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Biol 1080 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Relaxation of the heart is called

A

diastole

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2
Q

Contraction of the heart is called

A

systole

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3
Q

Why is diastolic blood pressure called the afterload

A

because it is the pressure in which the heart must work to eject blood during systole

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4
Q

What hormone increases heart rate

A

norepinephrine (sympathetic innervation)

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5
Q

What hormone decreases heart rate

A

acetylcholine (parasympathetic innervation)

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6
Q

What hormone strengthens heart contractions

A

epinephrine

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7
Q

What is the equation for max heart rate

A

max HR = 220-age

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8
Q

What is the relation between exercise and cardiac output

A

the greater intensity of the exercise, the greater the cardiac output

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9
Q

What 3 contributors propagate electrical signalling

A

nodes
nerves
intercalated discs

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10
Q

What is the hearts natural pacemaker

A

the sinoatrial node (SA node)

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11
Q

What are the nodes of the heart involve in electrical signal conduction

A

sinoatrial node
atrioventricular node

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12
Q

What are the nerves involved in electrical signal conduction

A

bundle of His
bundle branches
purkinje fibres

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13
Q

What are intercalated discs

A

gap junctions in cardiac muscle

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14
Q

What is the term for muscle of the heart

A

cardiomyocytes

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15
Q

Cardiomyocytes, connected by intercalated discs, work together how

A

work together as a single functional unit (the heart as a whole is one functional unit)

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16
Q

What is the common occurrence in miscommunication in the heart

A

arrhythmia

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17
Q

What does abnormal SA node firing cause

A

tachycardia or bradycardia

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18
Q

What is tachycardia

A

too fast

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19
Q

What is bradycardia

A

too slow

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20
Q

What is a fibrillation

A

when the cells depolarize independently

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21
Q

What is atrial fibrillation

A

quivering or irregular heartbeat (arrhythmia)
ventricles can still act independently here

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22
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation

A

ventricles cannot send oxygen rich blood to body - the most serious cardiac rhythm disturbance

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23
Q

What is atherosclerosis

A

blockage of arteries due to plaque buildup

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24
Q

What causes atherosclerosis and plaque build up

A

elevated blood lipids, high saturated fat intake, etc.

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25
Q

What is an angioplasty

A

balloon is inserted into the artery to place a stent that holds the arterial wall open

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26
Q

What is a bypass surgery

A

when an artery/vein is taken from another place in the body and inserted in problem area to act as a bypass pathway for blood to travel where it needs to go

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27
Q

What is hypertrophy

A

enlargement of the heart - sign of being overworked

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28
Q

What is the bad aspect of hypertrophy

A

causes high blood pressure and narrowing of aortic valve

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29
Q

What is the good aspect of hypertrophy

A

athletes heart: good adaptation!

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30
Q

Where is maximum pressure observed in the heart

A

systolic pressure

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31
Q

Where is minimum pressure observed in the heart

A

diastolic pressure

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32
Q

What is vasoconstriction

A

when the diameter is restricted (higher pressure)

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33
Q

What is vasodilation

A

when the diameter is lessened (lower pressure)

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34
Q

How is vasoconstriction started

A

there are alpha receptors located on arteries
- norepinephrine and epinephrine bind to a2 adrenergic receptors

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35
Q

How is vasodilation started

A

there are beta receptors located on arteries
- norepinephrine and epinephrine bind to b2 adrenergic receptors

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36
Q

Does blood pressure increase/decrease significantly during exercise

A

no

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37
Q

Does blood pressure increase/decrease significantly in resistance exercise

A

yes, holding your breath during resistance exercise increase intrathoracic pressure during the lift, increasing heart rate

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38
Q

What is the general order of the GI tract

A

oral cavity (mouth), esophagus, stomach, small intestine, colon (large intestine), rectum

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39
Q

What are Peyers patches

A

special populations of T cells localized to the intestinal mucosa

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40
Q

What sphincter separates the mouth and the esophagus

A

upper esophageal sphincter

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41
Q

What sphincter separates the esophagus and the stomach

A

lower esophageal sphincter

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42
Q

What sphincter separates the stomach and the small intestine

A

pyloric sphincter

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43
Q

What sphincter seperates the small intestine and the large intestine

A

ileocecal valve

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44
Q

What sphincter seperates the large intestine and the rectum

A

anal sphincter

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45
Q

How long is the GI tract in ft

A

28 ft long (folded extensively)

