Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Neuroscience 2 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

(115 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

The Portion of visual field where light falls upon both retinas is termed what?

A

Binocular zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the visual pathway:

A
  1. Visual Field
  2. Retina
  3. Optic nerve
  4. Optic chiasm
  5. Optic tract
  6. Lateral Geniculate Body of the thalamus
  7. Optic Radiations
  8. Primary visual cortex in occipital lobe (Brodmann’s area 17)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How would a lesion of the optic nerve affect vision?

A

Ipsilateral complete loss of vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How would a lesion at the optic chiasm affect vision?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia. i.e. loss of vision on the left side of one retina and the right side of the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How would a lesion to the optic radiation affect vision?

A

Homonymous hemianopia. i.e. loss of vision on nasal side of one retina and temporal side of the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Identify the three semicircular canals

A

Horizontal
Anterior
Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Identify the two otolith organs

A

Utricle
Saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The semicircular canals are sensitive to ______ movement.

A

rotational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Each semicircular canal has a swelling called an ________.

A

Ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The utricle is sensitive to ______ movement.

A

Horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The saccule is sensitive to _______ movement.

A

Vertical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Term for when eyes make repetitive, uncontrolled movements

A

Nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nystagmus is typically observed at the BEGINNING/END range.

A

End range (or following movement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Five stages of the Hoehn-Yahr

A

Stage 1: Minimal signs of PD
Stage 2: Bilateral symptoms
Stage 3: Balance impairment
Stage 4: Severe disability
Stage 5: Advanced disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Progressions of Huntington’s Disease (3)

A

Early stage: Subtle symptoms. Involuntary movements (chorea), changes in mood or cognition, coordination and balance difficulty. Often still able to maintain independence.

Intermediate stage: More pronounced symptoms. Leads to difficulty walking, speaking, and swallowing. Cognitive symptoms become more prominent.

Advanced stage: Severe motor impairments. Rigidity and bradykinesia. May be wheelchair bound or bedridden.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of the Cerebellum?

A

Coordinates movement by comparing intended movement and actual movement and making ongoing adjustments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Identify two lobes of the Cerebellum

A

Anterior lobe and posterior lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Both cerebellar lobes are separated by the ______________, have similar function, and have a central region called the ________ and a lateral region called the _________.

A

Primary fissure; vermis; cerebellar hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Spinocerebellum of the cerebellum is made up of the ________ and the __________.

A

Vermis and Intermediate zone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The cerebrocerebellum is made up of the _____________.

A

Lateral cerebellar hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Vestibulocerebellum is made up of the ____________.

A

Floccuolonodular lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Identify the deep cerebellar nuclei (4)

A
  • Dentate
  • Emboliform
  • Globose
  • Fastigial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what two deep cerebellar nuclei make up the interposed nuclei

A

Emboliform
Globose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which deep cerebellar nucleus does motor execution through medial descending systems?

