Final Exam Flashcards

(114 cards)

1
Q

Sebastian noticed that Paul was not preforming up to his usual standards. Sebastian found out Paul is going through a bitter divorce. He referred Paul to a counseling service provided by the company that helps employees resolve personal issues affecting their work. Sebastien referred Paul to an________________-

A

Employee assistance program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When Occupational Health and Safty Act Inspectors discover a hazard that could cause injury or illness that would most likely result in death or significant physical harm, it reports a __________.

A

Serious violation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

To help protect employees, the _____________ requires that employers pursue workplace safety that deals with the physical protection of people from injury or illness while on the job.

A

Occupational Safety and Helth Act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Isaacs’s organization offers several sets of benefits. One set would appeal to younger people, and one set would appeal to parents of young kids, His organization is offering ________________

A

A modular plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The largest US statutory programs in both size and cost to employers is

A

Social Security and Medicare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maria is conducting a job evaluation in her organization by breaking each job down into component skills or abilities, and she will assign points to each skill/ability based on its difficulty. This is the ___________.

A

Point factor method of job evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In examining her organization’s benefits package, Petra has determined that the organization can provide a 40% premium to direct compensation for the costs of benefits. What aspect of providing a benefits program is Petra considering?

A

amount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____________ Theory proposes that the employees are motivated when the ratio of there perceived outcomes to inputs is at least equal to that of the other referent individuals

A

equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The major provision of the _______________ cover minimum wage, over time, and child labor rules.

A

Fair Labor Standards act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Coles’s performance appraisal describes his actions along a continuum. For example, when it comes to customer services, he receives a 1 if he regularly ignores customers, a 3 if he regularly greets customers, and a 5 if he regularly greets customers and asks how he can help. Cole is using the ____________ method of performance appraisal.

A

behaviorally anchored rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bryan closed a huge sale on the first week of his new sales job. Although his work since has been average, he still receives an excellent performance appraisal review. it is likely that his manager is making a _____________ error.

A

Halo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

You are a restaurant owner who installed a new food ordering system intending to speed up the time it takes to serve meals, so you need to train employees on how to use the new system. Which assessment method is most appropriate to the situation?

A

Results evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

As a result of his last performance appraisal, Deron finally got the promotion he had been seeking for 3 years. His supervisor agreed with Deron that his performance had improved and that Deron was ready to take on more responsibility. This is an example of the _____________ reason for conducting performance appraisals.

A

Decision making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Jason is looking for a method of training his employees that will provide hands-on experience and allow for the instructors to customize the training for each employee’s needs. Jason’s best choice of training method would be ________________ training.

A

On the job training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After Ahmad completed training on the use of the new forklift, Ahmed’s supervisor made notes on how well Ahmed handled the equipment. Ahmed’s supervisor was completing a ___________ assessment of training.

A

Behavioral evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When conducting selection interviews, Yoko has a list of prepared questions from which she stays consistent. She asks all job candidates the same questions in the same order. Yoko conducts a __________ interview.

A

Structured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Kelsey took her driver’s test on Tuesday. The results were lost when the computer crashed. She retook the test and received the same score. It is clear that the driving test has

A

reliability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When an organization compares a score on a selection test to the job performance of existing workers in that job, the organization is using __________ validity.

A

Criterion related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The marketing department at ACME Global is loosely structured with little hierarchy. This allows for different employees to take the lead on different projects based on their workload and their interests. Hans joined the department from a different company which had clear lines of authority. He quit ACME in 2 months, saying that he just could not figure out how to contribute to the department. It appears that the ACME Global job lacked______________ for Hans.

A

Personal Organization fit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Kim wants her employees to be able to perform each other’s jobs when they take vacations. Which of the following is the most appropriate training method?

A

Job rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ability–job fit

A

Individuals’ physical and intellectual skills affect how they work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Personality–job fit

A

Personality affects how people work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Person–organization fit

A

How individuals fit within the structure and how culture affects how they work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

negligent hire

A

A legal concept that says that if the organization hires someone who may pose a danger to coworkers, customers, or other third parties, and if that person harms someone else in the course of working for the company, then the company can be held liable for the individual’s actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
Provides information that can be used to avoid discriminatory hiring practices and discrimination in other employment decisions.
26
Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures says that all employment tests used must be _________ and _____________.
valid and reliable
27
Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures: Criterion-related validity
the extent to which the measure predicts future job performance (i.e., correlation between test scores and job performance scores)
28
Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures: Content Validity
: the extent to which the measure captures essential components of the job (consistency between test items and kinds of situations/problems that occur on the job)
29
Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures: Realiabilty
stability, consistency of scores on the measure
30
Structured interview
Candidates are asked the same questions. More valid, but less frequently used in practices
31
Semi-structured interview
Interviewers follow a list of questions but also ask unplanned questions. Less valid than structured interview, but more frequently used in practices
32
Unstructured interview
Interviewers have no preplanned questions or sequence of topics. This type is most susceptible to discrimination claims because it introduces the most interviewer bias
33
Common Interview Questions
consistent questions to ask all candidates to objectively compare the candidates and select the most qualified
34
Behavior-based Questions Situational Questions
putting you in a hypothetical situation that you would likely face in the job you are applying for e.g., What would be your solution to this customer’s complaint?
35
Behavior-based Questions Behavior Descriptive Questions
open-ended form about something specific that you have done in the past e.g., Give me an example of a time when you solved an analytically difficult problem
36
illegal question chart
37
Multiple-hurdle selection model Definition
Requires that each applicant must pass a particular selection test in order to go to the next test.
38
Compensatory selection model Definition
Allows individuals to do poorly on one test but make up for that by doing exceptionally on other tests. Weigh the total outcome.
39
Mindfulness to Avoid Intuition and Bias
-Rushing -Stereotyping -‘Like me’ syndrome (i.e., similarity attraction paradigm) -Halo/horns effect -Premature selection (e.g., contrast effect)
40
What are the 3 steps for training and development
Asses Training needs Create Materials and Implement Evaluate Training
41
when is training needed?
-New employee onboarding -New job requirements or processes -Remediation - Employee development for advancement
42
What is the purpose of needs analysis (or needs assessment)
Analyzing the difference between what is currently occurring within a job or jobs and what is required – either now or in the future based on the organization’s operations and strategic goals -Helps to identify specific problem areas (‘gaps’) -Helps to obtain management support -Develop baseline data for evaluation -Helps to determine costs/benefits (ROI)
43
What are the three sources of needs analysis?
organizational analysis Job analysis individual analysis
44
What are common challenges to the training process
Unprepared Workforce Strategic congruence Scheduling Resistance to change Return on Investment/ Cost Justification
45
Principals that enhance learning
Goal Setting Distributed Practice with Mistakes Feedback meaningful materials learning by doing
46
Methods to develop technical skills
Programmed Learning Job rotation projects written material, lectures, videos, Q&A , discussions, demonstrations
47
Methods to develop Interpersonal Skills
Role- Playing Behavior modeling
48
Methods to develop Conceptual and Design / Business Skills
cases In basket exercise (simulations using real materials) Management games Interactive videos.
49
Principals that enhance transfer of training
-Exercises that mimic job tasks -on-the-job training -Support from co-workers, supervisors
50
Kirkpatrick Training Model: Reaction
-How individuals respond to the training process
51
Kirkpatrick Training Model: Learning
-Gained knowledge, learned new skills, and/or changed attitudes