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46
Q

How much time does food spend digesting in the GI tract as a whole

A

30-80h

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47
Q

Why is the GI tract able to absorb so much

A

large luminal surface area due to villi and microvilli

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48
Q

How much time does food spend digesting in the stomach/small intestine

A

5-8h

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49
Q

How much time does food spend digesting in the colon

A

the rest of the time after the 5-8 spent in the stomach/small intestine

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50
Q

What is the bacteria housed by the GI tract called

A

gut microbiome

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51
Q

What is the function of the gut microbiome

A

protects against pathogenic microbes that enter the tract

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52
Q

What nervous system branch controls the GI tract

A

intrinsic nervous system (enteric)
autosomal - cannot be controlled

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53
Q

What are the 4 main processes of the GI tract

A

motility, secretion, digestion, and absorption

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54
Q

What is motility in reference to the GI tract

A

peristalsis - movement of food

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55
Q

What is secretion in reference to the GI tract

A

saliva, mucous, antibodies, digestive enzymes, bile, bicarbonate

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56
Q

What is digestion in reference to the GI tract

A

breakdown of large molecules into small molecules

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57
Q

What is absorption in reference to the GI tract

A

uptake of water and nutrients

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58
Q

What does the “cephalic” phase of digestion refer to

A

relating to the head - digestion of the oral cavity

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59
Q

What types of digestion occur in cephalic digestion

A

chemical and mechanical

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60
Q

What is mastication

A

chewing

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61
Q

What prepare the GI tract for food processing

A

sensory stimuli (ie. sight, smell, taste) cause secretions

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62
Q

What nervous systems stimulate the secretion of salvia (think autonomic control)

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

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63
Q

What is the purpose of saliva

A

soften and lubricate food
provide enzymes

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64
Q

What two macronutrient classes begin digestion in the mouth (and which one does not)

A

fats and carbs (proteins do not)

65
Q

What salivary enzyme begins breakdown of carbs in the mouth

A

amylase

66
Q

What salivary enzyme begins breakdown of fats in the mouth

A

lipase

67
Q

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system in relation to salvia secretion

A

inhibition of gastric activity = less digestion happening

68
Q

What is the role of the parasympathetic nervous system in relation to saliva secretion

A

stimulation of digestive activity = more digestion

69
Q

What is the “gastric” phase referring to

A

in the stomach

70
Q

What two macronutrient classes are partially broken down in the stomach (and which is not)

A

fats and proteins
(carbs are not)

71
Q

Levels of what hormone spike after digestion of food

A

acetylcholine

72
Q

Why is a spike in acetylcholine levels seen after intake of food

A

chief cells are activated, secreting pepsin and gastric lipase, which in turn causes the release of acetylcholine for digestion
- acetylcholine is also released as a result of other cell activations, but that is less of a focus here

73
Q

What is the function of pepsin

A

break down protein in the stomach

74
Q

What is the function of gastric lipase

A

break down fats in the stomach

75
Q

What is the main contributor of digestive enzymes for digestion in the small intestine

A

the pancreas

76
Q

Enzymes are released from the pancreas in their active or inactive form?

A

inactive

77
Q

Where are enzymes secreted by the pancreas activated

A

the small intestine

78
Q

Where is bile made

A

the liver

79
Q

Where is bile stored

A

gallbladder

80
Q

What is bile needed for

A

lipid digestion

81
Q

What is the order of the 3 sections of the small intestine

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

82
Q

What is the food being digested called by the time it has reached the small intestine

A

chyme

83
Q

What is secreted into the duodenum as a result of chyme entering the small intestine via the pyloric sphincter

A

bicarbonate (from cells in intestinal epithelium and pancreatic secretions)
digestive enzymes (from pancreas)
bile acids (from liver/gallbladder)

84
Q

What digestive enzymes are anchored to the luminal surface of the small intestine

A

disaccharides (breaks down carbs)
amino peptidases (breaks down proteins)

85
Q

What is the basic function of carb metabolism

A

carbs come in, and broken down via specific enzymes, transported across the brush border, and then transported across the basolateral membrane by facilitated diffusion to enter bloodstream

86
Q

What type of transport is used in carb metabolism

A

active and facilitated

87
Q

What occurs in someone who is lactose intolerant (why can’t they digest lactose)

A

deficient in the lactase enzyme required to break down lactose

88
Q

What occurs in someone who is celiac

A

breakdown/flattening of brush border occurs when taking in gluten, which in turn can lead to a deficiency in the lactase enzyme (lactose intolerance)
- treatment of the celiac disease can in turn cure the lactose intolerance because the brush border is restored and proper lactase enzyme amounts are seen

89
Q

What monosaccharides require ATP for transport (active transport)

A

glucose and galactose

90
Q

What monosaccharides do not require ATP for transport (facilitated transport)

A

fructose

91
Q

What is the basic mechanism of protein digestion

A

proteins are broken down into smaller peptides, peptidases are secreted to break peptides into amino acids, and the amino acids are transported throughout the body via the bloodstream

92
Q

What type of transport is seen in protein metabolism

A

cotransport

93
Q

What is transcytosis and when is it seen

A

when small peptides in protein digestion are carried intact across the membrane

94
Q

Bile salts are ____________________

A

amphipathic

95
Q

What does it mean to be amphipathic

A

both hydrophobic and hydrophilic

96
Q

Chyme entering the duodenum triggers release of ___________ from the gallbladder

A

bile

97
Q

Triglycerides are broken down into what two molecules in fat digestion

A

monoglycerides (still holds glycerol backbone) and fatty acids (no backbone)

98
Q

What formation do fatty acids/monoglycerides take in fat digestion

A

micelles

99
Q

What is the function of micelles

A

help absorb fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K)

100
Q

What is the basic mechanism of fat digestion once triglycerides have been broken down

A

fatty acids and monoglycerides are absorbed across the brush border and reassembled as triglycerides to be packaged as chylomicrons (type of lipoprotein) where they are then absorbed into the lymphatic system

101
Q

Why are chylomicrons not absorbed directly into the bloodstream, and absorbed into the lymphatic system instead

A

because chylomicrons are too large to cross the capillary wall, so they are absorbed into lymphatic system and transported to the thoracic duct to be entered into the bloodstream

102
Q

Where does the majority of water absorption occur in digestion

A

the colon

103
Q

What comes in from the ileum to the colon in terms of digestible material

A

ileal chyme (chemical and particle rich liquid)

104
Q

Ileal chyme has ________________ characteristics

A

microbial

105
Q

What is absorbed in the colon

A

water and simple ions like potassium, sodium, magnesium and calcium

106
Q

What is fermentation in the colon

A

when resident microbes digest and absorb the chemicals they can

107
Q

What are the end products of fermentation

A

short chain fatty acids

108
Q

What vitamins are produced as byproducts of metabolism by resident microbes in the colon

A

vitamins K and some B

109
Q

What is hedonic hunger

A

the drive to eat that is pleasure based

110
Q

What is homeostatic hunger

A

the drive to eat that is survival based

111
Q

Is hedonic hunger healthy?

A

yes, a certain level of hedonic hunger is considered healthy in terms of eating habits

112
Q

How is energy defined

A

the capacity to do work

113
Q

What is the energy currency of the cell

A

ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

114
Q

Which types of metabolism generate the most ATP

A

glucose and fatty acid metabolism

115
Q

Glycolysis, beta oxidation an TCA cycle produce reducing equivalents called….