A

Fastigial nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which deep cerebellar nucleus does motor execution through lateral descending systems?
Interposed nucleus
26
Which deep cerebellar nucleus does motor planning through the motor and premotor cortex?
Dentate nucleus
27
For the following functional division of the cerebellum, identify the region, deep nuclei and function associated with it: Cerebrocerebellum.
Region: Lateral hemispheres Deep nuclei: Dentate Function: Motor planning
28
For the following functional division of the cerebellum, identify the region, deep nuclei and function associated with it: Spinocerebellum (medial)
Region: Vermis Deep nuclei: Fastigial Function: Motor execution of trunk
29
For the following functional division of the cerebellum, identify the region, deep nuclei and function associated with it: Spinocerebellum (lateral)
Region: Intermediate hemispheres Deep nuclei: Interposed Function: Motor execution of limbs
30
For the following functional division of the cerebellum, identify the region, deep nuclei and function associated with it: Vestibulocerebellum
Region: Flocculonodular lobe Deep nuclei: Vestibular Functions: Axial control, balance, extraocular mm
31
Broca's Aphasia is also known as _________.
Expressive aphasia
32
Wernicke's Aphasia is also known as ____________.
Receptive aphasia
33
Describe expressive aphasia
Difficulty producing language/speech
34
Describe receptive aphasia
Difficulty in understanding language
35
Difficulty articulating words because of weakness, paralysis, or coordination.
Dysarthria
36
Able to produce speech that flows fluidly and effortlessly, but lacking coherence.
Fluent aphasia
37
What artery supplies blood to the anterior system of the CNS?
Internal carotid
38
What artery supplies blood to the posterior system of the CNS?
Vertebral
39
Identify the three arteries supplying the cerebellum
Superior Cerebellar Artery (SCA) Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (AICA) Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (PICA)
40
T/F the circle of willis includes the MCA.
False
41
Identify the arteries of the circle of willis
Anterior cerebral Anterior communicating Internal carotid Posterior communicating Posterior Cerebral
42
The anterior system of blood supply to the CNS includes:
MCA ACA
43
The posterior system of blood supply to the CNS includes:
PCA
44
Classify the cranial nerves into sensory, motor or both.
Sensory: Olfactory Optic Vestibulocochlear Motor: Oculomotor Trochlear Abducens Accessory Hypoglossal Both: Trigeminal Facial Glossopharyngeal Vagus
45
Which cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus mm, abducting the eye laterally?
CN VI: Abducens
46
Which cranial nerve controls the superior oblique mm, moving the eye laterally and downward?
CN IV: Trochlear
47
Which CN innervates the tongue muscle?
CN XII: Hypoglossal
48
Which CN provides sensory to the face and motor for muscles of mastication?
CN V: Trigeminal
49
Identify the three divisions of the Trigeminal nerve from top to bottom:
Opthalmic (V1) Maxillary (V2) Mandibular (V3)
50
Which CN controls muscles of facial expression, taste, tears, and salivation?
CN VII: Facial
51
Which CN provides sensation of the posterior tongue and pharynx, taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue, talking and swallowing?
CN IX: Glossopharyngeal
52
Which CN provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lungs, and digestive tract, swallow and gag reflex?
CN X: Vagus
53
Identify three things the DCML communicates
Discriminative touch Proprioception and vibration Precise localization, fine intensity gradation
54
Identify two things the spinothalamic tract communicates
Crude touch Pain and temperature
55
Within the DCML, the gracile fasciculus communicates signals from what regions of the body?
LE and lower trunk
56
Within the DCML, the cuneate fasciculus communicates signals from what regions of the body?
UE and upper trunk
57
The lateral spinothalamic tract is in charge of communicating ______________.
Pain and temperature
58
The anterior spinothalamic tract is in charge of communicating ____________.
Crude touch
59
Identifying a familiar object without vision is termed ____________.
Stereognosis
60
Term for a blood clot that forms within a blood vessel at the site of the cause.
Thrombus
61
Term for a blood clot from a transient clot that has lodged within a vessel.
Embolism
62
When stroke symptoms are resolved within 24 hours, this is termed a ______________.
transient ischemic attack
63
FAST stands for
Face is uneven Arm is weak Speech is strange Time to call 911
64
After a stroke, sensation is frequently impaired on the _________ side.
Hemiplegic
65
Neglect is primarily a _______ sided issue.
Left
66
Identify the components of UE flexion synergy (5)
