Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CRJU 412 CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Crime-related information retrieved from an electronic device.

A

Digital evidence:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A cell phone that has voice and
text messaging capabilities but is not able to connect to the Internet. They are called burner phones because they
are inexpensive and thus easily disposable.

A

Burner phone:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A device that when connected to a locked smartphone makes repeated guesses at passcodes until it is successful and the phone is unlocked.

A

GrayKey:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A brand of software/hardware used to extract data from the memory of cell phones and other electronic devices.

A

Cellebrite:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An identifying number that is associated with a computer or other device that can access the Internet.

A

Internet Protocol (IP) address:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Access to the content of phones requires a search warrant, consent, or exigent circumstances.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cellebrite technology Is most often used to extract data from phones.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cell/smartphones

Digital/video cameras

Desktop and laptop computers

Game consoles (e.g., PlayStation)

File storage (hard drive, thumb drive, optical media)

Internet of things (IoT) devices (e.g., smart home devices, Amazon Alexa)

Wearables (e.g., smartwatches)

A

digital evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A way by which citizens can provide information about crimes to the police via phone or Internet.

A

tip lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An alert designed to notify citizens of
a child abduction; an acronym
for America’s Missing: Broadcast Emergency Response.

A

AMBER Alert:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An alert designed to notify patrons and shoppers of a missing child in a store or other business.

A

code Adam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Security surveillance camera video displayed on a television monitor and often recorded via a digital recorder.

A

Closed circuit television (CCTV):

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Persons who assist law enforcement in an active and ongoing capacity, often in drug investigations, and often for some personal benefit.

A

Confidential informants:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Criminal organizations that most often operate in neighborhoods but may be represented nationwide; street gangs are heavily involved in drug trafficking and violent criminal behavior.

A

Street gangs:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Organizations oriented around the use of motorcycles and criminal conduct.

A

Outlaw motorcycle gangs (OMGs):

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The largest crime information network system in the United States; maintained by
the FBI.

A

National Crime Information Center (NCIC):

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A national crime information network that contains information on vehicle registrations, criminal records, and sex offender registrations as well as other information.

A

National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS):
A national crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The science of mental phenomena relating to ESP, telepathy, etc.; this field is outside the traditional study of psychology.

A

Parapsychology:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Injuries sustained by a victim when attempting to protect or defend himself or herself.

A

defense wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • Who is the decedent?
  • What was the cause of the death?
  • If the death is the result of a homicide, who is the offender?
A

Three basic questions are relevant in death investigations:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The actions and injuries that led to a person’s death, such as gunshot wounds, stab wounds, and so forth.

A

cause of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

particles that are discharged from a gun when it is fired

A

gunshot residue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cause of death that occurs when a person is prevented from breathing, such as when strangled.

A

Asphyxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An indicator of strangulation death where small red dots appear in the inner surface of the eyelids, the whites of the eyes, or other skin surfaces

A

Petechial hemorrhages:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The amount of time that has elapsed from time of death to the discovery of the body.

A

Postmortem interval (PMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The cooling of the body upon death.

A

algor mortis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The pooling of blood in a body upon death.

A

liver mortis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The stiffening of muscles upon death.

A

riger mortis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A series of homicides committed by the same offender(s) over time.

A

serial homicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A group of law enforcement personnel formed to investigate a particular crime or combat a particular crime problem.

A

task force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A sexual assault that is facilitated by an offender through the use of a legal or illegal substance.

A

Drug-facilitated sexual assault (DFSA):

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An approach taken when interviewing a sexual assault victim in which documenting
the behavior of the offender is a primary goal.

A

Behavioral- oriented interview:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A nurse with special training in forensic matters who conducts physical forensic examinations of sexual assault victims.

A

Sexual assault nurse examiner (SANE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sexual offenders who are often “friends” or acquaintances of the victim; their motive is usually their sexual pleasure.

A

contact rapists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sexual offenders who
are most often strangers to their victims; their motive is anger and control.

A

sexual agressor rapists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An allegation made by a person that a rape occurred when in fact it did not.

A

false rape allegations

36
Q

Although definitions vary, typically refers
to violence committed by intimate partners, immediate family members, or other relatives.

A

domestic violence

37
Q

Order issued by a judge upon request of a victim that requires the respondent (offender) to stay away from and to not have contact with the victim. Violation of a restraining order is a crime.

A

restraining order

38
Q

Robberies that occur outside in public places, often on the streets or sidewalks.

A

street robberies

39
Q

A robbery that occurs without the use of a weapon;
a mugging is not
a formal crime classification.

A

mugging

39
Q

Confrontations, in which the offender demands money or property from the victim through verbal commands. Violence may follow if compliance is not provided.
* Blitzes, in which the offender uses violence first to gain control over the victim. Once this is accomplished, the robbery occurs.
* Cons, in which the offender first uses a distraction to then surprise the victim with the robbery demand (e.g., asking the victim for a cigarette before robbing him or her).
* Snatch-thefts, in which no communication or interaction occurs before the robbery; the offender simply grabs the property (e.g., purse) and flees.

A

How the robber approaches the victim

40
Q

Packs tellers place in
bags of stolen
cash, unbeknownst to bank robbers; dye packs are programmed to explode, causing cash and potentially other items to be stained.

A

dye packs

41
Q
  • Inferences about how and why the perpetrator selected this particular target
  • The perpetrator’s method of entry
  • The type of property taken and not taken
  • The apparent amount of planning that took place prior to the burglary
  • How the perpetrator searched for property
A

A burglary offender’s MO

41
Q

Property most likely to be taken in burglaries; property that
is concealable, removable, available, valuable, enjoyable, and disposable.

A

“craved” property

42
Q

A person or business that knowingly buys and sells stolen property.

A

professional fence

43
Q

Committing motor vehicle theft for fun.

A

joyriding

44
Q

Technology designed to continuously scan vehicle license plates; used to identify stolen vehicles.

A

license plate reader (LPR)

45
Q

A method of starting an automobile without a key whereby
the ignition wires are accessed by breaking open the steering column or removing
the ignition.

A

peeling

46
Q

A place where stolen cars are disassembled in order to sell their parts.

A

chop shop

47
Q

Cars used in undercover decoy operations in which investigators provide an opportunity for perpetrators to steal a car that is being monitored; the theft can lead to an arrest.

A

bait cars

47
Q

Fires classified as caused by arson.

A

incendiary

48
Q

The place where a fire began.

A

point of origin

49
Q

An emotional compulsion to start fires; a motive for arson.

A

Pyromania:

50
Q

Crimes that require the use of a computer or other electronic device in order to commit them.

A

cybercrime

51
Q

A crime whereby one person steals the personal information of another and uses it without permission

A

identity theft

52
Q

A method used to perpetrate prescription
drug fraud,
which involves a person visiting multiple doctors to obtain multiple prescriptions.

A

doctor shopping

53
Q

Crimes in which a computer system is attacked;
usually the intent
is to disable it, vandalize it, or steal information from it.

A

cyberattack

54
Q

Bullying behaviors that occur via
the Internet, particularly through social media.

A

cyberbullying

55
Q

Crimes that often, but not always, involve the use of a computer device in order to commit them.

A

Computer- facilitated crimes:

56
Q

Involves threats and/or coercion by an offender usually related to the release of sexually oriented photographs of the victim.

A

sextortion

57
Q

Involves establishing an online relationship with a victim for illegal or deceptive purposes.

A

catphishing

58
Q

Involves one person masquerading as another through information distortion.

A

spoofing

59
Q

Closely related to sextortion, usually involves former intimate partners; the offender threatens to make public compromising photos of the
victim as revenge for a terminated relationship.

A

revenge pornogrpahy

60
Q

A way to describe the court process
in this country;
the prosecution and defense are opponents, each highlighting certain evidence in the case, and the judge is the referee.

A

Adversarial
process:

61
Q

An expression referring to an incorrect judicial outcome; an innocent person is convicted or a guilty person
goes free.

A

Miscarriage
of justice:

62
Q

The process of selecting a jury for a trial.

A

Voir dire:

63
Q

Elicits testimony from a prosecutor’s witness through questioning by
the prosecutor or from a defense witness through questioning by the defense attorney.

A

Direct examination

64
Q

Elicits testimony from a prosecutor’s witness (such
as a police
officer) through questioning by
the defense attorney, or from
a defense witness by the prosecuting attorney.

A

cross- examination

65
Q

To make a witness, or some testimony provided by the witness, unbelievable. It is a goal of the cross- examination.

A

impeach

66
Q

Questions that are phrased in such a way that an answer is contained in
the question (e.g., “Wouldn’t you agree that . . .”); such questions are sometimes used in a cross- examination.

A

leading questions

67
Q

Defined by the Global Terrorism Database as “the threatened or actual use of illegal force and violence by a non-state actor to attain a political, economic, religious or social goal through
fear, coercion or intimidation.”

A

terrorism

68
Q

Terrorism committed by foreigners or foreign nationals; typically motivated by extreme religious views and/ or hatred toward the United States.

A

Internationally based terrorism:

69
Q

People who believe in the religious duty of Muslims to spread the religion through militant means.

A

Jihadists

70
Q

Having learned to accept and believe in extreme ideas that promote
the legitimacy of violent actions to accomplish political ends.

A

Radicalized:

71
Q

Terrorism committed by U.S. citizens; typically motivated by extreme beliefs.

A

Domestic-based terrorism:

72
Q

Domestic-based terrorism most often motivated by racism or beliefs against the government.

A

Right-wing extremism:

73
Q

Domestic-based terrorism whose adherents are often described as anarchists.

A

Left-wing extremism:

74
Q

Domestic-based terrorists often motivated by animal rights and the environment.

A

Special interest extremism:

75
Q

Terrorists who receive funding, support, training, and/or protection from a government.

A

State-sponsored terrorists:

76
Q

Terrorists who
act on their own without attachment to or help from a terrorist group or a government.

A

Lone wolf (or lone actor) terrorists:

77
Q

A form of crime analysis that focuses on identifying and predicting who will commit crimes.

A

Intelligence-led policing:

78
Q

Information readily available to law enforcement without special restrictions;
often refers to information from social media sites.

A

Open source information:

79
Q

Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate
Tools Required
to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism; a law that went into effect shortly after the terrorist attacks of September
11, 2001. It gave law enforcement agencies additional authority to gather evidence and expanded other powers.

A

USA PATRIOT Act of 2001:

80
Q

A modified version of the USA PATRIOT Act that went into effect in 2015.

A

USA Freedom Act:

81
Q

Technologies capable of identifying a person by measuring
a feature of that person’s unique physical characteristics.

A

Biometrics:

82
Q

Systems whereby a facial image can be captured on camera and compared to digital images stored in a reference database.

A

Facial recognition systems:

83
Q

Technology that detects heat within closed structures.

A

Thermal imaging:

84
Q

Remotely controlled flying machines that
can be used for surveillance, also known as drones.

A

Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs):

CRJU 412 CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions