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Neuropharmacology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

Local anesthetics inhibit the action of what?

A

Voltage gated sodium channels

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2
Q

Local Anesthetics

Lidocaine is metabolized primarily in the ______

A

Liver

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3
Q

Local Anesthetics

Procaine is metabolized in the ______

A

Blood

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4
Q

Local Anesthetics

Procaine has a ____ duration (compared to Lidocaine) in the body due to its _____ in the ______ rather than metabolism in the ________.

A

Shorter
Hydrolysis, Plasma
Liver

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5
Q

Local Anesthetics

______ amounts of local anesthetics are required to _______ inflamed tissues, ______ the probability of systemic toxicity.

A

Larger
Desensitize
Increasing

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6
Q

Local Anesthetics

Generally, local anesthetics cross the _____ _____ from the _____ area to the _____ best when the ______ fluid is a relatively ______ environment with respect to the pKa of the drug.

A 
axonal membrane
extracellular
axolemma
extracellular
basic
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7
Q

Local Anesthetics

The basis for the high efficacy of lidocaine on _______, at doses that don’t produce ______ throughout the body, is that nerves that are frequently _____ allow drug to enter ______ and bind to its site of action.

A

arrhythmias
numbness
depolarized
channels

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8
Q

Local Anesthetics

________ are frequently injected with local anesthetics to cause ______ and _____ local blood flow, thus preventing the washout of local anesthetics.

A

Sympathomimetics
Vasoconstriction
Decrease

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9
Q

Stimulants

______ is used to treat feline asthma because of its ability to induce bronchiolar ______. It is also a _____ stimulant decreasing _____ activity.

A

Theophylline
Dilation
Cortical
Adenosine

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10
Q

Stimulants

______ is responsible for the toxic effect of chocaolate in dogs. This results from the ____ of ____ _____ receptors.

A

Theobromine

antagonism, inhibitory adenosine

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11
Q

Stimulants

_____ is a relatively short-acting respiratory ______ that should be used with caution.

A

Doxapram

Stimulant

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12
Q

Stimulants

_______ is a rodenticide that causes ______ and is characterized by _____ ______.

A

Strychnine

Convulsions, extensor rigidity

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13
Q

Anticonvulsants

Diazepam is a general ________ at a _______ dose and useful in _____ _______. It can be used for feline ________. Diazepam is also a ______/______ relaxant. It ______ potentiates ______ flux through ______ receptor complexes.

A

anticonvulsant
sedative
status epilepticus

Epilepsy
sedative/muscle

Allosterically
Chloride
GABAa

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14
Q

Anticonvulsants

________ inhibits excitability induced by ketamine but exacerbates the effect of _______. Also inhibits ______-induced emesis.

A

Acetylpromazine
Strychnine
Apomorphine

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15
Q

Anticonvulsants

_________ is useful in forms of canine epilepsy that are not adequately controlled by phenobarbital. Unfortunately, this drug is not a general anticonvulsant and therefore cannot be used for all seizures.

A

Phenytoin

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16
Q

Anticonvulsants

______ is an anticonvulsant that is unique as it does not produce _____ ______ and actually controls the unique pain associated with ____ and _____.

A

Carbamazepine
CNS Depression
Neuralgia
Neuroma (a toomah)

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17
Q

Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.

________ is a commonly used sedative in canine and equine medicine inhibiting ______, _______ and _______ receptors. Also has some anti _____ and anti ______ activity that can be useful.

A

Acetylpromazine
Dopaminergic
Serotonergic
Noradrenergic

Cholinergic
Histaminic

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18
Q

Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.

________ is useful in combination with ketamine because it has some anti ______ activity and thus helps prevent ______, potentiates the ______ effect and inhibits the _____ effects. It minimizes the dose of ketamine required, and thus its side effects and produces less ______ depression than other preanesthetics.

A 
Acetylpromazine
Cholinergic
Salivation
Depressant
Excitatory
Respiratory
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19
Q

Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.

Acetylpromazine is likely to cause _______

A

Catalepsy

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20
Q

Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.

________ is a catecholamine that should be used instead of epinephrine to maintain blood pressure during surgery when using __________ as a premedication.

A

Norepinephrine

Acetylpromazine

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21
Q

Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.

_______ is a sedative and a potent antiemetic compound used frequently to prevent motion sickness.

A

Droperidol

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22
Q

Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.

______ at _____ doses is a commonly used emetic in feline medicine and at _____ doses it is a useful sedative.

It may transiently ______ blood pressure prior to achieving its longer term sedative and ______ effects.

A

Xylazine
Low
Higher

Increase
Hypotensive

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23
Q

Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.

________ has a mechanism of action that has little in common with other sedatives and muscle relaxants.

A

Xylazine

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24
Q

Tranquilizers, Sedatives, Etc.

_______ is frequently used in equine field anesthesia as an adjunct to anesthesia with good sedative, _____ muscle relaxant and ______ activity.

It is also a useful ________.

A

Guaifenesin
Skeletal
Analgesic

Expectorant

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25
Alcohols ______ ____ is a relatively non toxic compound in its parent form but can cause nephrotoxicity when metabolized.
Ethylene Glycol
26
Alcohols _____ _____ is a nephrotoxic metabolite that causes massive chelation and precipitation of calcium in kidneys.
Oxalic Acid
27
Alcohols Although longer acting alcohol _______ _______ are available, ethanol can be administered to prevent the formation of toxic metabolites from other substrates.
Dehydrogenase Inhibitors
28
Alcohols _______ is a metabolite of Procaine that may cause allergic reactions.
PABA
29
Alcohols _______ can cause blindness due to formaldehyde, a product of alcohol _______ activity. Blindness is due to formaldehydes effect on the ______.
Methanol Dehydrogenase Retina
30
Alcohols _____ ______ is a metabolite that is primarily responsible for the ______ observed after ingestion of denatured alcohol.
Formic Acid Acidosis
31
Alcohols In a pinch, beer is a useful _____ allowing a reluctant sow to nurse its offspring. Alcohol causes dehydration and significant tolerance develops to the ____ effects of alcohol.
sedative, sedative
32
Alcohols _______ is formed from ethanol by alcohol _______.
Acetylaldehyde | Dehydrogenase
33
Injectable Anesthetics Thiopental has a _____ _____ solubility with a partition coefficient of about ______. In contrast, phenobarbital has a _____ _____ solubility with a partition coefficient of ____.
High Lipid, 580 Low Lipid, 3
34
Injectable Anesthetics _______ is more rapidly absorbed from the gut than phenobarbital, but still slow enough that it is not used by this route. Phenobarb is absorbed much more _____ from the gut but can be used by this oral route for its _____ term therapeutic uses.
Thiopental Slowly Longer
35
Injectable Anesthetics After an IV injection, ______ rapidly induces its maximal CNS effects compared to phenobarbital but these effects also wear off rapidly.
Thiopental
36
Injectable Anesthetics Thiopental has a ______ degree of plasma protein binding than phenobarb and is therefore, _____ likely to displace other compounds that are also protein bound.
Higher | More
37
Injectable Anesthetics ______ and _____ of phenobarbital play a major role in the termination of its action.
Excretion and Metabolism
38
Injectable Anesthetics After a single injection of Thiopental, ________ is primarily responsible for the termination of its anesthetic effect.
Redistribution
39
Injectable Anesthetics ______ has a high ability to induce liver enzymes after repeated use.
Phenobarbital
40
Injectable Anesthetics Thiopental has a high ability to induce _______ _______ after prolonged therapy.
CNS Tolerance
41
Injectable Anesthetics In light of its typical patient population, it is important to indicate to the client that a sudden lapse in compliance may lead to seizures during treatment with __________.
Phenobarbital
42
Injectable Anesthetics Phenobarbital binds to the ______ ______. It inhibits _____ ____, ______ release, and _____ the duration of ____ channel open time.
``` GABAa Receptor Epileptic Foci Transmitter Increases Chloride ```
43
Injectable Anesthetics All excitable tissues are affected by _______ but of those, _____ muscle is the least sensitive to ______ like thiopental.
Barbiturates Skeletal Barbiturates
44
Injectable Anesthetics ______ would be more useful as an inducing agent than long acting barbiturates.
Thiopental
45
Injectable Anesthetics In determining the degree of depression that barbiturates will produce in an accident victim, what 4 things need to be considered?
1. Patients history of epilepsy 2. Dose of the drug 3. Patient's state of shock 4. Route of drug administration
46
Injectable Anesthetics Because of their effects on excitable tissue, barbiturates tend to ______ intestinal motility during surgery, ______ uterine contractions, and produce reflex _____, _____ and _____ during recovery.
``` Decrease Decrease Hypermotility Spasms Vomiting ```
47
Injectable Anesthetics If injected rapidly, thiopental produces _____ ____ and transient ____ during normal use as an anesthetic. It can decrease _____ ____ during the course of its normal use at anesthetic doses.
Respiratory depression Apnea Blood Pressure
48
Injectable Anesthetics ______ might be useful in a post-orthopedic situation as it induces good skeletal muscle relaxation.
Diazepam
49
Injectable Anesthetics If re-administered to achieve a longer drug effect, each subsequent dose of thiopental produces ______ anesthetic effects.
Longer
50
Injectable Anesthetics Unlike ___ ____ and ____, thiopental need not be administered continuously to maintain anesthesia.
Gas anesthesia | Propofol
51
Injectable Anesthetics ______ is a common sedative in cats that can be injected by many routes but stings when administered _____. As an anesthetic, it usually requires premedication with _____ to reduce the normal profuse _______.
Ketamine IM Atropine Salivation
52
Injectable Anesthetics Ketamine is _______, ______ and _____.
analgesic Dysphoric Hallucinagenic
53
Injectable Anesthetics In cases of brain injury, ketamine may not be used as it increases ______ _____ and ______ ______.
Blood Pressure | Intra-cranial Pressure
54
Injectable Anesthetics With repeated injections of ketamine, do effects become shorter or longer?
Shorter Effects
55
Injectable Anesthetics Ketamine is analgesic at ____ doses
Sedative
56
Injectable Anesthetics Although ketamine inhibits ______ amino acid activity and results in anesthesia, other compounds that similarly inhibit _______ sites do not produce anesthesia.
Excitatory | NMDA
57
Injectable Anesthetics In an animal with seizure history, which injectable anesthetic is usually contraindicated?
Ketamine
58
Inhaled Anesthetics _______ produces a high degree of muscle relaxation.
Isoflurane
59
Inhaled Anesthetics At anesthetic doses, which two drugs increase intracranial pressure?
Halothane and Ketamine
60
Inhaled Anesthetics Halothane, at its ______ value, will produce anesthesia in about _____ of all beagle patients.
MAC | 50%
61
Inhaled Anesthetics _____ _______ of an anesthetic agent contributes the most to the rate of recovery from inhalant anesthesia.
Blood Solubility
62
Inhaled Anesthetics _____ _____ has the lowest blood:gas partition coefficient of the inhalant compounds discussed, allowing it to _____ ______ quickly.
Nitrous Oxide | Saturate blood
63
Inhaled Anesthetics ______ is the most potent inhalant anesthetic in producing unconciousness.
Methoxyflurane
64
Inhaled Anesthetics Volatile anesthetics are generally thought to act to produce unconsciousness by interactions with ______ _____-______ _______ receptors.
Ion channel-coupled neurotransmitter
65
Inhaled Anesthetics The combination of _______ ______ and _____ exploit the 'second gas effect' to more rapidly induce anesthesia.
Nitrous Oxide | Methoxyflurane
66
Narcotic Analgesics ________ is a useful and inexpensive analgesic and sedative, used widely alone in dogs.
Morphine
67
Narcotic Analgesics Is Morphine an antagonist/agonist? Of which receptor type? Acid or base?
Non-Selective Opioid Agonist Weak Base
68
Narcotic Analgesics _______ cannot be used orally as it is highly metabolized during its _____-______ through the _____ and trapped in the stomach of animals who have highly _____ gastric fluids.
Morphine First-pass Liver Acidic
69
Narcotic Analgesics Butorphanol is a potent analgesic agent by its interaction with _____ receptors. It is a long-acting narcotic analgesic that is ____ to _____ times more potent than ______ but less ________.
Kappa 4-7 Morphine Efficacious
70
Narcotic Analgesics Butorphanol/Morphine Which is more potent? Which is more efficiacious? Which produces fewer respiratory and GI effects?
Butorphanol is more potent (4-7x) with less effects Morphine is more efficiacious
71
Narcotic Analgesics Butorphanol may be useful to reverse a _____-induced respiratory depression but still provide some ______.
Morphine | Analgesia
72
Narcotic Analgesics Nalorphine is a partial narcotic analgesic ____ that is inexpensive and a sufficiently ____ _____ that it is used to reverse ______ activity. Unfortunately, it also has enough _____ activity that is can induce respiratory depression at _____ doses, so readministration should be done with caution.
Agonist Weak Agonist Opioid Agonistic High
73
Narcotic Analgesics The respiratory depressant effect of nalorphine can be ______ by _________.
Antagonized | Naloxone
74
Narcotic Analgesics Naloxone is a pure ____ _____. It is relatively ____-____ and expensive, but has no respiratory depressent effects. It is ______ acting, so it must be readministered frequently until the ___ ____ has worn off.
opioid antagonist Non-selective Short opioid agonist
75
Narcotic Analgesics Oxymorphone is an _____ that is about ____ times more potent than morphine, produces relatively _____ respiratory depression and more _______.
Opiate 10 Less Sedation
76
Narcotic Analgesics Fentanyl is a potent (about ____ to ____ times the potency of morphine) and _____- acting ____ ____ that is usually administered with major tranquilizers as a _________ mixture. It is usually co-administered with _________.
100-150x short acting Opioid agonist Neuroleptoanalgesic Droperidol
77
Narcotic Analgesics The _____ effect of an opioid ____ cannot be reversed by an opioid _______.
Antitussive Agonist Antagonist
78
Narcotic Analgesics Opiate _____ and partial _____ do not stimulate receptors maximally. Compared to either butorphanol or fentanyl, ______ has the least analgesic efficacy.
antagonist partial agonist Diprenorphine
79
Narcotic Analgesics Opiates reduce _____ transmission by ______ neuronal _____ channels.
neuronal opening Potassium (K+)
80
Narcotic Analgesics Opiate analgesic drugs alleviate pain by _____ neurotransmitter release from _____-transmitting neurons in ____ ____ and _____.
Decreasing Pain-Transmitting Spinal Cord Brain
81
Narcotic Analgesics What are morphines effects on sphincters AND on propulsive movements of the intestines?
Clamps them | Decreases them
82
Narcotic Analgesics _____ is a useful analgesic in horses if its administration is preceded by a large dose of an appropriate _____, such as _______.
Morphine Sedative Xylazine
83
Narcotic Analgesics Which weak narcotic analgesic (1/3 morphine's potency) is used for equine colic?
Pentazocine
84
Narcotic Analgesics Pentazocine is a ______ ______ (receptor activity type). It can also decrease the analgesic actions of __-_______ that are mediated by ___-_____ receptors.
kappa agonist Beta-Endorphin Mu-Opioid
85
Narcotic Analgesics Can Pentazocine cause withdrawal?
Yes
86
Narcotic Analgesics Pentazocine's ______ activity results in dysphoria.
Sigma

Neuropharmacology (1 decks)

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