Final Exam Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

What is characteristic of separation anxiety disorder? Does the typical/expected separation anxiety
that often occurs during childhood qualify as this diagnosis/disorder?

A
  1. Developmentally inappropriate and excessive rear or anxiety concerning separation from those whom the individual is attached, as evidenced by 3 separation symptoms.
  2. No
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2
Q

What is involved in a specific phobia (Criteria A)? Duration?

A

A: Marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation (i.e., flying, heights, animals, receiving an injection, seeing blood)

Duration: 6 months or more

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3
Q

What is the first DSM criterion for social anxiety disorder (social phobia)? What is the “perceived
threat?” Note that there is also concern about showing anxiety symptoms, leading to negative
evaluation (2nd criterion).

A

A: Marked fear or anxiety about 1+ social situations in qhich the individual is exposed to possible scrutiny in others.

The perceived threat: negative evaluation by others/scrutiny

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4
Q

Are the panic attacks in panic disorder expected or unexpected? Is one attack sufficient? In addition
to panic attacks, what else has to occur for 1 or more months (Criterion B)?

A
  • Unexpected
  • No, more than 1
  • Persistent fear of future attacks, maladaptive behavioral change as a result of the anticipation of another panic attack
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5
Q

What are common symptoms of a panic attack (physiological and cognitive)? How many
symptoms are needed to qualify as a panic attack?

A

-There are 13 symptoms:
Palpitations, pounding heart
Sweating
Trembling/shaking
Shortness of breath
Feelings of choking
Chest pain/discomfort
Nausea/abdominal distress
Dizzy/lightheaded/unsteady
Chills/heat sensations
Parasthesias (numb/tingling)
Derealization
Fear of losing control
Fear of dying

  • At least 4
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6
Q

What is the source of perceived threat for a person with agoraphobia? In the event of developing
panic-like symptoms, the person is concerned that _____ or _____. How many settings?

A

Source of threat: the real or anticipated exposure to a wide range of situations. They fear something terrible might happen.

thoughts that escape from certain situations might be difficult or help might not be available in the event of developing panic-like symptoms or other incapacitating symptoms.

Settings: 2 or more

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7
Q

Can substances, medications, or medical conditions contribute to anxiety symptoms?

A

Yep!

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8
Q

Is it important to involve parents when treating children with separation anxiety disorder?

A

Yep!

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9
Q

How was “external exposure” utilized in the agoraphobia video (elevator, subway, bus) or
snake phobia video?

A

The individuals were made to be in the presence of the things they feared as therapy to address their fears.

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10
Q

Give a specific example of “habituation” in treatment.

A

The person must remain in the situation
“long enough” for anxiety to reach a peak and then decline and to repeat the exposure “often enough”
for habituation to occur and anxiety to extinguish

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11
Q

How was “expectancy violation” demonstrated in the videos?

A

Sedata’s belief she would
get trapped and die if she was in an elevator, however that expectation was violated. Therefore, her
cognitions were revised to see elevators as less threatening

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12
Q

What is a concern about using medications prior to interoceptive exposure, during the treatment of
phobias, or when treating other anxiety disorders?

A

Its use reduces the person’s ability to benefit from exposure-based treatment.

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13
Q

Is the prognosis for the treatment of
specific phobias favorable?

A

Yep!

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14
Q

What are 2 components of the treatment plan for social anxiety disorder?

A

Exposure and cognitive restructuring

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15
Q

How can therapists help by providing psychoeducation about panic symptoms (and reframing
them)? Specifically, how could it help a person understand that the rapid breathing, rapid heart rate,
dizziness, and tingling experienced during a panic attack are uncomfortable, but not dangerous?

A

People who understand the physiology of a panic attack are less likely to be terrified when another occurs.

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16
Q

What is the treatment of choice for panic disorder

A

Good o’l CBT!

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17
Q

Briefly describe what is involved with interoceptive (internal) exposure in Panic Control Therapy

A

create panic-like
sensations by spinning in chair, rapid breathing, brisk exercise, breathing through straw

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18
Q

What is helpful about
evoking panic-like symptoms in Panic Control Therapy (with interoceptive exposure)?

A

person gets accustomed to and learns to cope with these
symptoms and realizes that, while uncomfortable, they are not dangerous

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19
Q

What is the DSM definition of obsessions?

A

recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are experienced as intrusive and unwanted

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20
Q

What is the DSM definition of compulsions?

A

repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly

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21
Q

What
purpose or function do compulsions serve?

A

Aim is to prevent or reduce anxiety/distress or to prevent a dreaded situation or event

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22
Q

What are 2 common obsessions and 2
compulsions that apply to OCD?

A

Obsessions: Contamination, Obsessions of harm/danger/loss, perfectionistic obsessions, aggressive obsessions, superstitious/magical obsessions, religious obsessions, sexual obsessions, health or body-focused obsessions, neutral obsessions

Compulsions: Decontamination, checking, perfectionistic, counting, touching/movement, protective, body-focused, hoarding/collecting

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23
Q

Does a person need both obsessions and compulsions for an OCD diagnosis?

A

No. There needs to be a presence of obsessions, compulsions, or both

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24
Q

What are 2 ways that
the obsessions and compulsions in OCD are viewed as “maladaptive”

A

Time consuming (1 hour+ per day), clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning

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25
What is the primary concern of those with body dysmorphic disorder
Preoccupation with one or more perceived defects or flaws in appearance -- not noticeable to others
26
How does skin- picking or hair removal differ in BDD from that of excoriation and trichotillomania?
BDD: when skin picking is intended to improve the appearance of perceived skin defects Excoriation: Recurrent skin picking despite efforts to stop, causes skin lesions Trichotillomania: Recurrent pulling out of hair, resulting in hair loss despite repeated attempts to decrease/stop
27
Why do those with hoarding disorder acquire and maintain so many possessions (Criterion B)?
Perceived need to save items and distress associated with discarding them
28
Does the DSM diagnosis of hoarding disorder apply if hoarding is the result of a medical condition (e.g., brain injury)?
No
29
What is the recommended treatment for OCD?
Exposure Response Prevention (ERP)
30
To what is a person “exposed” in ERP? What is the “response prevention” part?
Individual is exposed to obsessional cues and then preventing the person's ritual or compulsion
31
What is one way a therapist could help enhance motivation for a person with hoarding disorder?
Motivational interviewing!!! Also, setting goals: increase the disposal of possessions and decrease the inflow of new items
32
Do those with hoarding disorder usually seek treatment voluntarily?
Not usually
33
What are the 4 main symptom categories of PTSD in the DSM?
Intrusion symptoms, avoidance of stimuli associated with trauma, alterations in cognitions/mood, alteration in arousal and reactivity
34
What constitutes a trauma for PTSD or acute stress disorder?
Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence in one or more ways: Direct experience Witness Learn about event (close fam member/friend) Repeated/extreme exposure to aversive details of traumatic events
35
What is the distinction between PTSD and acute stress disorder in terms of duration of symptoms?
ASD: Duration is from 3 days to one month PTSD: Duration is more than 1 month
36
In prolonged exposure therapy, to what is the person exposed
memory of trauma event and external cues
37
Ideally, when should treatment begin for PTSD?
ASAP. The earlier a person gets intervention following trauma, the better the prognosis
38
Besides prolonged exposure therapy, what are two other evidence-supported interventions for PTSD?
Cognitive Processing Therapy Anxiety Management Training
39
What are 4 DSM symptoms in the criteria for a substance use disorder? How many symptoms are required, over what period of time?
PIC-SIR Physical Aspects Impaired Control Social Impairment Risky Use 2 or more within a 12-month period
40
Besides typical symptoms of being “under the influence” (slurred speech, incoordination), what else is needed for the DSM diagnosis of alcohol intoxication
Recent alcohol consumption Significant problematic behavior or psychological changes develop during, or shortly after, consumption (impaired judgment, aggression, etc.)
41
Is alcohol withdrawal is also a diagnosis?
Yes!
42
What are 2 similarities of the criteria for gambling disorder and the substance use disorders
Impaired control and social impairment or elements of tolerance and withdrawal
43
According to the Stages of Change Model, what is the precontemplation stage?
people are not thinking seriously about changing and are not interested in help.
44
According to the Stages of Change Model, what is the contemplation stage?
people are more aware of the consequences of their behavior and may consider the possibility of changing, while also remaining ambivalent about it
45
What is the primary goal of motivational enhancement therapy?
to help increase the person’s internal motivation to change
46
How is “client-provided assessment data” used?
To provide additional talking points, reinforce progress, and boost motivation to succeed.
47
What are 4 components of a combination intervention for the treatment of substance use disorders?
Detox, individual therapy, group therapy, family therapy, relapse prevention. Relapse prevention is important to build into any treatment because it helps individuals recognize their triggers and overcome or replace their cravings.
48
What are essential diagnostic features of anorexia nervosa?
Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight Intense fear of gaining weight, even if significantly low BMI disturbance in the way one's body weight or shape is experienced, undue influence of body weight or shape on self-eval, or persistent lack of recognition of seriousness of low body weight
49
Anorexia: What are the 2 specifiers? How is severity rated?
Restricting type Binge-eating/purging type BMI!
50
What are 3 DSM criteria for bulimia nervosa? Note the frequency and timeframe requirements. How is severity determined?
Recurrent episodes of binge eating: - Eating in a discrete period of time an amount of food that is much larger than what most people eat - Sense of lack of control -Recurrent compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain (vomiting, laxatives, intense exercise, etc.) DURATION: Binge eating and compensatory behaviors both occur at least once a week for 3 months SEVERITY: by # compensatory episodes per week
51
What is involved in a binge?
Eating in a discrete period of time an amount of food that is much larger than what most people eat
52
What is the key distinction between bulimia nervosa and binge eating disorder (BED)?
There are no compensatory behaviors (laxatives, vomiting, etc.) to manage weight with BED.
53
Frequency and timeframe for Binge Eating Disorder? How is severity determined?
Occurs, on average, at least once a week for 3 months. Severity: by number of binge episodes per week
54
For the person with bulimia, what are common triggers for binges? What is the possible gain of self-induced vomiting?
Negative emotional states; increased sense of self-control, reduced anxiety
55
What are some distinct research-supported treatments for bulimia, anorexia, and BED
CBT-E, DBT, IPT, family therapy
56
How common is binge eating disorder relative to other eating disorders?
It may be the most frequently occurring eating disorder. Yes, it is treatable.
57
A diagnosis of intellectual disability (ID) requires deficits in intellectual functioning and what else? How is the severity level determined of someone with ID determined?
Adaptive functioning; IQ
58
What are the two DSM categories of impairment for autism spectrum disorder (Criterion A & B)? How is severity level determined?
Deficits in communication and social interaction; restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities RRBIA: How much support is needed
59
For ADHD, what are examples of inattentive symptoms? hyperactivity-impulsivity symptoms? (68-69) In how many settings do these symptoms need to be evident?
Inattentive: Careless mistakes, unable to concentrate or maintain attention, fails to give close attention to details, difficulty organizing tasks Impulsivity: Leaves seat, runs out or climbs, unable to play quietly, blurting out, interrupting, difficulty waiting turn, fidgeting Settings: 2+
60
What combination of tics makes Tourette’s disorder distinctive among the tic disorders? Does the Tourette diagnosis apply if the person solely has motor tics or solely vocal tics?
Tourette's: Both multiple motor and one or more vocal tics present at some time during illness, though not necessarily concurrently No!
61
What are 2 helpful components to include in interventions for autism spectrum disorders?
Two of these: - Structured behavioral and educational interventions -Parent training and support -Communication and social skills training - Setting individual goals and objectives
62
Under prognosis, what is the most important factor for a positive outcome for ASD?
Early intervention!
63
What are 4 components in the treatment for ADHD
classroom teaching strategies, parent management training, behavioral interventions, and medications
64
What medications are effective in treating ADHD
Stimulants
65
What are 3 typical symptoms (from DSM) of oppositional defiant disorder?
Angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, vindictiveness
66
What are 3 main categories of symptoms in the DSM diagnosis of conduct disorder?
Aggression to people/animals Destruction of property Deceitfulness/theft Serious violation of rules
67
What is considered more severe – Conduct Disorder or Oppositional Defiant Disorder? In what way?
CD! ODD does not include destruction of property, aggression toward people/animals, or a pattern of theft or deceit
68
Why do those with pyromania set fires? Fire setting is NOT done for what other reasons?
the build-up of tension or arousal before the act and corresponding relief, pleasure or gratification during or after. Spite, monetary gain, personal expression, criminal activity
69
How does kleptomania differ from ordinary shoplifting?
As with pyromania, note the build-up of tension in advance followed by relief, pleasure, or gratification.
70
What is one of the most studied treatment for ODD (and CD)?
Parent management training
71
What is the focus of parent management training (PMT)? What is the outcome of this intervention?
Provides evidence that modifying family dynamics can improve child behavior
72
If kleptomania-like symptoms have a sudden onset, what must be done first in treatment? Why?
Medical evaluation to rule out med conditions!