
D. John F. Kennedy.
```
B. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
319
According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the Office of Strategic Services (OSS) is viewed today
as the forerunner to
A. the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
B. the US Army Special Forces.
C. both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) and the US Army Special Forces.
D. None of these.
C. both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) and the US Army Special Forces.
320
```
According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the first intelligence service in the United States was
created under President
A. Theodore Roosevelt.
B. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
C. Dwight D. Eisenhower.
D. John F. Kennedy.
```
B. Franklin D. Roosevelt.
321
According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the Office of Strategic Services (OSS) is viewed today
as the forerunner to
A. the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA).
B. the US Army Special Forces.
C. both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) and the US Army Special Forces.
D. None of these.
C. both the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) and the US Army Special Forces.
322
According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, one of the major turning points in the history of
psychological assessment came as the result of the forward-thinking action of a U.S. Army
General named
A. James "Big Jim" Thornton.
B. Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
C. Samuel "Secret Sammy" Sanders.
D. William "Wild Bill" Donovan.
D. William "Wild Bill" Donovan.
323
According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the team of psychologists that was assembled to create
the novel assessment program for personnel selection for the Office of Strategic Services
(OSS) could be characterized as
A. "junior varsity."
B. "recently licensed."
C. "all over the map."
D. "all-star."
D. "all-star."
324
All of the following were objectives of America's first intelligence service EXCEPT
A. gathering information about the intentions and activities of this country's adversaries.
B. executing operations aimed at disrupting foreign enemy actions.
C. identifying domestic groups that represented a threat to the United States.
D. sabotaging foreign enemy assets.
C. identifying domestic groups that represented a threat to the United States.
325
```
Candidates for the OSS would have to be all of the following EXCEPT
A. resourceful.
B. contemplative.
C. emotionally resilient.
D. creative.
```
B. contemplative.
326
Identifying candidates for OSS positions represented a "real-world" problem that would
ultimately be addressed by means of
A. a thoughtfully-devised psychological assessment program.
B. a highly incentivized recruiting program.
C. an imaginative but cost-effective advertising program.
D. All of these
A. a thoughtfully-devised psychological assessment program.
327
The model of assessment and personnel selection devised by OSS personnel was
A. generally consistent with the then-current practices.
B. unreliable as a result of then-existing time pressures.
C. revolutionary for its time and still in use today.
D. has remained classified to the present day.
C. revolutionary for its time and still in use today.
328
The varied responsibilities of the OSS raised many questions for the OSS team of assessor
psychologists. According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the "bottom line" question for the
assessors could BEST be phrased as,
A. "What defines ‘usefulness to the organization'?"
B. "What psychological attributes can we reasonably assess in the space of a relatively short
visit to the assessment facility?"
C. "How do we select candidates who are a good fit with the varied demands required of OSS
intelligence officers?"
D. "What specific aspects of personality should be the focus of our assessments?"
C. "How do we select candidates who are a good fit with the varied demands required of OSS
intelligence officers?"
329
A number of factors conspired to make the task of the OSS one of the most complicated
behavioral prediction challenges ever encountered in the history clinical psychology. These
factors included
A. identifying psychological attributes that corresponded to OSS duties.
B. the novelty of the OSS function.
C. the variability of job requirements for OSS intelligence agents to be recruited.
D. All of these
D. All of these
330
As an alternative to analyzing OSS jobs into their component psychological attributes, the
OSS Assessment Staff set what they characterized as ______ assessment as their objective.
A. orgasmic
B. organismic
C. orthogonal
D. None of these
B. organismic
331
Ultimately, psychologists evaluated OSS candidates on the basis of data derived from
A. the full range of assessments, considered as a whole.
B. a series of individual tests, each measuring a required ability.
C. a single test with scales for each of the required abilities.
D. a complex weighting of case history data and cognitive/behavioral tasks.
A. the full range of assessments, considered as a whole.
332
Candidates for OSS training arrived at the OSS instructional facility for assessment and
training from
A. their homes throughout the United States.
B. specially designated hotels in Roanoke, Virginia where they had been instructed to
assemble.
C. United States military bases.
D. All of these
C. United States military bases.
333
```
OSS assessment and training was conducted at a location that was code-named _____, but
was informally referred to as ____.
A. the homestead; the farm
B. Farm 44; the station
C. Station S; the farm
D. Dulles; the airport
```
C. Station S; the farm
334
Once at the OSS training and assessment facility, the candidates
A. were interviewed by psychologists, completed questionnaires, and sat for paper-and-pencil
tests.
B. had their performance evaluated on a highly stressful, but mock interrogation.
C. were challenged to build a small wooden structure using "assistants" who deliberately
frustrated the candidates' efforts.
D. All of these
D. All of these
335
While at the OSS assessment and training facility, the candidates
A. were not allowed to verbally interact with each other.
B. were encouraged to view Survivor re-runs on VHS.
C. would inevitably have a physical altercation with either "Buster" or "Kippy."
D. None of these
D. None of these
336
OSS candidates were formally and informally assessed at the OSS assessment and training
facility over the course of a total of ____.
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. one week
D. 10 days
A. 3 days
337
The OSS assessments resulted in mounds of notes and other data about the candidates'
suitability for intelligence work. All of this information was
A. analyzed in triple-blind fashion by a panel of three psychologists.
B. sent to OSS headquarters in Washington, D.C. for a preliminary recommendation.
C. reviewed and debated at a staff conference.
D. All of these
C. reviewed and debated at a staff conference.
338
The final decision regarding the status of an OSS was made by
A. senior OSS staff officials.
B. psychologists on-site at the training and assessment facility.
C. senior Department of the Army officials.
D. Harold "Hard Hal" Robertson.
A. senior OSS staff officials.
339
According to Mark F. Lenzenweger, the legacy of the OSS assessment program
A. is tied to its compelling demonstration of the utility of psychological testing and
assessment.
B. lives on in the modern day use of assessment centers for personnel selection in corporate
America.