A

NADH and FADH2

116
Q

What is the function of NADH and FADH2

A

supply protons to the electron transport chain

117
Q

How is ATP generated without oxygen

A

phosphocreatine degradation

118
Q

In anaerobic conditions, ATP is produced by glycolysis to form what end product

A

lactate

119
Q

What is most fat energy stored as in the body

A

triglycerides

120
Q

Where are triglycerides stored

A

adipose tissue

121
Q

What is the main storage of carbs in the body

A

glycogen

122
Q

Where is the most concentrated storage of glycogen

A

the liver
- small organ, lots of glycogen

123
Q

Where is the most amount of glycogen stored

A

muscle tissue
- much larger tissue across the body, able to store more (still not most concentrated storage form though)

124
Q

When would protein be broken down for energy

A

if all carb and fat stores have been broken down and the body is in a state of starvation

125
Q

What are the pros of using carbs as fuel

A
  • can generate ATP faster than fat
  • can generate ATP anaerobically
126
Q

What are the cons of using carbs as fuel

A
  • hold a lot of water (less energy dense)
127
Q

What are the pros of using fats as fuel

A
  • don’t hold as much water as carbs, so they are more than twice as energy dense
  • most abundant energy reserve
128
Q

What are the cons of using fats as fuel

A
  • can’t provide energy anaerobically
129
Q

In the first 3-4 hours after a meal, energy nutrients are stored, otherwise known as _______________

A

anabolism

130
Q

What is anabolic state

A

not long after a meal when energy is being stored in the body (built up)

131
Q

In a fasting state, stored energy is broken down, otherwise known as ________________

A

catabolism

132
Q

What is catabolic state

A

in a fasting state when stored energy is needed to be broken down and used

133
Q

What is gluconeogenesis

A

making glucose from non carbohydrate precursors

134
Q

Where is the main site of gluconeogensis

A

liver (but can also occur in the kidneys)

135
Q

What is the point of gluconeogensis

A

the compensate for lack of glucose intake in a fasting state (catabolism)

136
Q

What is hyperglycaemia

A

too high blood sugar

137
Q

What is hypoglycaemia

A

too low blood sugar

138
Q

Is blood sugar levels a narrow or wide numerical range

A

very narrow

139
Q

Increase in glucose results in what related to insulin

A

increase in insulin

140
Q

Increase in glucose results in what related to glucagon

A

decrease in glucagon

141
Q

Glucose regulation via insulin and glucagon are examples of what kind of feedback loop

A

negative feedback loops

142
Q

In low intensity exercise (ie walking) what source of energy is used

A

mainly blood glucose and fatty acids (some muscle triglycerides and glycogen)

143
Q

In moderate to high intensity exercise (ie. cycling) what source of energy is used

A

mainly muscle triglycerides and glycogen (some blood glucose and fatty acids)

144
Q

In very high intensity exercise (ie. sprinting) what source of energy is used

A

muscle glycogen and phosphocreatine (anaerobic)

145
Q

What is the most frequent source for polymorphic change

A

SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms)

146
Q

How does genetic variation occur in things such as metabolism

A

depending on your genotype, you may be able to metabolize certain things quickly, moderately, or really slowly
genetic variation (variation in genotype)

147
Q

What is the ratio of nucleotides affected by SNPs

A

1 in 300

148
Q

Aging is related to an increase in ___________________ ______________

A

inflammatory cytokines

149
Q

Why are inflammatory cytokines related to aging

A

they promote inflammation, leading to disease (comes with aging)

150
Q

What is a polymorphism

A

a DNA sequence variation that is common in the population

151
Q

What does it mean for a SNP to be common

A

occurs in more than 5% of people

152
Q

Where does damage occur 10x more frequently when compared to damage occurring in the nuclear genome

A

the mitochondria

153
Q

Why does damage occur at such a higher rate in the mitochondria

A

due to generation of reactive oxygen species - highly reactive chemical species containing oxygen

154
Q

What is the function of DNA poly gamma

A

proofread and repair damage in mitochondria DNA

155
Q

Why is it important to maintain function of DNA poly gamma

A

need it to be effective to minimize the occurrence of damage and error

156
Q

With aging, DNA poly gamma functions…

A

less effectively

157
Q

With more cell death, what happens to aging

A

aging progresses

158
Q

What is the overall relationship between mutated DNA gamma and increases exercise

A

those with less effective DNA gamma are seen to have lower brain and muscle weight, however with the incorporation of exercise the mutate individuals see an increase in both, comparable to normal levels

159
Q

What is the overall take away considering aging and exercise as related topics

A

aging results from lowered DNA poly gamma function, but with exercise the effects are very much reduced, in turn reducing the effect of aging

Biol 1080 (3 decks)

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