Scapular retraction/elevation Shoulder abduction and external rotation Elbow flexion Forearm Supination Wrist and finger flexion
67
Identify the components of UE extension synergy (5)
Scapular protraction Shoulder adduction and internal rotation Elbow extension Forearm pronation Wrist and finger flexion
68
Identify the components of LE flexion synergy (4)
Hip flexion, abduction, and external rotation Knee flexion Ankle dorsiflexion and eversion Toe extension
69
Identify the components of LE extension synergy (4)
Hip extension, adduction, and internal rotation Knee extension Ankle plantarflexion and inversion Toe flexion
70
_________ is a common reflex to return post stroke.
ATNR
71
The inability to produce movement on command or automatically, showing a breakdown of the conceptualization of the task is termed _____________.
Ideational apraxia
72
The inability to produce movement on command, but able to automatically is termed _____________.
Ideomotor apraxia
73
Chart of 6 stages detailing the sequence of events recovering from hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body)
Brunnstrom's stages of recovery
74
Cut-off score for stroke BERG
Less than or equal to 44 indicates risk of falling
75
What types of questions make up the A and O x4 (alert and oriented)?
Person: can you tell me your name? Place: where are you right now? Time: what year is it? Situation: why are you here?
76
Identify two outcome assessments used to evaluate mental status
MMSE Mini-Cog
77
Term for inability to detect smell
anosmia
78
Term for impaired far vision
Myopia
79
Term for impaired near vision
Presbyopia
80
Term for unequal pupils
Anisocoria
81
Term for eye deviating from normal conjugat position
Strabismus
82
Term for upper eyelid drooping
Ptosis
83
Term for the eye being pulled inward
Estropia
84
Term for constant, involuntary cyclical movement of eyeball
Nystagmus
85
Term for hoarseness indicating vocal cord weakness
Dysphonia
86
Term for difficulty swallowing
Dysphagia
87
Term for difficulty speaking
Dysarthria
88
Term for impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movements
Dysdiadochokinesia
89
Term for inability to judge distance or range of movement
Dysmetria
90
Term for involuntary oscillatory movement
Tremor
91
Term for increase in muscle tone causing greater resistance to movement
rigidity
92
Term for uniform, constant resistance as limb is moved
Lead pipe rigidity
93
Term for series of brief relaxations or "catches" as limb is passively moved
Cogwheel rigidity
94
Term for the ability to maintain COM within the BOS
Balance
95
Define the limits of stability
The maximum distance an individual is willing or able to lean in any direction without loss of balance or changing BOS
96
Define anticipatory postural control
Ability to activate postrual adjustments in advance of destabilizing voluntary movements.
97
Purpose of the clinical test for sensory interaction in balance (CTSIB)
provides the clinician with a means to quantify postural control under various sensory conditions. Doesn't require fancy equipment.
98
How do you test equilibrium?
Induce balance difficulty
99
Stairs should be no more than ______ inches high and _______ inches deep.
7; 11
100
Ramps should have a running slope of __:__. Ramps that are exposed to harsh conditions rquire a slope of __:__.
1:12; 1:20
101
The entrance platform to enter the building should be large enough for __________.
a wheelchair
102
The door threshold should be less than or equal to ____.
1/2 inch
103
The door width should be ____-_____ to accomodate for a wheelchair.
32-34 inches
104
Handrails should be between _____ and _____ inches from the floor
34 and 38 inches
105
Term for involuntary movements that occur simultaneously with intentional movements of another body part
Associated movements
106
Modified Ashworth is a measure of _______.
Tone. What kind of resistance is experienced during passive ROM
107
Strokes should produce UMN/LMN symptoms
UMN
108
Muscle spasms are an UMN/LMN symptom, whereas fasciculations are an UMN/LMN symptom.
UMN; LMN
109
Decreased or absent reflexes are an UMN/LMN symptom, whereas increased reflexes are an UMN/LMN symptom.
LMN; UMN
110
Initially decreased tone that then increases is an UMN/LMN symptom
UMN
111
Decreased or absent tone is an UMN/LMN symptom
LMN
112
Reflex helping a baby get onto their hands and knees
Symmetric tonic neck reflex (STNR)
113
Does the MMT evaluate structures, functions, or participation?
Structures
114
Does bed mobility testing evaluate structures, functions, or participation?
Function
115
Interpret the concept of SEM, MDIC, cut-off scores, sensitivity and specificity.
SEM and MDIC determine meaningful changes over time Cut-off scores categorize patients into different stages of functioning Sensitivity and specificity evaluates how accurate the test is

Neuroscience 2 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions