Final Exam Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
In information systems development projects, _________ would be (an) example(s) of capital resources.
A. the development platform
B. the technological platform the software resides on
C. both the development platform and the technical platform the software resides on
D. the project manager
E. utility computing
A
C. both the development platform and the technical platform the software resides on
2
Q
Project risk is an uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs has a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ effect on a project objective. A. positive B. negative C. devastating D. detrimental E. positive or negative
A
E. positive or negative
3
Q
Before initiation, risk most often occurs in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ stage. A. project selection B. project initiation C. project integration D. project evaluation E. project assessment
A
A. project selection
4
Q
Which of the following is NOT among the types of risk specifically associated with IS projects?
A. Ongoing changes in technology
B. Finding and assigning skilled personnel
C. Gaining user acceptance
D. Large effects following small changes in scope
E. Finishing on time and on budget
A
E. Finishing on time and on budget
5
Q
Which of the following is NOT a risk management process as identified by the PMBOK guide? A. Plan risk management B. Identify risks C. Plan risk responses D. Mitigate risks E. Monitor risks
A
D. Mitigate risks
6
Q
The systematic approach to planning the risk management activities of a given project is called: A. Plan risk management B. Identify risks C. Plan risk responses D. Mitigate risks E. Monitor risks
A
A. Plan risk management
7
Q
Risk management \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are used to provide organizational standards for project risk management. A. matrices B. schedules C. templates D. plans
A
C. templates
8
Q
The overall plan used to outline risks and the strategies used to manage them is called: A. risk outline. B. risk baseline. C. risk management plan. D. risk response plan. E. risk plan.
A
C. risk management plan.
9
Q
The process of identifying risks to a project and documenting them is called: A. identify risks. B. manage risks. C. assess risks. D. document risks. E. evaluate risks.
A
A. identify risks.
10
Q
The formal record listing all project risks, explaining the nature of the risk, and management of the risk is called: A. risk record. B. risk list. C. risk register. D. risk file. E. risk management matrix
A
C. risk register.
11
Q
Changing industry standards are an example of: A. technical risks. B. quality or performance risks. C. project management risks. D. organizational risks. E. external risks.
A
B. quality or performance risks.
12
Q
Poor project planning is an example of: A. technical risks. B. quality or performance risks. C. project management risks. D. organizational risks. E. external risks.
A
C. project management risks.
13
Q
Reliance on new, unproven, or unreliable technology is an example of: A. technical risks. B. quality or performance risks. C. project management risks. D. organizational risks. E. external risks.
A
A. technical risks.
14
Q
Inconsistent goals are an example of: A. technical risks. B. quality or performance risks. C. project management risks. D. organizational risks. E. external risks.
A
D. organizational risks.
15
Q
Legal events are an example of: A. technical risks. B. quality or performance risks. C. project management risks. D. organizational risks. E. external risks.
A
E. external risks.
16
Q
The review of organizational information to aid during risk identification is called: A. risk review. B. document analysis. C. risk identification audit. D. project file review. E. reviews of published information.
A
B. document analysis.
17
Q
Which of the following NOT among the techniques commonly used during risk identification? A. Brainstorming. B. SWOT analysis. C. Interviews. D. Checklists. E. Stakeholder analysis.
A
E. Stakeholder analysis.
18
Q
Data analysis tools commonly used during risk identification include all EXCEPT: A. Root cause analysis. B. Assumption and constraint analysis. C. SWOT analysis. D. Value chain analysis. E. Document analysis.
A
D. Value chain analysis.
19
Q
Events that serve as early warnings of risk are called: A. warnings. B. risk advisories. C. triggers. D. actuators. E. prompts.
A
C. triggers.
20
Q
________ is the evaluation of the potential impact and likelihood of specific risk occurrence.
A. Perform quantitative risk analysis
B. Perform qualitative risk analysis
C. Probability/impact risk rating matrix
D. Impact/likelihood risk rating matrix
E. Perform assumption and constraint analysis
A
B. Perform qualitative risk analysis
21
Q
Risk \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is concerned with the likelihood that a certain risk will occur. A. likelihood B. impact C. probability D. strength E. severity
A
C. probability
22
Q
Risk \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is concerned with the consequences of the occurrence of a certain risk. A. likelihood B. impact C. probability D. strength E. severity
A
B. impact
23
Q
________ is a technique used to analyze project risk in terms of its probability of occurrence and its impact on project outcomes.
A. Perform quantitative risk analysis
B. Perform qualitative risk analysis
C. Probability/impact risk rating matrix
D. Impact/likelihood risk rating matrix
E. Perform assumption and constraint analysis
A
C. Probability/impact risk rating matrix
24
Q
The assessment of the quality of the data used to assess risk is called: A. risk data quality assessment. B. project assumption testing. C. risk assessment data testing. D. risk data precision estimation. E. risk data assessment.
A
A. risk data quality assessment.
25
```
A technique used during qualitative risk analysis to test the assumptions made during risk identification is called:
A. risk assumption testing.
B. risk quality assessment.
C. project quality testing.
D. project assumption testing.
E. qualitative risk assessment.
```
D. project assumption testing.
26
________ is the analysis of the probability of occurrence and the impact of risk on project objectives using numerical techniques.
A. Perform quantitative risk analysis
B. Perform qualitative risk analysis
C. Probability/impact risk rating matrix
D. Impact/likelihood risk rating matrix
E. Perform assumption and constraint analysis
A. Perform quantitative risk analysis
27
Which of the following is NOT a decision technique used during quantitative risk analysis?
A. Risk quantification in terms of additional scheduling and cost needs
B. Identifying the most salient risk in terms of the project
C. Setting realistic targets in terms of scope, cost, and schedule
D. Assessing the likelihood of realizing a specific project objective
E. Identifying the most problematic project requirements in terms of scope
E. Identifying the most problematic project requirements in terms of scope
28
```
Tornado analysis is a form of:
A. sensitivity analysis.
B. simulation.
C. EMV analysis.
D. graphical analysis.
E. risk analysis.
```
A. sensitivity analysis.
29
```
________ is a technique to examine the potential impact of specific risks to a project.
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Decision tree analysis
C. Impact analysis
D. Risk analysis
E. Simulation
```
A. Sensitivity analysis
30
```
________ is a statistical technique that captures the average value of potential projects by analyzing the likelihood of possible project outcomes as well as each outcome’s financial consequences.
A. Simulation
B. EMV analysis
C. Tornado analysis
D. Decision tree analysis
E. Likelihood/consequence analysis
```
B. EMV analysis
31
```
________ is a diagramming technique used to evaluate courses of action in terms of their potential cost and benefits relative to other courses of action.
A. Simulation
B. EMV analysis
C. Tornado analysis
D. Decision tree analysis
E. Hierarchical risk analysis
```
D. Decision tree analysis
32
```
________ is a technique used to perform what-if analyses to determine the impact of a given situation on a project objective.
A. Simulation
B. EMV analysis
C. Tornado analysis
D. Decision tree analysis
E. Game theory
```
A. Simulation
33
```
The most well-known simulation technique is called:
A. Monaco analysis.
B. Monte Carlo analysis.
C. Venetian analysis.
D. Bellagio analysis.
E. Game theory.
```
B. Monte Carlo analysis.
34
```
The process of developing methods for responding to project risks is called:
A. Plan risk mitigation.
B. Plan risk management.
C. Plan risk responses.
D. Plan risk reactions.
E. Plan risk monitoring.
```
C. Plan risk responses.
35
```
Project team members responsible for specific risk activity decisions are called:
A. risk owners.
B. risk managers.
C. risk holders.
D. risk deciders.
E. risk mitigators.
```
A. risk owners.
36
```
________ is a risk response strategy designed to avoid potential project risks.
A. Risk mitigation
B. Risk transference
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk avoidance
E. Risk escalation
```
D. Risk avoidance
37
```
________ is a risk response strategy designed to transfer risk to another party, often through the use of contracts.
A. Risk mitigation
B. Risk transference
C. Risk related contractual agreements
D. Risk removal
E. Risk escalation
```
B. Risk transference
38
```
________ is a risk response strategy in which steps are taken to mitigate risks.
A. Risk mitigation
B. Risk minimization
C. Risk reduction
D. Risk avoidance
E. Risk escalation
```
A. Risk mitigation
39
```
________ is a risk response strategy in which risks are simply accepted and contingency strategies are planned.
A. Risk adoption
B. Risk response
C. Risk contingency planning.
D. Risk acceptance
E. Risk escalation
```
D. Risk acceptance
40
```
________ is a risk response strategy that involves assigning the response to a higher organizational level if the threat is beyond the authority of the project manager.
A. Risk adoption
B. Risk response
C. Risk contingency planning.
D. Risk acceptance
E. Risk escalation
```
E. Risk escalation
41
```
A ________ is a documented plan for risk response.
A. risk document
B. risk register
C. risk response plan
D. risk response register
E. risk management plan
```
C. risk response plan
42
All of the following are elements of a risk response plan EXCEPT:
A. the roles and responsibilities of any risk owners.
B. a list of actions to be used to implement the risk response strategies.
C. budget and schedule information in terms of risk response.
D. the roles and responsibilities of project stakeholders.
E. any contingency plans used as part of an active response to accept risks.
D. the roles and responsibilities of project stakeholders.
43
```
________ are risks that remain after avoidance, transfer, or mitigation strategies have been applied.
A. Remaining risks
B. Residual risks
C. Enduring risks
D. Outstanding risks
E. Secondary risks
```
B. Residual risks
44
```
________ are risks resulting from the application of a risk response strategy.
A. Resulting risks
B. Residual risks
C. Resultant risks
D. Derived risks
E. Secondary risks
```
E. Secondary risks
45
```
________ risks is the process of monitoring identified risks for change and controlling those changes.
A. Monitor
B. Control
C. Assess
D. Manage
E. Evaluate
```
A. Monitor
46
```
_________ are designed to evaluate the effectiveness of risk response strategies and risk owners.
A. Periodic project risk reviews
B. Periodic risk assessments
C. Project risk assessments
D. Project risk response audits
E. Technical risk performance audits
```
D. Project risk response audits
47
```
________ are designed to review existing risk activities and to monitor any changes to the project.
A. Periodic project risk reviews
B. Periodic risk assessments
C. Project risk assessments
D. Project risk response audits
E. Technical risk performance audits
```
A. Periodic project risk reviews
48
```
________ is a tool used to determine whether important technical milestones are being met.
A. Technical performance review
B. Technical milestone measurement
C. Technical performance measurement
D. Technical milestone review
E. Technical risk performance audits
```
C. Technical performance measurement
49
All of the following are types of examples of organizations from which software or its components can be procured EXCEPT:
A. IT services firms.
B. packaged software providers.
C. hardware companies.
D. Software-as-a-Service providers.
E. enterprise solutions software providers.
C. hardware companies.
50
________ help companies develop custom information systems for internal use, or they develop, host, and run applications for customers.
A. Packaged software providers
B. Vendors of enterprise-wide solution software
C. Software-as-a-Service providers
D. IT services firms
E. IT departments
D. IT services firms
51
```
Off-the-shelf software systems that cannot be modified to meet specific needs are called:
A. off-the shelf systems.
B. generic systems.
C. turnkey systems.
D. ready-to-go systems.
E. closed-source systems.
```
C. turnkey systems.
52
```
A(n) ________ system is a system that integrates individual traditional business functions into a series of modules so that a single transaction occurs seamlessly within a single information system rather than several separate systems.
A. MRP
B. MRP II
C. ERP
D. SAP
E. OS
```
C. ERP
53
```
Using different software products from different sources (including in house development) to capitalize on the strengths of different products is referred to as:
A. benchmarking.
B. best-of-breed strategy.
C. satisficing.
D. compromising.
E. a mashup.
101.
```
B. best-of-breed strategy.
54
```
Software-as-a-Service uses a(n) ________ model.
A. utility computing
B. autonomous computing
C. application service provider
D. pay-by-the-data
E. pay-by-the-hour
```
A. utility computing
55
Open source software is different than other types of software because:
A. it is always free.
B. the source code is freely available.
C. it is developed by employees of a particular company.
D. it is only available for a narrow set of functions.
E. it is normally not very reliable.
B. the source code is freely available.
56
```
When the task requires custom support, companies should turn to:
A. enterprise-wide solutions
B. open source software
C. packaged software producers
D. IT services firms
E. hardware vendors
```
D. IT services firms
57
```
When the supported task is generic, companies should turn to:
A. enterprise-wide solutions
B. open source software
C. packaged software producers
D. IT services firms
E. hardware vendors
```
C. packaged software producers
58
```
For complete systems that cross functional boundaries, companies should turn to:
A. enterprise-wide solutions
B. open source software
C. packaged software producers
D. IT services firms
E. hardware vendors
```
A. enterprise-wide solutions
59
```
When the supported task is generic, but cost is an issue, companies should turn to:
A. enterprise-wide solutions
B. open source software
C. packaged software producers
D. IT services firms
E. hardware vendors
```
B. open source software
60
```
The procurement of products and/or services from an outside vendor is called:
A. offshoring.
B. outsourcing.
C. procurement.
D. external acquisition.
E. open sourcing.
```
D. external acquisition.
61
```
How many processes does the project procurement management knowledge area include?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
E. Seven
```
A. Three
62
```
Which of the following is a process in the project procurement management knowledge area?
A. Plan procurement management
B. Manage contracts
C. Administer contracts
D. Plan contracting
E. Conduct contracting
```
A. Plan procurement management
63
```
Plan procurement management is part of the ________ process group.
A. initiation
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling
E. closing
```
B. planning
64
```
Conduct procurements is part of the ________ process group.
A. initiation
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling
E. closing
```
C. executing
65
```
Control procurements is part of the ________ process group.
A. initiation
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling
E. closing
```
D. monitoring and controlling
66
```
The process ________ involves determining which project needs can best be met by external acquisition and planning how procurement activities are performed.
A. plan procurement management
B. plan contracting
C. purchase and acquisition planning
D. planning purchases and acquisitions
E. planning external acquisitions
```
A. plan procurement management
67
```
Which of the following is NOT another name for an RFP?
A. Invitation to bid
B. Request for quotation
C. Invitation for negotiation
D. Tender notice
E. Request for acquisition
```
E. Request for acquisition
68
```
The key technique used in procurement planning is:
A. decision tree analysis.
B. cost/benefit analysis.
C. risk analysis.
D. make-or-buy analysis.
E. procurement audit.
```
D. make-or-buy analysis.
69
```
A contract type in which the supplier is bound to the price of the contract is called:
A. cost-reimbursable contract.
B. time and materials contract.
C. incentive-based contract.
D. fixed price contract.
E. cost-plus contract.
```
D. fixed price contract.
70
Under a cost-reimbursable contract:
A. indirect costs are treated on a fixed-price basis.
B. direct costs are typically less.
C. direct costs are typically billed as a percentage of indirect costs.
D. indirect costs are typically billed as a percentage of direct costs.
E. indirect costs are billed on an actual cost basis.
D. indirect costs are typically billed as a percentage of direct costs.
71
```
A contract type that involves payment for the actual cost of the product plus a fee that represents the vendor’s profits is called:
A. cost-reimbursable contract.
B. time and materials contract.
C. incentive-based contract.
D. fixed price contract.
E. capped T&M contract.
```
A. cost-reimbursable contract.
72
```
Under a ________, vendors provide an hourly rate, and an estimate about the time and material needed.
A. cost-reimbursable contract
B. time and materials contract
C. incentive-based contract
D. fixed-price contract
E. cost-plus contract
```
B. time and materials contract
73
```
Only when the requirements are sufficiently detailed, suppliers feel comfortable using a:
A. cost-reimbursable contract.
B. time and materials contract.
C. incentive-based contract.
D. fixed price contract.
E. cost-plus contract
```
D. fixed price contract.
74
```
For a ________, it is often recommended that contract requirements specify review points and progress assessments.
A. cost-reimbursable contract.
B. time and materials contract.
C. incentive-based contract.
D. fixed price contract.
E. cost-plus contract.
```
B. time and materials contract.
75
```
________ costs are those incurred by the vendor in the provision of the product or service.
A. Actual
B. Fixed
C. Direct
D. Indirect
E. Variable
```
C. Direct
76
```
________ costs are part of the vendor’s cost of doing business.
A. Actual
B. Fixed
C. Direct
D. Indirect
E. Variable
```
D. Indirect
77
```
________ costs is another term for overhead costs.
A. Actual
B. Fixed
C. Direct
D. Indirect
E. Variable
```
D. Indirect
78
```
A(n) ________ addresses such issues as how multiple vendors will be managed, where standardized procurement documents can be obtained, and so on.
A. statement of work
B. procurement management plan
C. acquisition management plan
D. purchase management plan
E. request for proposals
```
B. procurement management plan
79
```
A(n) ________ is a document prepared for potential vendors that describes the service or product being sought.
A. SOW
B. SAP
C. RFP
D. RPM
E. ERP
```
A. SOW
80
Statements of work:
A. tend to be revised as they move through the procurement process.
B. are rather static.
C. are not used much in the procurement process.
D. are on a very high level.
E. are used by the clients to obtain clarity about the requirements
A. tend to be revised as they move through the procurement process.
81
```
The most common procurement document is the:
A. SOW
B. SAP
C. RFP
D. RPM
E. ERP
```
C. RFP
82
An RFP:
A. allows buyer and supplier to communicate using the same rules.
B. is mostly just a presentation of a problem that needs a solution.
C. often becomes a part of the final contract.
D. is on a very high level.
E. is used by the clients to obtain clarity about the requirements
A. allows buyer and supplier to communicate using the same rules.
83
Which of the following is NOT part of an RFP?
A. Project details section
B. Supplier qualifications and references section
C. Stakeholder section
D. Bidding process and procedure for evaluation of bids section
E. Contract and license agreement section
C. Stakeholder section
84
What is NOT true about evaluation criteria?
A. They can objective.
B. They can be subjective.
C. They can be included in the RFP.
D. They focus on quality only.
E. They can focus on cost, quality, or both.
D. They focus on quality only.
85
```
A method used to quantitatively compare vendor proposals based on evaluation of attributes is called:
A. weighting system.
B. process of elimination.
C. screening system.
D. evaluation system.
E. vendor assessment system.
```
A. weighting system.
86
```
A system in which vendors are eliminated based on certain minimum criteria is called:
A. weighting system.
B. process of elimination.
C. screening system.
D. evaluation system.
E. vendor assessment system.
```
C. screening system.
87
```
Another term for independent estimates is:
A. price estimates.
B. should-cost estimates.
C. external estimates.
D. pre-contract estimates.
E. benchmarks.
```
B. should-cost estimates.
88
```
The process during which representatives from the buyer and the vendor engage in discussions to clarify and reach agreement on the structure and the requirements of the contract is called:
A. contract discussion.
B. contract agreement.
C. contract negotiation.
D. contract closure.
E. contracting.
```
C. contract negotiation.
89
```
The process concerned with ensuring that the product or service procured meets the agreed-upon performance standards is called:
A. verify procurement.
B. contract audit.
C. procurement audit.
D. close contract.
E. control procurements.
```
E. control procurements.
90
```
________ is the process of monitoring and measuring project progress and influencing the plan to account for any discrepancies between planned progress and actual progress.
A. Project monitoring
B. Project execution
C. Progress monitoring
D. Project control
E. Progress control
```
D. Project control
91
```
________ is the final implementation and training related to the project, getting acceptance and signoff on the project, and archiving of the project’s results.
A. Project closure
B. Project implementation
C. Project handover
D. Project signoff
E. Project closing
```
A. Project closure
92
```
Controlling processes are important factors in ________ of the ten project management knowledge areas.
A. four
B. five
C. six
D. seven
E. all
```
E. all
93
```
Which of the following is a philosophy of project control?
A. dogmatic philosophy
B. strict philosophy
C. relaxed philosophy
D. firm philosophy
E. rigid philosophy
```
A. dogmatic philosophy
94
```
________ is the management style the manager employs in following a plan and dealing with problems or changes in the plan.
A. Approach to project control
B. Philosophy of project control
C. Style of project control
D. Project control style
E. Project management style
```
B. Philosophy of project control
95
```
For relatively small projects, the ________ may be most appropriate.
A. dogmatic philosophy
B. laid-back philosophy
C. relaxed philosophy
D. pragmatic philosophy
E. rigid philosophy
```
B. laid-back philosophy
96
```
For large, complex projects, the ________ may be most appropriate.
A. dogmatic philosophy
B. laid-back philosophy
C. relaxed philosophy
D. pragmatic philosophy
E. rigid philosophy
```
A. dogmatic philosophy
97
```
A ________ is a systematic and formal enquiry into a project’s expenditures, schedule, and quality of work.
A. project control
B. project audit
C. project review
D. project assessment
E. project evaluation
```
B. project audit
98
```
Withholding negative information out of fear for negative consequences is known as:
A. blowing the whistle.
B. mum effect.
C. deaf effect.
D. fear of reprisal.
E. withholding insider info.
```
B. mum effect.
99
```
Reluctance to hear bad news communicated from lower levels of the organizational hierarchy is referred to as:
A. blowing the whistle.
B. mum effect.
C. deaf effect.
D. fear of reprisal.
E. blame-the-messenger.
```
C. deaf effect.
100
```
Perhaps the most important levers for controlling projects is:
A. communication.
B. participation.
C. analysis and action.
D. team members’ commitment.
E. continuous monitoring.
```
A. communication.
101
```
________ are activities and reporting methods instituted during the course of a project to monitor its progress and to provide reports for project managers and stakeholders.
A. Project guidelines
B. Standard project procedures
C. Project rules
D. Procedural rules
E. Standard operating procedures
```
E. Standard operating procedures
102
```
Earned value management is a powerful cost control technique that provides estimates on the likelihood the project will meet________ requirements.
A. schedule
B. budget
C. project
D. quality, schedule, and budget
E. schedule and budget
```
E. schedule and budget
103
```
________ measures project performance over time, and provides a way to forecast future performance based on past performance.
A. Variance analysis
B. Schedule analysis
C. Project performance analysis
D. Earned value management
E. Rolling wave analysis
```
D. Earned value management
104
```
________ are documented recommendations that needed to bring future project performance into conformance with the project management plan.
A. Recommended preventive actions
B. Project control actions
C. Risk mitigation actions
D. Recommended corrective actions
E. Recommended change requests
```
D. Recommended corrective actions
105
```
________ are documented recommendations that minimize the probability of negative consequences to the project.
A. Recommended preventive actions
B. Project control actions
C. Risk mitigation actions
D. Recommended corrective actions
E. Recommended change requests
```
A. Recommended preventive actions
106
```
________ are documented and authorized changes that are scheduled for implementation by the project team.
A. Approved change requests
B. Approved corrective actions
C. Approved preventive actions
D. Approved defect repair
E. Authorized change requests
```
A. Approved change requests
107
```
________ are documented and authorized guidelines necessary to bring future project performance in conformance with the project management plan.
A. Approved change requests
B. Approved corrective actions
C. Approved preventive actions
D. Approved defect repair
E. Authorized change requests
```
B. Approved corrective actions
108
```
________ are documented and authorized guidelines intended to reduce the probability of negative consequences to the project due to identified risks.
A. Approved change requests
B. Approved corrective actions
C. Approved preventive actions
D. Approved defect repair
E. Authorized change requests
```
C. Approved preventive actions
109
```
________ are approved and authorized actions that are recommended to correct defects in the project deliverables.
A. Approved change requests
B. Approved corrective actions
C. Approved preventive actions
D. Approved defect repair
E. Authorized change requests
```
D. Approved defect repair
110
```
________ are techniques used to evaluate differences between planned baselines and actual performance.
A. Cause and effect diagramming
B. Baseline analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Progress analysis
E. Earned value analysis
```
C. Variance analysis
111
A change control system is a documented process that describes the procedures by which:
A. the project and product scope can be changed.
B. changes are controlled.
C. system changes are managed.
D. the project scope can be changed.
E. the product scope can be changed.
A. the project and product scope can be changed.
112
```
The ________ is a time-phased budget that is used to measure and monitor cost performance.
A. budget baseline
B. project budget
C. cost baseline
D. project resources baseline
E. adjusted budget
```
C. cost baseline
113
```
A cost control method for examining project cost performance over time to determine whether performance is improving or deteriorating is:
A. cost analysis.
B. variance analysis.
C. trend analysis.
D. earned value analysis.
E. performance analysis.
```
C. trend analysis.
114
```
The budgeted cost for the work scheduled to be completed on an activity up to a given point of time is referred to as:
A. PV
B. EV
C. CV
D. EC
E. EAC
```
A. PV (planned value)
115
```
The budgeted amount for the work actually completed on the activity during a given time period is referred to as:
A. PV
B. EV
C. CV
D. EC
E. EAC
```
B. EV (earned value)
116
The actual cost associated with work on an activity during a particular time period is:
A. the product of PV and % completed.
B. the product of EV and % completed.
C. The product of EV and PV.
D. not calculated but drawn from invoices.
E. the product of PV and CV.
D. not calculated but drawn from invoices.
117
```
________ is the difference between the earned value and the actual cost.
A. CV
B. SV
C. CD
D. SD
E. CPI
```
A. CV (Cost Variance)
118
```
________ is the difference between the scheduled completion of an activity and the actual completion.
A. CV
B. SV
C. CD
D. SD
E. CPI
```
B. SV (Schedule Variance)
119
```
The ________ is the ratio of EV to AC.
A. cost performance index
B. cost performance ratio
C. schedule performance index
D. schedule performance ratio
E. cost variance
```
A. cost performance index (CPI)
120
```
The ________ is the ratio of EV to PV.
A. cost performance index
B. cost performance ratio
C. schedule performance index
D. schedule performance ratio
E. schedule variance
```
C. schedule performance index (SPI)
121
```
The ________ is calculated by dividing the BAC by the CPI.
A. estimate at completion
B. estimated time to complete
C. budget at completion
D. budget performance index
E. to-complete performance index
```
A. estimate at completion (EAC)
122
```
The ________ is calculated by dividing the remaining work by the remaining funds.
A. estimated cost at completion
B. estimated time to complete
C. completion time
D. schedule performance index
E. to-complete performance index
```
E. to-complete performance index (TCPI)
123
Pareto’s law states that:
A. in a histogram, the probabilities of occurrence are cumulative.
B. 80 percent of the problems are the result of 20 percent of the causes.
C. 80 percent of the causes result in 20 percent of the problems.
D. the bars in a histogram should be arranged in decreasing order.
E. the causes and problems follow a Pareto distribution.
B. 80 percent of the problems are the result of 20 percent of the causes.
124
```
________ is the process of comparing what was contracted for with what is being done or has been done to ensure that both parties perform according to the contract, as well as closing the contract.
A. Validate procurements
B. Contract audit
C. Procurement audit
D. Contract closure
E. Control procurements
```
E. Control procurements
125
```
A ________ is a review performed to examine the procurement process from the Plan Procurement Management process through the Conduct Procurements process.
A. procurement review
B. contract audit
C. procurement audit
D. contract review
E. buyer-conducted performance review
```
C. procurement audit
126
```
A ________ is a structured review of the vendor’s progress in fulfilling the terms of the contract.
A. procurement review
B. contract audit
C. procurement audit
D. contract review
E. buyer-conducted performance review
```
E. buyer-conducted performance review
127
```
A(n) ________ contains a record of the project management techniques employed over the course of the project, surveys, and outstanding items that still need to be resolved.
A. end report
B. post-implementation report
C. outstanding item report
D. handover report
E. project closure document
```
A. end report
128
A post-implementation review is conducted:
A. right after a project was implemented.
B. a few weeks after user training has commenced.
C. once the client has become familiar with the product.
D. 6-12 months after implementation.
E. once enough experience with the product has been accumulated.
D. 6-12 months after implementation.
