Final :D Flashcards
(158 cards)
1
Q
Centrifuging an uncapped tube of urin is most likely to produce what?
A
Aerosal
2
Q
Average daily amount of urine produced by a normal adult is?
A
1200 mL
3
Q
Oliguria
A
Decrease in urine
4
Q
Anuria
A
Absence of urine
5
Q
Nocturia
A
Increase in night time urine
6
Q
Polyuria
A
Increase in day time urine
7
Q
True or False : Urine specimens should be tested within 2 hours of collection if left at room temp.
A
True
8
Q
True or False: Kidneys form urine as an ultrafiltrate of plasma.
A
True
9
Q
Four routine screening and bacteria cultures, the best type of specimen collection is?
A
Midstream clean-catch
10
Q
The most sterile specimen collection method is
A
Suprapubic aspiration
11
Q
The approximate number of nephrons contained in each kidney is
A
1,000,000
12
Q
Order of blood flow through a nephron is?
A
Afferent arteriole, efferent article, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta
13
Q
Total renal blood flow
A
1200 mL/min
14
Q
Total renal plasma flow
A
600 mL/min
15
Q
Increased production of aldosterone causes
A
Increased plasma sodium levels
16
Q
For active transport to occur a substance must..
A
Combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy
17
Q
Results for glomerular filtration tests are reported in…
A
milliliters per minute
18
Q
True or False. Juxtamedullary nephrons primary function is the concentration of urine.
A
True
19
Q
True or False. Nephron is the non-functional unit of the kidney.
A
False
20
Q
True or False. 65% of nephrons are in the kidneys cortex.
A
False
21
Q
The pigment causing the yellow color of urine that can provide an estimate of body hydration is?
A
Urochrome
22
Q
The reason a urine is amber and produces a yellow foam when shaken is due to the presence of?
A
Bilirubin
23
Q
What is the most common cause of a red urine?
A
Red blood cells
24
Q
A reason for blue/green urine is?
A
Pseudomonas infection
25
Clear
No visible particles
26
Hazy
Few particulates
27
Cloudy
Many particulates
28
Turbid
Cannot see through
29
Milky
Clotted
30
Normal range for specific gravity
1.003 - 1.035
31
A refractometer can be used to determine a urines specific gravity by?
Measuring the velocity of light in air versus velocity of light in a solution
32
What is used as the calibration liquid on a refractometer?
Distilled water
33
Specific gravity depends on the number of particles present in a solution and the density of these particles, where osmolality is affected by?
Only the number of particles present
34
Osmolality of a solution can be determined by measuring a property that is mathematically related to the number of particles in the solution, this is known as the?
Colligative property
35
Ammonia-like urine smell
Bacterial composition, UTI
36
Fruity, sweet urine smell
Ketones
37
Maple syrup smell in urine
Maple syrup disease
38
Mousy urine smell
Phenylketonuria
39
Bleach urine smell
Contamination
40
Bence jones protein are seen in urines of patients with?
Multiple myeloma
41
Prerenal proteinuria
Conditions affecting the plasma, not the kidney
42
Renal proteinuria
Glomerular or tubular damage
43
Orthostatic proteinuria
Increased pressure on the renal vein when in the vertical position
44
Tubular proteinuria
Tubular damage affecting reabsorptive ability
45
Postrenal proteinuria
Protein added in lower urinary and genitourinary tract
46
What test is for pH on reagent strip
Double-indicator system reaction (methyl red; bromthymol blue)
47
Glucose test on reagent strip
Glucose oxidase reaction
48
Ketone test on reagent strip
Sodium nitroprusside
49
Blood test on reagent strip
Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
50
Bilirubin test on reagent strip
Diazo reaction
51
Nitrite test on reagent strip
Greiss reaction
52
What reagent strip reaction requires the longest reaction time prior to interpreting the results?
Leukocyte esterase
53
Urine protein additional/confirmatory test
Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) precipitation
54
Urine glucose additional/confirmation test
Copper reduction test (clinitest)
55
Ketone additional/confirmation test
Acetest
56
Bilirubin additional/confirmation test
Icotest
57
Bilirubin results in bile duct obstruction
Increased bilirubin with normal urobilinogen
58
Bilirubin result in liver damage
Negative or low bilirubin; increased urobilinogen
59
Bilirubin result in hemolytic disease
Negative bilirubin; increased urobilinogen
60
The recommended centrifugation setting for preparation of urine sediment is?
400 RCF for 5 minutes
61
A lipid droplet that doesn't stain with Sudan III may be composed of?
Cholesterol
62
A urine specimen is referred to cytodiagnostic urine testing to detect the presence of?
Malignant cells
63
To standardize the sediment concentration for microscopic analysis one must:
Use only the urine tubes and pipettes for a single commercial system
64
The purpose of scanning the perimeter of urine sediment placed under a conventional glass slide is to:
Detect the presence of casts
65
Using polarized microscopy, which of the following is/are birefringent?
Cholesterol
66
ID of oval fat bodies can be verified using?
Polarized light
67
To detect the presence of casts, the sediment is examined using
Reduced light under low power
68
Glitter cell is a term used to describe a specific type of?
Neutrophil
69
An increase in urinary WBCs is called?
Pyelonephritis
70
Urine sediments containing increased WBCs should be observed closely for the presence of?
Bacteria
71
Eosinophils are found in urine in cases of?
Acute interstitial nephritis
72
Oval fat bodies are
Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
73
Clue cells are derived from
squamous epithelial cells
74
The organisms attached to a clue cell are
Gardnerella vaginalis
75
Transitional cells routinely occur in what three shapes
Spherical, polyhedral, and caudate
76
Which of the following cells found in increased numbers in the urine sediment is only indicative of renal tubular necrosis?
Renal tubular cells
77
Collection of a midstream clean-catch specimen will alleviate contamination by
Squamous epithelial cells
78
Spherical transitional epithelial cells can be differentiated from renal tubular epithelial cells by observing the:
Centrally located nucleus in transitional cells
79
The primary factor that favors the formation of urinary casts is
Urinary stasis
80
The major constituent of urinary casts is
uromodulin protein
81
Sediment constituents that are used to differentiate between upper and lower urinary tract infections are
WBC casts
82
The type of cast most closely associated with tubular damage is the
RTE cell cast
83
The only type of cast capable of polarization is the
Fatty cast
84
The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be the result of?
Recent strenuous exercise
85
Waxy casts can be found in the urine sediment
In patients with renal failure
86
To distinguish a cellular cast from a clump of cells, the clinical lab scientist should
Look carefully for a cast matrix
87
ID of urinary crystals is based on shape, solubility, and ?
Urine pH
88
Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in acidic urine include:
Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous urates
89
What crystals occur in two very distinct forms?
Calcium oxalate
90
Nonpathogenic or "normal" crystals found in alkaline urine include:
Triple phosphate, calcium carbonate, and ammonium biurate
91
Crystals found in the urine that are associated with pathogenic disease include?
Leucine or tyrosine
92
What crystal is associated with ethylene glycol ingestion?
Calcium oxalate monohydrate
93
The significance of seeing bacteria in the urine sediment is increased when
WBCs are present
94
Motility by what is the most noticeable during the urine sediment examination
Trichomonas vaginalis
95
Stains oval fat bodies?
Sudan III
96
What does ammonia biurate look like
Thorny apple
97
What does calcium carbonate look like
Dumbell
98
What does triple phosphate look like
Coffin lid
99
What does cystine look like
Hexagonal
100
What does cholesterol look like
Notched corners
101
Most glomerular disorders are caused by
immunologic disorders
102
Occasional episodes of macroscopic hematuria over periods of 20 or more years are seen with
IgA nephropathy
103
An inherited disorder producing a generalized defect in tubular reabsorption is
Fanconi syndrome
104
A teenage boy who develops gout in his big toe and has a high serum uric acid should be monitored for
Uromodulin-assoicated kidney disease
105
The only protein produced by the kidney is
Uromodulin
106
Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of
WBC casts
107
End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the following except
Hypersthenuria
108
The most common composition of renal calculi is
calcium oxalate
109
All states require newborn testing for PKU for early
modifications of diet
110
The best specimen for early newborn screening is a
Blood specimen
111
An overflow disorder that could produce a false-positive reaction with clinitest procedure is
Alkaptonuria
112
Hartnup disease is a disorder associated with the metabolism of
Tryptophan
113
Blue diaper syndrome is associated with
Hartnup disease
114
The classic urine color associated with porphyria is
Port wine
115
Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting the metabolism of
Mucopolysaccharides
116
Many uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine specimen may indicate
Lesch-Nyhan disease
117
CSF is formed in the _______ and reabsorbed by the?
Choroid plexus and arachnoid granulations
118
CSF flows through the ________ space.
Subarachnoid
119
Order of CSF tubes are collected
Chemistry, Microbiology, Hematology
120
What type of centrifuge process is used on CSF specimens for differential counts and gram stains
Cytocentrifuge
121
What can be added in the well of the cytocentrifuge device with the CSF to increase the cell yield and decrease cellular distortion
Albumin
122
What is normal adult ratio for lymphs and monos in CSF fluid
70:30
123
Increased amounts of normal cells in CSF is termed
Pleocytosis
124
What type of cells are seen in CSF that have a major clinical significance of Multiple Sclerosis
Plasma cells
125
What is the most common chemistry test ran on CSF
Protein
126
What type of protein is measured to monitor the course and effectiveness of treatment of multiple sclerosis
Myelin Basic
127
Reference values for CSF glucose are approximately what percentage of plasma glucose
60-70 %
128
CSF glucose values are of most significance when
They are decreased relative to plasma values
129
The needle aspiration of synovial fluid is called
Arthrocentesis
130
CLear/pale yellow synovial fluid is
Normal
131
Deep/dark yellow synovial fluid is
Noninflammatory and flammatory
132
Green tinged synovial fluid
Infection
133
Red synovial fluids
Hemorrhagic or traumatic tap
134
Milk synovial fluid is
Crystal induced
135
Turbid synovial fluid is
WBCS or cellular debris
136
Most frequent chemistry test ran on synovial fluid is
Glucose
137
The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is termed a/an
effusion
138
What is most often associated with the formation of a transudate
Congestive heart failure
139
The function of serous fluid is to
Provide lubrication for serous membranes
140
Peritoneal lavage is performed to
Detect intra-abdominal bleeding
141
A pleural fluid is received in the lab, its appearance is milky. The milky appearance could be due to which of the following conditions
Thoracic duct leakage
142
A pericardial fluid is received in the lab, its appearance is blood streaked, This is likely due to?
Infection, malignancy
143
Semen analysis on post vasectomy patients should be performed
Until two consecutive monthly specimens show no sperm
144
Absence of normal sperm acrosome can
Affect ovum penetration
145
Yellow color in a semen specimen may be caused by
Urine, medications, and prolonged abstinence
146
Development of male antiserum antibodies can be caused by
Vasevasostomy, infection, trauma
147
Abnormal sperm tail morphology includes
double tails, bent tails, coiled tails
148
Polyhydramnios
Fluid levels >1200 mL
149
Oligohydramnios
Fluid level <800 mL
150
The sloughed fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid is used for
Cytogenetic analysis
151
Zone I
Miley affected fetus
152
Zone II
Requires careful monitoring
153
Zone III
Severely affected fetus
154
Stools from persons with steatorrhea contain excess amounts of
Fat
155
A black, tarry looking stool is indicative of
Upper GI bleeding
156
The purpose of Lactoferrin Latex Agglutination test is to detect the presence of
Hemoglobin from RBCs
157
The purpose of the Occult Blood test is to detect the presence of
RBCs not visible in specimen
158
A flintiest may be performed on an infants fecal sample to determine
Carbohydrates cause and bacterial/viral caused diarrhea