C. is very much a part of assessment centers conducted by today's governmental agencies.
D. All of these
D. All of these
340
The image in Chapter 15 of your textbook of Steve Martin as a dentist in Little Shop of
Horrors was used to illustrate a point about occupational choice and
A. burnout.
B. interests.
C. productivity.
D. workplace drug testing.
B. interests.
341
Although not identified as such at the time of hire, there are employees who turn out to be
"poor-fits" for their job or work place. According to Dr. Jed Yalof, such individuals may
A. have been easily screened out by basic self-report measures and never hired.
B. be well-versed in impression management techniques, which is how they got the job.
C. have served time in prison for forging work credentials in the past.
D. All of these
B. be well-versed in impression management techniques, which is how they got the job.
342
According to Dr. Jed Yalof, potential problems may arise with employees who
misrepresented their credentials to gain employment. These employees may
A. try to bend the rules of the workplace.
B. down-play or disregard supervisory feedback.
C. be inappropriately competitive with co-workers.
D. All of these
D. All of these
343
According to Dr. Jed Yalof, in the workplace, the problems of one individual, such as
chronic lateness or chronic moodiness, are likely to negatively impact the focus and
productivity of
A. that individual.
B. other workers.
C. both that individual and other workers.
D. all workers in that industry.
C. both that individual and other workers.
344
The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)
A. is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists.
B. was developed by the military to assist veterans in their job search.
C. taps cognitive, perceptual, and psychomotor skills.
D. Both is administered only by licensed counseling psychologists and was developed by the
military to assist veterans in their job search.
C. taps cognitive, perceptual, and psychomotor skills.
345
```
The process of selection based on an evaluation of certain minimal criteria is referred to
as
A. classification.
B. directed search.
C. screening.
D. interviewing.
```
C. screening.
346
```
When hiring new personnel, the term that BEST describes the process by which applicants
are accepted or rejected is
A. selection.
B. placement.
C. classification.
D. directed search.
```
A. selection.
347
Application forms used in employment settings
A. are generally considered to be useful for quick screening.
B. have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies.
C. are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later
obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other sources.
D. Both have been shown to have poor validity and reliability in numerous research studies
and are frequently unnecessary, since they usually duplicate information that can be later
obtained through interviews, tests, Linked-In, and other sources.
A. are generally considered to be useful for quick screening.
348
Letters of recommendation used in employment settings
A. are generally not very useful since they are all typically favorable.
B. are generally useful in the preliminary screening of applicants.
C. have been demonstrated to be valid and reliable tools for employee selection.
D. are more useful if they are open-ended rather than structured.
B. are generally useful in the preliminary screening of applicants.
349
Vocational assessment that entails performance samples
A. may take the form of a leaderless group situation.
B. generally take the form of paper-and-pencil tasks.
C. have been heavily criticized for their use in measuring problem solving and decision
making.
D. are used extensively in the hiring of valets.
A. may take the form of a leaderless group situation.
350
In the evaluation of worker productivity
A. final course grades in job training classes are highly predictive of future worker production
and job tenure.
B. peer ratings have proven to be a valuable method of identifying talent.
C. peer ratings tend to be lower and more critical than ratings by superiors.
D. the leniency effect and the halo effect rarely result in rating errors.
B. peer ratings have proven to be a valuable method of identifying talent.
351
In the context of business settings, which of the following BEST exemplifies a process
related to validity generalization?
A. validating a projective personality technique for use in determining leadership ability and
integrity
B. selecting standardized instruments that include validity scales for use in recruiting new
trainees for a local police department
C. determining whether validity evidence for a test that taps aptitude for secretarial work can
be meaningfully applied to the work of a truck driver
D. creating situational performance samples that more closely simulate actual job
requirements of clerical and assembly-line workers
C. determining whether validity evidence for a test that taps aptitude for secretarial work can
352
Race-norming entails
A. including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test.
B. adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own
racial group.
C. Both including items that pertain to various racial groups on a test and adjusting an
individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own racial group.
D. None of these
B. adjusting an individual testtaker's score to reflect that person's standing in his or her own
racial group.
353
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used in pre-employment screening of job
applicants for unskilled positions in a large corporation?
A. application blanks
B. letters of recommendation
C. interviews
D. aptitude measures
D. aptitude measures
354
Which LEAST represents a benefit of portfolio assessment in the workplace?
A. It can yield insights into how employees or prospective employees think about workrelated
things.
B. The prospective employer can view samples of the applicant's work product.
C. It potentially allows the employer entry into a side of the employee's world that would
otherwise be private.
D. Use of such methods by prospective employers in certain economically depressed areas
carries with it federal tax benefits.
D. Use of such methods by prospective employers in certain economically depressed areas
carries with it federal tax benefits.
355
A "real time, live action" approach to assessment that requires assessees to demonstrate
abilities that typically are characteristic of those they might encounter on-the-job is referred to
as:
A. portfolio assessment.
B. performance assessment.
C. curriculum-based assessment.
D. authentic assessment.
B. performance assessment.
356
Performance assessments
A. provide an opportunity for potential employees to candidly discuss their strengths and
weaknesses.
B. involve a thorough background check with previous employers.
C. provide a job-related sample of behavior.
D. are usually not standardized.
C. provide a job-related sample of behavior.
357
Computer simulations and video games have earned a place as a tool of vocational
assessment—so much so, that they are sometimes even referred to as
A. portfolio evaluations.
B. performance tests.
C. online interviews.
D. cyberselection tools.
B. performance tests.
358
```
Which of the following does NOT belong?
A. an "in-basket" task
B. a computerized jet fighter simulation
C. a word processing test
D. a polygraph test
```
D. a polygraph test
359
```
The practice of adjusting test scores to reflect an individual's level of performance within
a racial group is referred to as
A. racial bias.
B. discrimination.
C. race-norming.
D. intercept bias.
```
C. race-norming.
360
```
In the late 1980s, there was a nationwide controversy regarding the race-norming of the
A. Mooney Faces Test.
B. General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB).
C. MMPI-2.
D. Strong Interest Inventory (SII).
```
B. General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB).
361
Criterion validity of the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) tends to be low, probably
because of
A. the low test-retest reliability of the GATB.
B. the low reliability of supervisory ratings.
C. a limitation of the Taylor-Russell tables.
D. scoring that is based in part on the race of the test-taker.
B. the low reliability of supervisory ratings.
362
Race-norming of the General Aptitude Test (GATB) was viewed as appropriate by the
National Academy of Sciences because
A. the criterion-related validity of the test for African-Americans and Caucasians is
represented by different regression lines.
B. the various groups for which data exists are being held to the same standards.
C. African-Americans are more likely than Caucasians to come from disadvantaged
backgrounds, and race-norming the test compensates to some degree for that disadvantage.
D. so few minority group members take the test that the net effect of the race-norming would
not yield the desired consequence.
A. the criterion-related validity of the test for African-Americans and Caucasians is
represented by different regression lines.
363
The question of whether the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) should be racenormed
was resolved when
A. the National Academy of Sciences issued a report on the test.
B. the Department of Labor stopped offering the test for employers.
C. Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1991.
D. there was a public outcry against the continued use of the GATB.
C. Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1991.
364
The Civil Rights Act of 1991 stated that tests like the General Aptitude Test Battery
A. must no longer be administered.
B. must produce equal mean scores for all races.
C. could no longer be race-normed.
D. violated the civil rights of minority groups.
C. could no longer be race-normed.
365
```
Who developed a commonly used set of interest inventories?
A. Myers
B. Strong
C. Bray
D. Briggs
```
B. Strong
366
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the Strong Interest Inventory as the use of
this test relates to respondents from diverse cultural backgrounds?
A. The evidence supports the use of Strong with college-educated respondents from diverse
cultural backgrounds.
B. The evidence does NOT support the use of Strong with respondents from diverse
backgrounds.
C. The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds has only
begun to be investigated and no findings have yet been reported.
D. The question of the use of Strong with respondents from diverse backgrounds is moot as
the test publisher has made highly specific recommendations regarding which testtakers from
which cultures the test is appropriate for use with.
A. The evidence supports the use of Strong with college-educated respondents from diverse
cultural backgrounds.
367
```
The Strong Interest Inventory measures
A. vocational aptitudes.
B. vocational interests.
C. vocational interests and aptitudes.
D. vocational interests and general mental ability.
```
B. vocational interests.
368
Items such as "I get along well with others" and "I enjoy math" are representative of the
types of items presented on which of the following vocational assessment instruments?
A. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. the General Aptitude Test Battery
C. the Minnesota Clerical Test
D. the Strong Interest Inventory
D. the Strong Interest Inventory
369
Bizot and Goldman (1993) examined the predictive criterion validity of interest
inventories and ability tests in relation to future job performance and job satisfaction. They
concluded that
A. interest is predictive of job performance.
B. aptitude is predictive of job performance.
C. interest is predictive of job satisfaction.
D. All of these
B. aptitude is predictive of job performance.
370
Bizot and Goldman (1993) found that ________________ scores in high school are
predictive of _______________ in adulthood.
A. interest test; job satisfaction
B. interest test; job performance
C. ability test; job satisfaction
D. ability test; job performance
D. ability test; job performance
371
```
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) was based on the theoretical writings of
A. Sigmund Freud.
B. B. F. Skinner.
C. Carl Jung.
D. Holland Opus.
```
C. Carl Jung.
372
The Work Preference Inventory (WPI) is designed to assess
A. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
B. ability to work with people and ability to work alone.
C. interest in intellectually demanding work as opposed to routine, non-demanding work.
D. active managerial style as distinct from passive managerial style.
A. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.
373
The Work Preference Inventory (WPI) is designed to assess two characteristics. Factor
analysis indicates that two factors are in fact present on the test and correspond to the two
types of motivation postulated by the test developers. Given these facts, it seems reasonable to
conclude that the test has documented evidence of its
A. internal consistency.
B. construct validity.
C. face validity.
D. test-retest reliability.
B. construct validity.
374
```
It has been estimated that drug testing is used by approximately ________% of companies
in the United States.
A. 5
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
```
D. 45
375
One is LEAST likely to undergo drug testing if one is
A. a new employee in a large company.
B. a current employee in a small service organization.
C. completing military service.
D. a current employee in a large company.
B. a current employee in a small service organization.
376
```
Employees who are subjected to drug testing have expressed concerns about
A. the accuracy of the drug testing.
B. unconstitutional search and seizure.
C. violation of privacy rights.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
377
A false-positive drug test result is BEST associated with which of the following
conclusions about the testtaker?
A. The testtaker is still affected by a drug even though the drug has actually left the person's
system.
B. An impaired testtaker who has gone undetected by the test.
C. The testtaker consumed a poppy-seed bagel for breakfast.
D. None of these
C. The testtaker consumed a poppy-seed bagel for breakfast.
378
A false-negative drug test is BEST associated with which of the following conclusions
about the testtaker?
A. The testtaker is taking depression medication.
B. The testtaker consumed something with poppy-seeds in them recently.
C. The testtaker is probably impaired but the test does not indicate this.
D. None of these
C. The testtaker is probably impaired but the test does not indicate this
379
Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more
acceptable way of measuring impairment than drug testing. The use of video games in such a
way would BEST be characterized by assessment psychologists as
A. drug testing.
B. authentic assessment.
C. performance assessment.
D. aptitude testing.
C. performance assessment.
380
Using video games to test coordination and reaction time has been proposed as a more
acceptable way than drug testing to detect impairment. Which is an advantage of the use of
video games in this way?
A. immediate feedback concerning impairment
B. improved employee satisfaction
C. demonstrated effectiveness in reducing accidents
D. All of these
D. All of these
381
```
According to your textbook, a ___________ is defined as "a task, an undertaking, or an
activity performed for pay."
A. career
B. occupation
C. job
D. vocation
```
C. job
382
```
Résumés and application forms are BEST classified as ________ instruments.
A. placement
B. screening
C. hiring
D. classification
```
B. screening
383
How do application forms differ from résumés?
A. Application forms are often used for screening purposes; résumés are used for selection.
B. Application forms offer relevant background information regarding education and
employment history; résumés typically do not.
C. Application forms are more highly structured than résumés.
D. Application forms are often used as a basis for later interviewing; résumés are not.
C. Application forms are more highly structured than résumés.
384
```
According to your textbook, the most complete picture of a job applicant's actual abilities
can BEST be obtained from a
A. portfolio assessment.
B. personal interview.
C. detailed résumé.
D. letter of recommendation.
```
A. portfolio assessment.
385
According to your textbook, the typical objective of a performance test is to
A. compare an employee's performance with that of other employees.
B. assess the speed of an employee in completing a job-related task.
C. determine the accuracy of an employee's performance under stressful conditions.
D. obtain a job-related performance sample.
D. obtain a job-related performance sample.
386
Which is NOT true of the Minnesota Clerical Test (MCT)?
A. It is often used as a screening tool.
B. It requires the assessee to place names in alphabetical order.
C. It measures both speed and accuracy.
D. It can be administered and scored quickly.
B. It requires the assessee to place names in alphabetical order.
387
The 1956 Management Progress Study (MPS) at American Telephone and Telegraph
(AT&T)
A. represented the first application of the assessment center concept in an industrial setting.
B. was a longitudinal study with assessments of both management and non-management
employees.
C. was headed by Donald Super who was later honored by the NFL when it re-named its
championship "Bowl" game in his honor.
D. was sponsored by IBM and a dozen or so other companies known by three-letter acronyms.
A. represented the first application of the assessment center concept in an industrial setting.
388
An assessment center is
A. a specific place in an organization staffed by the industrial/organizational psychologist.
B. a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques.
C. a method of assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
D. Both a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques and a method of
assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
D. Both a standardized procedure involving multiple assessment techniques and a method of
assessment used for selection, classification, and promotion.
389
Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate use of a physical measure for the
purpose of employee screening?
A. testing an industrial worker's hearing
B. testing a police officer's speed and agility
C. measuring the height and weight of a telephone operator
D. using a polygraph test to assess a cashier's integrity and honesty
C. measuring the height and weight of a telephone operator
390
How are aptitude tests different from achievement tests?
A. Aptitude tests tap a greater amount of informal learning.
B. Aptitude tests are typically more limited and focused in the content of the presented.
C. Aptitude tests measure prior learning; achievement tests measure present learning.
D. Most aptitude tests are administered by means of paper and pencil while most achievement
tests are computer-administered.
A. Aptitude tests tap a greater amount of informal learning.
391
The Hand-Tool Dexterity Test and the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test would most
likely be used by an employer interested in
A. understanding a worker's motivation to respond quickly with accuracy.
B. evaluating a worker's ability to physically manipulate materials.
C. finding the best employee for a position on an assembly line.
D. increasing profit margins by increasing the utility of the selection tools.
B. evaluating a worker's ability to physically manipulate materials.
392
According to your text, an assumption underlying the development of the Strong Interest
Inventory was
A. if an assessee has many outside interests, he or she will experience less on-the-job stress.
B. if an assessee's interests match those of people already in the field, the assessee may be
well suited for the job.
C. all people in a particular field will work well together if they share similar interests.
D. the more interests an assessee has, the more adaptable he or she will be to various jobrelated
situations.
B. if an assessee's interests match those of people already in the field, the assessee may be
well suited for the job.
393
The longitudinal study by Bizot and Goldman showed that 8 years after their completion,
interest inventories administered in high school had predicted
A. job performance.
B. job satisfaction.
C. neither job performance nor job satisfaction.
D. the administrative level achieved.
C. neither job performance nor job satisfaction.
394
Which of the following statements is TRUE of the role of personality measures in
business and organizational settings?
A. The same personality test may not be equally suited for use in screening applicants for
every variety of employment.
B. The distinction between task-related and people-related aspects of a job is irrelevant to
personality measurement.
C. The MMPI-2-RF has quickly become the most widely used measure of personality in
business and organizational settings.
D. Personality tests are playing less and less of a role in business and organizational settings
with every passing year.
A. The same personality test may not be equally suited for use in screening applicants for
every variety of employment.
395
Productivity ratings made by peers tend to be
A. invalid due to factors such as jealousy.
B. more strict than ratings made by supervisors.
C. predictive of future job performance.
D. poorly correlated with self-ratings.
C. predictive of future job performance.
396
Which is NOT a key component of organizational commitment?
A. loyalty and involvement in the organization
B. a value system consistent with that of the organization
C. length of time with the organization
D. the amount of special effort one would exert on behalf of the organization
C. length of time with the organization
397
Which of the following is TRUE of the Organizational Commitment Questionnaire
(OCQ)?
A. The OCQ was developed in China.
B. The OCQ has not demonstrated construct validity but this may be an artifact of the
variables measured.
C. The OCQ is a 15-item Guttman scale.
D. An early draft of the OCQ was field-tested on 100 social workers.
C. The OCQ is a 15-item Guttman scale.
398
```
Tests designed to evaluate commitment to an organization include measures of
A. loyalty.
B. attendance.
C. Both loyalty and attendance.
D. None of these.
```
C. Both loyalty and attendance.
399
Which of the following are typically variables reviewed when evaluating organizational
commitment?
A. absenteeism
B. supervisory complaints regarding work ethic or other ethics-related issues
C. quality of work
D. All of these
D. All of these
400
Which of the following is NOT a reflection of organizational culture?
A. the role of a manager in the organization
B. a parking spot close to the building awarded to the "employee of the month"
C. the annual holiday party
D. All of these are reflections of organizational culture
D. All of these are reflections of organizational culture
401
Which statement BEST describes the current status of organizational culture measures?
A. There is no shortage of highly reliable and valid instruments that measure organizational
culture.
B. There are very few instruments with demonstrated reliability and validity.
C. Instruments to measure organizational culture are difficult to develop, given the differences
that exist between large organizations.
D. The term "organizational culture" is an elusive concept with many meanings so it has been
difficult for test developers to come up with acceptable tests.
B. There are very few instruments with demonstrated reliability and validity.
402
The term organizational culture refers to
A. a company's physical work setting.
B. the types of people who work at the company.
C. the formal and informal ceremonies and privileges within the organization.
D. All of these
D. All of these
403
```
Which of the following tools of assessment is useful when assessing corporate and
organizational culture?
A. a stress interview
B. a polygraph
C. a focus group
D. videos of the office holiday party
```
C. a focus group
404
Scores on the Strong Interest Inventory provide information about a testtaker's interests
relative to
A. the skills required for a particular job.
B. the educational level required for a particular job.
C. the probability of success at a particular job based on academic achievement.
D. the interests of people actually employed in various occupations.
D. the interests of people actually employed in various occupations.
405
An employee's level of organizational commitment is MOST closely tied to
A. how the organization represents itself to the public at large.
B. the physical setting in which the employee works.
C. the values held by the organization.
D. the special privileges offered to employees.
C. the values held by the organization.
406
Which is TRUE of drug testing in work settings?
A. Large companies are more likely to test than small companies.
B. Random drug testing is commonplace in private, service-oriented companies.
C. Companies involved in the manufacture and distribution of pharmaceuticals do the least
testing.
D. Small companies typically test more than large ones because of the higher stake they have
in each employee.
A. Large companies are more likely to test than small companies.
407
Which is NOT a criticism of drug testing in the work place?
A. It may violate the constitutional rights of employees.
B. False positives and false negatives are always a possibility.
C. Any benefits of drug testing tend to be outweighed by the costliness of the procedure.
D. The most commonly used methods do not yield specifics about when the drug was taken or
how much impairment occurred.
C. Any benefits of drug testing tend to be outweighed by the costliness of the procedure.
408
With regard to the validity of integrity tests,
A. existing integrity tests have not been shown to be valid and should not be used in the
workplace.
B. the integrity of the developers of the most widely used integrity tests has been called into
question.
C. professionally developed tests have the best chance of meeting acceptable validity
standards.
D. only the integrity test used to screen prospective hostesses of home Tupperware parties has
been shown to be valid.
C. professionally developed tests have the best chance of meeting acceptable validity
standards.
409
```
Rating on the basis of one, sole criterion is referred to as
A. classification.
B. placement.
C. screening.
D. selection.
```
C. screening.
410
Employers use the résumé and the cover letter to assess all the following EXCEPT
A. the appropriateness of career objectives.
B. perceived sincerity.
C. work-related thought processes.
D. prior job-related experience.
C. work-related thought processes.
411
```
A useful, quick-screening method that provides a biographical sketch of a job applicant is
the
A. focus group.
B. portfolio.
C. application blank.
D. home visit.
```
C. application blank.
412
```
Letters of recommendation MOST typically provide detailed information about a job
applicant's
A. educational credentials.
B. fantasy life.
C. past performance.
D. food preferences.
```
C. past performance.
413
```
An aptitude test that includes both psychomotor and paper-and-pencil tasks is the
A. Bennet Mechanical Comprehension Test.
B. General Aptitude Test Battery.
C. Minnesota Clerical Test.
D. O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test.
```
B. General Aptitude Test Battery.
414
The NAS report regarding correction of test bias in the General Aptitude Test Battery
(GATB) concluded that
A. more effort would be necessary to completely eliminate the halo effect in test scoring.
B. raw scores had to be converted into interpretable standard scores.
C. test coefficients were too low to be acceptable criterion-related validity evidence.
D. nothing had to be changed in the practice of scoring the tests.
D. nothing had to be changed in the practice of scoring the tests.
415
```
A limitation of using ratings to measure productivity is the possibility of
A. irresponsibility in rating.
B. rater bias.
C. low predictive efficiency.
D. None of these
```
B. rater bias.
416
Which of the following is the BEST example of intrinsic motivation?
A. a bonus for making a specified quota
B. recognition by one's peers in the form of an award
C. one's satisfaction with one's own work products
D. a short-order cook actually winning an episode of Iron Chef
C. one's satisfaction with one's own work products
417
According to Vroom's expectancy theory of motivation, employees will expend energy
A. to achieve an outcome they desire.
B. to experience feelings of accomplishment.
C. to satisfy a higher category of need.
D. to receive recognition for performance.
A. to achieve an outcome they desire.
418
In addition to measuring feeling states, measures of job satisfaction usually measure
A. knowledge necessary for successful job performance.
B. strength of one's loyalty to the organization.
C. perception of one's role in the organization.
D. All of these
C. perception of one's role in the organization.
419
```
The term used to represent the strength of one's loyalty to an organization is
A. attitudinal fortitude.
B. motivational alliance.
C. organizational commitment.
D. job satisfaction.
```
C. organizational commitment.
420
Which of the following BEST reflects a performance test administered by the Food
Network in its search for a new host for a show called Bizarre Foods?
A. Have the applicant fill out an application blank.
B. Have the applicant solicit letters of reference.
C. Review the applicant's video portfolio.
D. Offer the applicant a breaded and fried grasshopper to eat.
D. Offer the applicant a breaded and fried grasshopper to eat.
421
```
Random drug testing is LEAST employed in
A. government agencies.
B. large companies.
C. the military.
D. the music industry.
```
D. the music industry.
422
Which is TRUE of the immunoassay method for detecting drug use?
A. It determines the degree of impairment that occurred as a consequence of the drug use.
B. It determines the precise amount of the drug that was ingested.
C. It determines which drug in a particular category was taken.
D. It determines the approximate hour of the day that the drug was taken.
C. It determines which drug in a particular category was taken.
423
```
As a result of legislation, which of the following tools of assessment may NOT be used
in most employment settings?
A. drug tests
B. personality-based measures
C. physical tests
D. lie detectors
```
D. lie detectors
424
According to White, a higher norm of stealing by employees sometimes results from the
use of
A. random drug testing.
B. pre-employment honesty testing.
C. job satisfaction tests.
D. Kelly Clarkson recordings as background music in retail environments.
B. pre-employment honesty testing.
425
Maslow's hierarchical theory as it relates to worker motivation would suggest that
A. employees expend energy in ways designed to achieve the outcome they desire.
B. the more money a worker earns, the more money the worker strives to earn.
C. once workers feel secure in their positions and accepted by their co-workers, they strive to
earn recognition for their accomplishments.
D. an extremely high-risk situation may not lead to feelings of accomplishment because of a
high probability of failure.
C. once workers feel secure in their positions and accepted by their co-workers, they strive to
earn recognition for their accomplishments.
426
```
At what age are students' interests thought to be sufficiently formed to be useful in
course and career planning?
A. 10 years old
B. 15 years old
C. 7 years old
D. 13 years old
```
B. 15 years old
427
Which of the following is TRUE of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?
A. Despite weak psychometric qualities, the test remains popular.
B. The test is really not a measure of type in the strict sense of that word.
C. The test has strong validity.
D. The test is widely used as an adjunct to random drug testing.
A. Despite weak psychometric qualities, the test remains popular.
428
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is used MOST by
A. computer-match dating services.
B. private hospitals.
C. employers.
D. municipally administered health clinics.
C. employers.
429
```
The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills measures
A. personal living skills.
B. community-related living skills.
C. employment skills.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
430
The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills is appropriate for
A. children from ages 2 to 10.
B. children and adolescents from ages 2 to 19.
C. young adults and adults from ages 16 and up.
D. children and adults.
D. children and adults.
431
On the Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills, for an assessee to be judged as
"independent," he or she must perform the task with good quality at least __________% of
the time, when needed, without reminder.
A. 50
B. 75
C. 90
D. 99
B. 75
432
Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and reduced sense of personal accomplishment
are all symptoms of
A. personality disorder.
B. burnout.
C. underemployment.
D. watching Stephen Colbert's Late Night television show.
B. burnout.
433
After successfully completing basic training, a U.S. Marine Corps recruit is assigned
responsibility for maintenance of copy machines in the Corps' offices in Quantico, Virginia.
Which term best describes this assignment?
A. selection
B. placement
C. screening
D. classification
B. placement
434
The Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory is MOST useful for measuring
A. ability to adapt to extreme climate changes for extended periods of time.
B. readiness to be relocated for employment purposes in another country.
C. aptitude for mastering a foreign language.
D. social skills and cultural competence regarding worldwide labor negotiations.
B. readiness to be relocated for employment purposes in another country.
435
```
The Checklist of Adaptive Living Skills is
A. a norm-referenced test.
B. a criterion-referenced test.
C. an objective test.
D. a performance-based test.
```
B. a criterion-referenced test.
436
```
Which of the following is NOT measured by the Cross-Cultural Adaptability Inventory?
A. emotional resilience
B. flexibility/openness
C. personal autonomy
D. receptive communication
```
D. receptive communication
437
The Goal Instability Scale, The Life Satisfaction Index, and the Interpersonal Support
Evaluations List are all used by counselors for the purpose of
A. job selection.
B. job assignment.
C. retirement planning.
D. substance abuse counseling.
C. retirement planning.
438
A person has just been evaluated by a prospective employer and may now either be
accepted or rejected for a position at the company. This person has just gone through a
__________ process.
A. screening
B. selection
C. classification
D. None of these
B. selection
439
Which of the following interest inventories has MOST to do with occupations that
require 4 or more years of college or graduate school?
A. the Strong Interest Inventory
B. the Career Interest Inventory
C. the Campbell Interest and Skill Survey
D. the Jackson Vocational Interest Survey
C. the Campbell Interest and Skill Survey
440
Which of the following is TRUE of qualitative research?
A. It always involves large numbers of subjects.
B. It allows the psychologist to use statistical analyses of the data obtained.
C. It can lead to the development of new hypotheses.
D. All of these
C. It can lead to the development of new hypotheses.
441
```
Motivation research includes
A. focus groups.
B. individual interviews.
C. Both focus groups and individual interviews.
D. None of these
```
C. Both focus groups and individual interviews.
442
```
Engineering psychologists were probably at work in the design of
A. airplane cockpits.
B. computer keyboards.
C. child car seats.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
443
```
In consumer assessment, survey research can be accomplished by
A. face-to-face interviews.
B. telephone interviews.
C. mail questionnaires.
D. All of these
```
D. All of these
444
```
Perhaps the most widely used form of survey research is
A. the face-to-face personal interview.
B. the telephone interview.
C. the mail questionnaire.
D. the fax questionnaire.
```
B. the telephone interview.
445
```
Which type of survey research provides the opportunity to collect the largest amount of
data in the most economical fashion?
A. the mail survey
B. the telephone survey
C. the personal interview
D. the mall intercept
```
A. the mail survey
446
"Locate products within the framework of an attribute space based on consumer
perceptions of similarities and differences among products." Which approach to scaling is
made reference to in this quote?
A. Likert scaling
B. Guttman scaling
C. Multidimensional scaling
D. Aggregate scaling
C. Multidimensional scaling
447
Which attitude research method involves repeated judgments of a concept against a
series of descriptive bipolar adjectives on a 7-point scale?
A. semantic differential
B. multidimensional scaling
C. aggregate scaling
D. word association
A. semantic differential
448
The following item appears on a paper-and-pencil questionnaire administered at the mall:
Just another facial tissue___/___/__/___/____/___/A very special facial tissue.
The item exemplifies which type of scale?
A. Likert
B. Guttman
C. Osgood semantic differential
D. word association
C. Osgood semantic differential
449
A consumer psychologist creates a survey that includes questions that can only be
answered yes or no (such as "Do you like the new packaging for Wild Berry Cereal?"). The
survey this psychologist has developed could BEST be described as a
A. Likert survey.
B. poll.
C. semantic differential survey.
D. word association survey.
B. poll.
450
A consumer psychologist is working for a drug company that has developed a new
contraception device for men. To assess men's attitudes towards this device, which method of
data gathering would the psychologist be LEAST likely to employ?
A. mail surveys
B. home visit and family discussion
C. online discussion forum
D. focus group with males in the target age range
B. home visit and family discussion
451
```
Which of the following types of survey holds the greatest potential for immediate
feedback?
A. mail
B. face-to-face
C. online
D. telephone
```
C. online
452
Online and telephone surveys have which of the following characteristics in common as
compared to surveys conducted face-to-face?
A. Online and telephone have higher reliability and validity than surveys conducted face-toface.
B. Online and telephone are less cost effective than surveys conducted face-to-face.
C. Online and telephone surveys lack identity verification while those administered face-toface
do not.
D. All of these represent characteristics that online and telephone surveys have in common as
compared to face-to-face interviews.
C. Online and telephone surveys lack identity verification while those administered face-toface
do not.
453
A consumer psychologist must write a report on how young children influence purchase
choices of breakfast cereals geared to young children. What method of information-gathering
would most probably be BEST to learn about this influence process?
A. a mail survey
B. a telephone interview with both parents and children
C. a mall intercept study
D. behavioral observation in a supermarket cereal aisle
D. behavioral observation in a supermarket cereal aisle
454
```
Which type of survey research is MOST susceptible to non-response?
A. the mail survey
B. the telephone survey
C. the personal interview
D. the mall intercept
```
A. the mail survey
455
```
Which type of survey would most probably be BEST for obtaining consumers' responses
to a product demonstration?
A. the mail survey
B. the telephone survey
C. the mall intercept survey
D. the fax survey
```
C. the mall intercept survey
456
A consumer in an auto parts store is asked to complete a survey with regard to a
particular brand of motor oil. The scale used in the survey looks like this:
Like Like Somewhat Neutral Somewhat Dislike Dislike
1 2 3 4 5
Which type of scaling method is being used by this researcher?
A. Likert scaling
B. Guttman scaling
C. Osgood Semantic Differential
D. multidimensional scaling
A. Likert scaling
457
```
The Likert and Guttman scales are examples of which methods of attitude research?
A. aggregate scaling methods
B. multidimensional scaling methods
C. the semantic differential technique
D. disaggregate scaling
```
A. aggregate scaling methods
458
One of the significant ways in which the traditional model of attitudes differs from the
Fishbein model is that
A. the two models define basic terms such as cognition, affect, and overt behavior differently.
B. the traditional model treats attitudes as being composed of only one component (affect)
whereas the Fishbein model conceptualizes attitudes as having three components (cognition,
affect, and behavior).
C. the Fishbein model explicitly recognizes that attitudes may have multiple attributes, while
the traditional model assumes that attitudes have only one attribute.
D. the traditional model is more culturally universal than the Fishbein model.
C. the Fishbein model explicitly recognizes that attitudes may have multiple attributes, while
the traditional model assumes that attitudes have only one attribute.
459
```
Which theory of attitudes makes a clear distinction between "intentions" and "overt
behavior"?
A. traditional
B. Fishbein
C. functional
D. All of these
```
B. Fishbein
460
Which of the following is TRUE of the Fishbein model?
A. "Intentions" mediate between attitudes and overt behavior.
B. "Intentions" are not measured.
C. There is little relationship between "attitude" and "intentions" at the global level.
D. "Intentions" and "attitude" are the same.
A. "Intentions" mediate between attitudes and overt behavior.
461
A major advantage of individual interviews with consumers is that they
A. have potential for verbal as well as nonverbal information.
B. are inexpensive.
C. can be conducted quickly.
D. are usually completed within five minutes or less.
A. have potential for verbal as well as nonverbal information.
462
```
In which of the following scaling methods are statements ordered according to their
relative importance?
A. Guttman scaling
B. Likert scaling
C. multidimensional scaling
D. semantic differential scaling
```
A. Guttman scaling
463
```
Which of the following is the fastest, least expensive, and most efficient method of
survey research?
A. the door-to-door approach
B. the telephone interview
C. the focus group
D. the mail questionnaire
```
B. the telephone interview
464
To monitor what really prompts consumers to purchase a particular product at the "point
of choice," the market researcher should use which of the following?
A. direct observation
B. focus groups
C. in-depth interviews
D. phone interviews
A. direct observation
465
Which of the following research methods is best in terms of providing information useful
in making inferences about cause-and-effect relationships in consumer psychology?
A. a focus group
B. an experimental design
C. behavioral observation
D. brain wave research
B. an experimental design
466
```
Focus groups usually consist of how many participants?
A. 2 to 5
B. 6 to 12
C. 13 to 20
D. 21 to 30
```
B. 6 to 12
467
Consumer psychologists often choose surveys and polls over other measurement
methods because
A. they can analyze motives with respect to consumer behavior and attitudes.
B. they can determine whether a rise in sales is due to effective advertising.
C. they can examine in depth a group of consumer reactions.
D. they can gain information about opinions of large numbers of people.
D. they can gain information about opinions of large numbers of people.
468
Which of the following is TRUE of a focus group?
A. The participants are randomly selected.
B. A free-flowing discussion is avoided.
C. The group consists of 20-25 participants.
D. A trained moderator leads the group.
D. A trained moderator leads the group.
469
The concept of the "BASIC IDS" applies to
A. experimental research investigating clinical mental health issues.
B. dimensional qualitative research.
C. non-dimensional qualitative research.
D. experimental research investigating consumer behavior.
B. dimensional qualitative research.
470
A disadvantage of focus groups as compared to other tools in the assessment of
consumer behavior is the
A. lower reliability of focus groups.
B. limited applicability of focus groups in consumer research.
C. open-ended nature of focus groups.
D. lack of in-depth information that results from focus groups.
A. lower reliability of focus groups.
471
```
An interview that involves considerable probing of an individual consumer's beliefs and
attitudes is called:
A. a depth interview.
B. an attitude survey.
C. a face-to-face interview.
D. a focal interview.
```
A. a depth interview.
472
A consumer psychologist may choose to use a one-on-one interview because
A. it produces data that are quantifiable.
B. it provides a detailed source of information.
C. it is the most time- and cost-effective approach.
D. it consists of only structured questions.
B. it provides a detailed source of information.
473
```
The term "RIASEC" is BEST associated with the
A. Strong.
B. Wonderlic.
C. Holland.
D. Dutch.
```
C. Holland.
474
The Dean of the DeSade School of Dentistry has called you for a consultation. The Dean
wants to know which individually administered tests should be administered to candidates for
a seat at the school. Of the following tests, which is BEST for use in screening prospective
dental students?
A. the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. the in-basket technique
C. Champagne's Study of Values
D. the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test
D. the O'Connor Tweezer Dexterity Test
475
```
The test we now refer to as the "Strong Interest Inventory" was, in its original edition,
known as the
A. Strong Volitional Interest Bank.
B. Strong Vocational Interest Blank.
C. Strong Vocational Interest Inventory.
D. Mighty Interest Inventory.
```
B. Strong Vocational Interest Blank.
476
Who can take the GATB?
A. most anyone of working age who is contemplating military service
B. most anyone of working age who is contemplating government service
C. most anyone of working age who is looking for a job
D. most anyone with a documented disability who is seeking employment
D. most anyone with a documented disability who is seeking employment
477
On the GATB, about one-half of the items can be characterized as
A. psychomotor in nature.
B. pencil-and-paper in nature.
C. analogue in nature.
D. Both psychomotor in nature and pencil-and-paper in nature.
C. analogue in nature.
478
The GATB differs from the SATB in that the SATB
A. contains more science-oriented items.
B. contains more items tapping arithmetic skills.
C. is used to measure aptitude for a specific line of work.
D. Both contains more science-oriented items and contains more items tapping arithmetic
skills.
C. is used to measure aptitude for a specific line of work.
479
The forced distribution technique is
A. a marketing strategy devised by consumer psychologists.
B. a way of ranking employees in a workplace.
C. a method designed to make scores more culture-fair.
D. None of these
B. a way of ranking employees in a workplace.
480
A new worker has just completed Day 1 on the job. When will monthly supervisory
ratings BEST reflect this worker's performance?
A. 1 month from now
B. 2 months from now
C. 3 months from now
D. about 29 days from now
C. 3 months from now
481
A difference between Maslow's theory of motivation and Alderfer's theory of motivation
is that in Alderfer's theory
A. needs are not hierarchical in nature.
B. once a need is satisfied, the organism may strive to satisfy it to an even greater degree.
C. frustrating one need may lead to channeling of energy into the satisfaction of another need
at another level.
D. All of these
D. All of these
482
Researchers evaluating the validity of the Implicit Attitude Test (IAT) find, using the
IAT, that members of the Lindsey Lohan Fan Club have more favorable attitudes toward her
than nonmembers of the fan club. This type of research design is BEST referred to as
A. a Latin Squares design.
B. a Thurstone-type design.
C. an equal intervals design.
D. a known groups design.
D. a known groups design.
483
The BEST shorthand description of the term implicit attitude is
A. a conscious disposition to act in a particular way.
B. an association in memory that is not conscious.
C. a feeling or intuition that one gets occasionally.
D. a reaction to frustration.
B. an association in memory that is not conscious.
484
```
The Implicit Attitude Test (IAT) could BEST be described as a series of
A. measures of physiological arousal.
B. memory tasks that uses flash cards.
C. computerized sorting tasks.
D. word association stimuli.
```
C. computerized sorting tasks.
485
A film producer seeks to hire an experienced special effects director. Which variety of
assessment would most likely best suit this purpose?
A. authentic assessment
B. actuarial assessment
C. portfolio assessment
D. dynamic assessment
C. portfolio assessment
486
```
Ideally, a resume should
A. be constructed in APA style.
B. contain a listing of references.
C. be as unique as its writer.
D. include mention of shortcomings.
```
C. be as unique as its writer.
487
```
"RIASEC" is an abbreviation for
A. the Big 6.
B. a popular integrity measure.
C. Dr. Sec's consulting firm.
D. a type of corporate culture.
```
A. the Big 6.
488
```
A difference between selection and classification is that in classification, personnel are
A. accepted or rejected.
B. pigeon-holed.
C. subjected to screening.
D. stereotyped.
```
B. pigeon-holed.
489
In the book, Choosing the Right Stuff: The Psychological Selection of Astronauts and
Cosmonauts, the author
A. recounted the mistakes made in selecting Lisa Nowack for the astronaut program.
B. presented research on new MMPI scales that could be used to select astronauts.
C. argued that NASA should give more weight to psychological factors in selection.
D. urged NASA to consider using more mental health professionals as astronauts.
C. argued that NASA should give more weight to psychological factors in selection.
490
```
The AT&T Management Progress Study was the first large scale study to use which of
the following?
A. drug testing
B. implicit measures
C. assessment center
D. dimensional qualitative research
```
C. assessment center
491
The GCMS
A. is used to test for drugs in the urine.
B. was first employed in the AT&T Management Progress Study.
C. was developed by Heshy Goodenough.
D. All of these
A. is used to test for drugs in the urine.
492
```
A large corporation wishes to measure the productivity of its employees. Which of the
following is LEAST likely to be used?
A. semantic differential technique.
B. forced distribution technique.
C. critical incidents technique.
D. peer appraisal technique.
```
A. semantic differential technique.
493
Juan chooses a career as an elementary school teacher because he wants to play a
meaningful role in the lives of developing children. Esmerelda chooses a career as an
elementary school teacher because of the good pay and the fact that she has her summer off.
Which is MOST likely TRUE?
A. Juan exhibited extrinsic motivation and Esmerelda exhibited intrinsic motivation.
B. Esmerelda exhibited extrinsic motivation, and Juan exhibited intrinsic motivation.
C. The deciding factor in both decisions was probably the actual location of the school to
which they were assigned.
D. Juan will most likely experience burnout before Esmerelda does.
B. Esmerelda exhibited extrinsic motivation, and Juan exhibited intrinsic motivation.
494
Burnout has been shown to be
A. predictive of the frequency and duration of sick leave.
B. significantly evident in postal workers on the job for ten years or more.
C. negatively correlated with insomnia.
D. All of these
A. predictive of the frequency and duration of sick leave.
495
A widely used measure of organizational commitment is the Organizational
Commitment Questionnaire. But as noted in your textbook, questions have been raised
regarding this instrument's
A. test-retest reliability.
B. construct validity.
C. face validity.
D. split-half reliability.
B. construct validity.
496
Mention was made in Chapter 15 of a burgeoning number of studies involving the
measurement of implicit attitudes, including one such study that had as its subject
A. Anthony Weiner.
B. Lindsay Lohan.
C. Benedict Arnold.
D. Barack Obama.
D. Barack Obama.
497
Research has suggested that online survey methods may be particularly useful for
learning about health-related behaviors that are known to
A. negatively impact on one's personal health.
B. positively impact on one's personal health.
C. increase health insurance premiums.
D. decrease health insurance premiums.
A. negatively impact on one's personal health.
498
Individual interviews and focus groups are two examples of
A. productivity evaluation methods.
B. methods used to increase diversity in the workplace.
C. motivational research methods.
D. techniques employed to measure burnout.
C. motivational research methods.
499
```
In October, 2011, the scholarly journal Psychology & Marketing devoted a special issue
to the topic of
A. implicit measures.
B. portfolio assessment.
C. personality and work performance.
D. dimensional qualitative research.
```
D. dimensional qualitative research.
500
```
The photo in Chapter 15 of your textbook that featured a group of psychologists using
Tinkertoy parts was an illustration of
A. authentic assessment.
B. performance assessment.
C. virtual assessment.
D. curriculum-based measurement.
```
B. performance assessment.
501
In the original Management Progress Study, the dimensions referred to as tolerance for
uncertainty and resistance to stress were grouped under
A. administrative skills.
B. cognitive skills.
C. stability of performance.
D. career orientation.
C. stability of performance.
502
Used together, the terms Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and
Conventional are perhaps BEST known as the
A. big six.
B. golden rules of employee selection.
C. six steps of corporate advancement.
D. magnificent seven less one.
A. big six.
503
Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional are categories of
personality types that are measured by the
A. NEO-PI-R.
B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator.
C. Maslow Hierarchy of Needs Inventory.
D. Self-Directed Search.
D. Self-Directed Search.
504
From the perspective of an employer, psychological assessment tools can provide
assistance in
A. personnel selection.
B. placement of employees in job assignments.
C. screening of new applicants for positions.
D. All of these
D. All of these