52
Kirkpatrick Training Model: Behaviors
-Trainee’s changed on-the-job behaviors
53
Kirkpatrick Training Model: Results
-Improved individual behavioral changes affecting organizational results
54
Kirkpatrick Training Model:
Reaction Learning Behavior Results
55
What are three ways that measure training success?
ROI Customer satisfaction Employee satisfaction
56
What are the 3 ways that measure training success?
ROI Customer Satisfaction Employee Satisfaction
57
Customer Satisfaction
(a results metric) can provide information on “value per customer” of the training
58
ROI =
(Gain from investment – Cost of investment) / Cost of investment, multiply it by 100
59
ROI If a training program is designed to reduce annual voluntary turnover rates Average cost of turnover of one employee = $7,500 Annual voluntary turnover reduction after training = 8 employees Total cost of training (course development, materials, instructor, etc.) =$25,000
(7500*8)= 60,000 (60,000-25,000)/25,000 = 1.4 *100 ROI= 140%
60
Employee Satisfaction
(a reaction metric) correlates with absenteeism and turnover
61
Performance Management (PM)
Identifying, measuring, managing, and developing HR performance; serves as systematic measurement of performance
62
Performance Appraisal (PA)
Evaluating individual employee performance; vital component of performance management process
63
Major purposes of Performance appraisal
* Communication (Informing) * Decision Making (Evaluating) * Motivation (Engaging) * Evaluating + Engaging = Development
64
Secondary purposes Performance appraisal
* Performance vs. Training needs analysis (supports development) * Legal documentation (supports decision-making) * Criteria for selection test validation
65
What are the characteristics of accurate performance measures
-Valid and reliable -Acceptable and feasible -Specific and pertinent to the job itself -Based on the mission and objectives
66
4 steps to the performance appraisal process
1.Job analysis 2. Develop Standards and measurement methods 3. informal performance appraisal (coaching and discipline) 4. Prepare for and conduct the formal performance appraisal.
67
Critical incidents methods
a performance appraisal method in which a manager keeps a written record of the positive and negative performance of employees throughout the performance period.
68
Management by objectives
A Process in which managers and employees jointly set objectives for the employees, periodically evaluate performance and reward employees according to those results
69
Narrative method/form
Requires a manager to write a statement about the employee's performance.
70
Graphic rating scale
A performance appraisal checklist form on which a manager simply rates performance on a continuum, such as 1-7 or fair, good, or excellent.
71
Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)
A performance appraisal that provides a description of each assessment along a continuum but describes the actual activity that is being rated rather than overall performance.
72
Ranking
A performance appraisal method that is used to evaluate employee performance from best to worst.
73
who should assess performance
* Supervisors * Peers * Subordinates * Customers * Self-assessment * 360-degree evaluations
74
Identify biases and errors in the appraisal process.
Stereotyping, Halo/Horns Similarity Distribution Recency Contrast errors
75
How can we avoid or minimize biases and errors in the performance appraisal process?
* Use multiple criteria * Train evaluators * Use multiple raters
76
How can we avoid or minimize biases and errors in the performance appraisal process? Use multiple criteria
* Minimize use of trait-based evaluations * Give measures the OUCH test
77
How can we avoid or minimize biases and errors in the performance appraisal process? Train evaluators
* Overcome common problems of assessment * Use measurement methods and forms * Use frame-of-reference training to reduce bias
78
How can we avoid or minimize biases and errors in the performance appraisal process? Use Multiple Raters
360 degree feedback
79
What are the strategies for giving effective feedback?
1. Focus on tasks & behavior, NOT personal characteristics 2. Implement fairness principles 3. Connect feedback to goal-setting & larger org. strategy
80
Compensation (Financial rewards)
Base pay (wages or salary) Wage & salary add-ons Incentive Pay Benefits
81
Non-compensation (Nonfinancial rewards)
Culture/Positive employer brand Opportunities to grow & develop Intrinsically motivating work Desired Goods/Services
82
Equity theory:
Employees are motivated when the ratio of their perceived outcomes to inputs is roughly equal to referent individual
83
What are the three types of job evaluation methods
Job ranking Point factor Factor comparison
84
Job ranking
Subjectively ordering jobs from lowest to highest or vice versa in terms of value to company
85
Point factor
Objectively breaking down job into “compensable factors” and applying points to factors based on job’s level of difficulty
86
Factor comparison
Analyzing and ranking “compensable factors” of benchmark jobs in pay surveys and ranking firm’s jobs against benchmark
87
Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938, as amended
Minimum wage, overtime issues, & child labor rules
88
Equal Pay Act of 1963
Wage differentials based on gender are prohibited
89
Pay Levels
Combines different jobs into grades with a maximum and minimum pay rate
90
Pay Structure:
A hierarchy of jobs and their rates of pay within the organization. Allows us to identify what the pay range is for each job.
91
What are the factors we have to consider in setting the minimum and maximum level value for a particular pay level?
Minimum: Laws, Labor market, collective bargaining Maximum: product market (profit)
92
How can we lower the number of pay levels
Delayering and Broadbanding
93
Delayering
The process of changing the company structure to get rid of some of the vertical hierarchy (reporting levels) in an organization.
94
Broad banding
Combining multiple pay levels into one. (lowering the number of pay levels)
95
Strategic value of benefits programs
* Increasing demand from employees / candidates * Tax advantages (for employer & employee) * Statutory requirements (Social Security laws, ACA, FMLA, etc.) * Influence of organized labor (collective bargaining) * Buying in bulk (cost-effective to buy for large employers; once you add almost impossible to take away)
96
3 factors determine benefits programs
Amount company can pay Mix- what types of benefits Flexibility- (fixed, modular, full choice)
97
What are the 4 statutory benefits
-Social security & Medicare -Workers’ compensation -Unemployment insurance -Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
98
Social security & Medicare
retirement income and health insurance
99
Workers’ compensation
Program to provide medical treatment & temporary payments to employees who can’t work because of employment-related injury or illness
100
Unemployment insurance
Provides workers who lose their jobs with continuing subsistence payments from their state for a specified period
101
Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
Unpaid leave for ‘eligible employees’ to handle specific list of family/self care obligations Restoration of original job or one equivalent in pay, benefits, & conditions of employment
102
Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act) 1970
Requiring employers to pursue workplace safety, which deals with the physical protection of employees from injury or illness while on the job. Enforced by the Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) * Employers must meet all OSHA safety standards, maintain records of injuries and deaths due to workplace accidents, submit to on-site inspections when notified
103
Types of OSHA Violations: Serious
a violation where the hazard could cause injury or illness that would most likely result in death or significant physical harm
104
Types of OSHA Violations: Other than Serious
a violation where any illness or injury likely to result from the hazard is unlikely to cause death or serious physical harm, but the violation does have a direct impact on employees’ safety and health
105
Types of OSHA Violations: Willful
a violation in which the employer has demonstrated either an intentional disregard for OSHA requirements or indifference to employee safety and health
106
Types of OSHA Violations: Repeated
violations where the employer has been previously cited for the same type of violation within the previous five years
107
Employee assistance programs (EAP)
Counseling and other services provided to employees that help resolve personal issues that may affect their work
108
Employee wellness programs (EWP)
Cater to employees’ physical welfare through education and training programs, such as health education, training and fitness, weight and lifestyle management, and health risk assessment services
109
What Does OSHA Do?
Sets and communicates federal safety and health standards to employers; Provides resources and consultation for employers * Occupational safety and health inspections must be made without any advance notice in response to: imminent dangers catastrophes worker complaints targeted inspections follow-up inspections
110
What are the responsibilities of employers for workplace safety?
-General Duty Clause -Find/Correct Hazards -Inform/Train employees on existing Hazards -Notify OSHA 8 hours of fatality and 24 hours of hospitalization -Provide PPE necessary to do job at no cost -keep records of illness/injury -Avoid retaliation against employees
111
Identify the reasons why we should care about employee safety, health, and wellness.
-statistics on workplace dangers -OSHA -Direct / Indirect Costs -Ethics and Morals
112
Promoting Employee Well-Being (SHRM Guide)
-Health Risk Assessment -Org. Culture Assessment -Develop Health & Work Behavior Plan/ Wellness Program -Evaluate Success -
113
How do you manage stress caused by a heavy workload
Balancing job demands and resources (Social support, decision-making, feed back, control over work)
114