Final Exam Flashcards

(171 cards)

1
Q

Which side of the heart will an adult heartworm live in?

A

Right

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2
Q

True/False: In ferrets, surgical removal of adult heartworms is an option in some cases.

A

True

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3
Q

What are some possible consequences of skipping heartworm prevention in dogs?

A. Risk of Infection
B. Heavy Costs
C. Lack of Welfare
D. All of the Above

A

All of the above

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4
Q

Which is a symptom of heartworm in cats?

A

Vomiting

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5
Q

What is the most common Clinical Sign of Intervertebral Disk Disease?

A

Cervical Spinal Pain

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6
Q

What is NOT a way to reduce the risk of IVDD?

A

Glucosamine Supplement

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7
Q

What is the goal of IVDD surgery?

A

The goal is to relieve pressure of the
affected vertebrae

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8
Q

Why is IVDD research still important to animal health?

a. There are new studies that still need to be tested with further trials
b. Cost effective treatments need to be made available to the general public
c. Symptom management can be
improved for all body systems
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

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9
Q

All of the following can lead to foot rot, except:
- Wet, muddy conditions
- Slippery, uneven surfaces
- Stress from overcrowding or poor nutrition
- Genetic predisposition

A

Slippery, uneven surfaces

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10
Q

True or False: Foot rot is a highly contagious virus that affects
the area between the toes of cattle?

A

False (bacterial infection)

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11
Q

What impact can foot rot have on a dairy cow?

A

Reduced Milk Yield

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12
Q

True or False: Farms that utilize footbaths twice a week have
35% less cases of foot rot in their cattle than farms that do
not.

A

True

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13
Q

True/False: Naked mole rats are resistant to cancer partially due to the presence of a sugar matrix called hyaluronic acid (HA), which also contributes to their longevity and wrinkled skin.

A

True

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14
Q

What adaptation allows naked mole rats to survive in low-oxygen environments?

A

Shifting to fructose metabolism for energy conservation

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15
Q

True/False: Naked mole rats show no decline in glucose handling, insulin sensitivity, or basal metabolic rate (BMR) even after 24 years of age.

A

True

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16
Q

Which of the following is not a feature contributing to naked mole rats’ longevity?

A. Stable gene expression over time
B. High vascular elasticity and cardiac reserve
C. Increased plasma phosphate levels for bone health
D. Cytoprotective pathways evolved from living in a stressful environment

A

Increased plasma phosphate levels for bone health

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17
Q

(T/F) MRSA can be generally ignored as very few strains can be fatal.

A

False

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18
Q

What are the main visible symptoms of MRSA?

A

Rash and Erythema

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19
Q

(T/F) Seborrhea in cats have a single root cause.

A

False

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20
Q

(T/F) Diamond Disease in pigs cannot be treated and there is no vaccine.

A

False

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21
Q

What causes the basal insulin measurements to increase?

A

Feeding Concentrates

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22
Q

True/ False: Equine Metabolic syndrome is a bacterial, transmittable disease

A

False

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23
Q

Diet management for the prevention of laminitis is can include

A

Using a grazing muzzle, decreasing grain and pasture

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor for EMS?

A) Obesity
B) Insulin resistance
C) Older horses
D) High levels of physical activity

A

High levels of physical activity

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25
Why manage pain?
Animal welfare, speeds recovery, economic considerations,
26
Which type of pain is a symptom of disease?
Acute Pain
27
Which type of pain is sudden onset, and can be severe?
Acute Pain
28
Acute Pain
Serves as a biological function- a warning
29
Which type of pain lasts weeks to months, persists beyond expected healing time?
Chronic Pain
30
Which type of pain is due to tumor growth, metastatic disease, effects of chemotherapy and radiation?
Cancer-related pain
31
Which type of pain is due to damage to central or peripheral nervous system (trauma, vascular injury, infection)
Neuropathic
32
Anesthetics
drugs which cause a temporary loss of sensation in a limited area (local) or a temporary loss of consciousness (general)
33
Analgesic
drugs which relieve pain
34
Multimodal Analgesia
Use of analgesics from more than 1 class to relieve pain
35
When is pain management needed?
Management procedures (castration, dehorning) Medical conditions (lameness, dystocia, colic)
36
Difficulties Associated With Pain Management
- Assessing presence of pain - Approved drug availability/extra label use - Withdrawal times in food-producing species - Cost
37
Air conducting portion of respiratory system
Passageways that air moves through from outside the body to the lungs
38
Gas exchange portion of respiratory system
Alveoli within the lungs - oxygen moves into the blood and carbon dioxide moves out of blood
39
Bovine Respiratory Disease (BRD)
Pneumonia or shipping fever
40
What causes Bovine Respiratory Disease (BRD)
Stress Viral infection Invasion of lungs by pathogenic bacteria
41
Nasal turbinates
create turbulent airflow and largest particles adhere to nasal mucosa
42
Mucociliary escalator
covers all air conducting surfaces, particles land in mucus layer, mucus and particles are moved toward pharynx by cilia and are swallowed
43
Pulmonary alveolar macrophages (PAMs)
use phagocytosis to destroy pathogens
44
2nd line of defense in lungs
Neutrophils
45
Causes of Pulmonary Defense Impairment
* Impairment predisposes to bacterial pneumonia * Viral infection
46
Rhinitis
inflammation of nasal cavity
47
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)
Acute, contagious disease of cattle Caused by bovine herpesvirus-1 (BHV-1)
48
Pneumonia
inflammation of the lungs
49
Prevention of BRD
Build Immunity (colostrum, vaccination, reduce stress), Mitigate Risk (biosecurity/biocontainment, avoid overcrowding, minimize stress, adequate ventilation)
50
Intranasal Vaccines
Stimulate an increase in IgA (antibody) levels in nasal mucosal cells to fight pathogens
51
Which type of vaccine has a quicker immune response?
Intranasal
52
Which type of vaccine has a longer duration of protection?
Injectable
53
Treatment of BRD
Supportive care, if bacterial-antibiotics may be necessary
54
Preconditioning
Health management program for reducing sickness and death rate and improving weight gains
55
Influenza A Virus in Swine (IAV-S)
Many different subtypes of influenza A viruses
56
Clinical Signs of IAV-S
High fever (104-106 * Serous nasal discharge * Dyspnea * Sneezing * Anorexia * Lethargy * Followed by development of barking cough
57
Prevention/Control of IAV-S
* Biosecurity practices! * Good ventilation systems * Vaccinate * Workers get seasonal flu vaccine * Workers with flu symptoms stay away from pigs
58
Function of ventilation
* Maintain a comfortable animal environment * Remove excess moisture, heat, disease organisms, and gases (ammonia, hydrogen sulfide, methane) without causing drafts * Replenish oxygen supply by bringing in drier, cooler outside air * Move air past the animals to remove excess heat (eliminate areas of still air)
59
T/F: To manage HYPP in horses, feeds with high potassium should be avoided.
True
60
T/F: Clinical signs in horses with HYPP are always symptomatic
False
61
What treatment should be used when treating severe cases of HYPP in horses?
Calcium Gluconate
62
T/F: HYPP in horses is caused by a genetic mutation
True
63
African Swine Fever is classified as having what type of disease occurrence?
Endemic
64
Main vector in Africa for African Swine Fever transmission?
Ticks
65
Clinical Signs of African Swine Fever
Sudden Death Respiratory Distress Fever
66
What are the biggest reasons ASF is important to animal health & disease management as a whole?
Animal health & welfare Human health & welfare Swine production & commercial operations
67
T/F. The three ways to diagnose Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis are PCR testing, complete blood count, and serum biochemistry.
True
68
Name 3 symptoms of Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis
Sneezing Fever Redness of eyes
69
How can you prevent Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis?
Keeping new cats separated until tested and vaccinated. Keep shared spaces clean. Avoid letting cats interact with strays or new animals of unknown medical origin
70
T/F. Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis can be transmitted by sharing litter boxes.
True
71
Common clinical signs of altered digestive function
Excessive salivation Vomiting Abdominal pain Abdominal distention Diarrhea
72
Increase in the frequency, fluidity, or volume of bowel movements
Diarrhea
73
Causes of Diarrhea
* Bacteria * Viruses * Parasites * Abrupt change in diet * Medications * Toxins
74
Decreased or damaged absorptive surface area (villus atrophy/microvilli damage)
Malabsorption
75
increased numbers of osmotically active particles (sugars) within intestinal lumen
Osmotic Overload
76
enterotoxins cause increased secretion of electrolytes (sodium/chloride) into intestinal lumen and water follows
Secretory
77
A carrier which transfers an infective agent from one host to another (rodents, birds, flies)
Vector
78
Enteric Colibacillosis
Diarrhea caused by E. coli
79
Route of Infection by E. coli
Fecal – oral route from contaminated teats during nursing or from environment
80
E. coli prevention
- vaccinate pregnant sows - all in/all out movement - avoid chilling piglets
81
E. coli treatment
- Antibiotics - Oral electrolytes (help prevent dehydration) - warm, dry environment
82
Rotaviral enteritis
Diarrhea caused by Rotavirus
83
Rotavirus route of infection
Fecal – oral route from contaminated teats during nursing or from environment. Carrier sows shed virus in feces
84
Rotavirus prevention
- vaccinate pregnant sows - all in/all out movement - avoid chilling piglets
85
Rotavirus treatment
- Antibiotics - Oral electrolytes (help prevent dehydration) - warm, dry environment
86
E. coli symptom
Watery diarrhea, possible vomiting, hypothermia * Minimal intestinal lesions (mild villous atrophy)
87
Rotavirus symptom
Diarrhea (usually white to yellow color) occasional vomiting, usually non-fatal
88
What is Johne’s disease?
Fatal, contagious gastrointestinal disease
89
Is Johne's disease more common in beef or dairy herds
Dairy
90
paratuberculosis
Johne’s disease
91
How does infection of Johne's disease occur?
Infection occurs by ingestion of bacteria in first few months of life, but symptoms may not show up until years later (subclinical phase 2-10 years)
92
How is Johne's disease transmitted?
Primarily fecal-oral route from manure- contaminated milk, water, feed, or swallowing manure
93
Johne's disease Symptoms
- rapid weight loss - diarrhea - MAP infects cells of the ileum
94
Johne's disease prevention
- purchase from Johne's free herds - purchase test-negative animals - Herd certification programs auctions=risky
95
Johne's disease testing
- fecal sample - blood/milk test - PCR - test soil, water - at least 18 months old
96
Johne's disease control
- test and cull cows - cull offspring of positive cows - herd/environmental control
97
Johne's disease treatment
None are feasible
98
Which part of the nervous system contains the brain and spinal cord?
Central nervous system (CNS)
99
Which part of the nervous system contains the nerves that link the brain to the rest of the body?
Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
100
Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) transmission
- Aerosol - Ingestion - Infectious materials – nasal and ocular secretions, saliva, abortive fluids - Fomites – clothing, tack, feeding supplies etc
101
Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) clinical signs (respiratory form)
* Affects mostly young horses * Fever up to 105⁰ F * Nasal discharge – watery (serous) then becomes cloudy * Decreased appetite * Depression * +/- cough
102
Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) prevention
Biosecurity!!
103
Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) differential diagnosis
* Rabies * EEE, WEE, VEE * WNV – West Nile virus * EPM – equine protozoal myeloencephalitis * Trauma * Tetanus
104
Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) treatment (respiratory form)
* Supportive – time off to recover * Anti-inflammatory medication – Bute, Banamine * Antibiotics may be needed for secondary bacterial infection (do not kill virus)
105
Equine Herpes Virus 1 (EHV1)
causes respiratory, abortion, neurological problems
106
Equine Herpes Virus 2 (EHV2)
causes eye problems
107
Equine Herpes Virus 4 (EHV4)
causes respiratory and abortion problems
108
Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) clinical signs (Neurological form)
* Clinical respiratory disease may or may not be present * Individual or multiple horses affected * Rapid onset of clinical signs * Fever +/- * Spinal cord signs – weakness, toe dragging, incoordination, hind limbs usually affected more than front limbs, inability to urinate or defecate, recumbency
109
Equine Herpes Virus (EHV) treatment (neurological form)
* Supportive – minimize stress, quiet, safe environment * Anti-inflammatory medications – Bute, Banamine, corticosteroids * Nutrition – elevate feed and water, stomach tube, IV fluids * Bladder catheter, evacuate rectum * Sling if recumbent
110
Equine Encephalitis transmission
Mosquitoes
111
Equine Encephalitis clinical signs
* Fever, depression, anorexia * Behavioral changes * Neurological signs – head pressing, circling, blindness, seizures, coma * Recumbency and death
112
Equine Encephalitis diagnosis
* Clinical signs and time of year * Serology – antibodies to virus * Necropsy – histological findings, viral isolation
113
Equine Encephalitis differential diagnosis
* Rabies * EPM – equine protozoal myeloencephalitis * Trauma * Bacterial meningitis
114
Equine Encephalitis treatment
* Supportive only – maintain hydration, nutrition * Anti-inflammatories – Bute, Banamine * Control seizures if present *full recovery is rare
115
Equine encephalitis prevention
* Vaccine – initially 2 injection series, then annual booster (every 6 mths. in some areas) prior to mosquito season * Control mosquito population – eliminate standing water
116
Strangles is caused by which of the following? - Protozoal - Virus - Bacterial
Bacterial
117
What are the disadvantages of using Penicillin to treat strangles?
- Can increase the duration of clinical signs - Prevents full immune response
118
What are some prevention strategies of Strangles?
- Biosecurity - Serology Testing
119
What is most likely the cause of death and drop in egg productions?
Contamination to wetland or exposure to infected wild birds
120
Which management practice can be used to diagnose the disease on the farm?
Conducting laboratory tests on affected birds
121
Which of the following diseases is often associated with wetland exposure for poultry?
Avian Influenza
122
True or False: Free-range practices can increase the risk of poultry being exposed to pathogens from wild birds.
True
123
Acute, progressive viral encephalomyelitis
Rabies
124
Rabies transmission
Bite of a rabid animal- virus is in saliva
125
Rabies Clinical Signs
- Acute behavioral changes - Ataxia - Unexplained progressive paralysis
126
Rabies Diagnosis
Fluorescent antibody test on brain tissue
127
Rabies Prevention
Vaccine
128
Rabies Cause
Lyssavirus
129
Tetanus Cause
bacteria called Clostridium tetani (C. tetani)
130
Tetanus Clinical Signs
* Sudden movements or noises lead to generalized muscle spasms * Spasms of muscles of head make eating difficult (lockjaw) * Difficulty walking and turning * Erect ears, tail stiff and extended, nostrils dilated * Prolapse of 3rd eyelid * “Sawhorse stance” * Sweating, increased heart and respiratory rate
131
Tetanus Diagnosis
- Clinical signs and previous trauma - tetanus toxin in serum, finding bacteria on gram-stained smears, or anaerobic culture of bacteria
132
Tetanus Treatment
In early stages of disease – tetanus antitoxin IV, draining and cleaning wounds, antibiotics
133
Tetanus prevention
tetanus toxoid vaccine
134
Stable Animal Population
population not changing much
135
Transient Animal Population
animals moving in and out of population regularly
136
Combination Animal Population
stable and transient populations in contact
137
Stable Animal Population Management
* Identify sick animals/carriers * Identify pathogens * Disease screening * Vaccinations * Use of quarantine/isolation
138
Transient Animal Population Management
* Prevent and control disease * Challenges – environmental stress, crowding, changing population, disease screening, air quality, cleaning and disinfection, use of quarantine/isolation, training employees or volunteers
139
Combination Animal Population Management
* Population control in transient population * Challenges – catching members of transient population, disease screening, nutritional status, parasites, who pays for transient population costs
140
Methods of pregnancy diagnosis (small animal)
- Abdominal palpation of uterus - Radiographs - Ultrasounds - Blood relaxin levels
141
can detect swellings in uterus of developing puppies (~25-35 days optimum time)
Abdominal palpation of uterus
142
useful during last 3 weeks of gestation when skeletons of puppies are visible, can determine number of puppies in litter
Radiographs
143
Can detect developing embryos as early as 3 weeks after breeding
Ultrasounds
144
hormone produced by developing placenta after implantation of embryo. Can be detected as early as 22-27 days after breeding
Blood relaxin levels
145
Methods of pregnancy diagnosis (large animal)
* Rectal palpation – uterus and ovaries * Transrectal ultrasound * Blood and milk tests
146
Dystocia causes
- birth canal too small - large fetus, abnormal position of fetus in uterus, - breed of dog (Bulldog, Pug) or cat (Persian, Himalayan)
147
Why spay/neuter?
- Health benefits - Prevent unwanted births - Behavior benefits - Live longer
148
Signs of digestive tract disease in chickens
* Diarrhea * Poor growth * Weight loss * Drop in egg production
149
Signs of respiratory disease in chickens
* Sneezing, coughing * Nasal and ocular discharge * Swollen eyes, sinuses, comb, wattles * Gasping for breath * Dirty shoulders * Noisy breathing * Drop in egg production
150
Fowl pox on skin- Virus is found in crusts and scabs
Dry (cutaneous) form
151
Fowl pox on mucous membranes of mouth, eye
Wet (diphtheritic) form
152
Fowl pox transmission
* Contact through abrasions in skin * Biting insects - mosquitoes * Needles
153
Fowl pox diagnosis
* Suspect based on necropsy findings – confirm with histopathology * Isolation of virus
154
Fowl Pox treatment
none - can vaccinate during outbreak
155
Fowl Pox prevention
* Vaccine * Chickens vaccinated with fowl and pigeon pox * Turkeys vaccinated with either turkey or fowl pox
156
Mycoplasmosis (chickens) transmission
* Transovarian – hen laying the egg has an ovarian infection and the contents of the egg are contaminated with the pathogen before the eggshell is formed * Bird to bird – aerosols * Fomites
157
Mycoplasmosis (chickens) clinical signs
* Swollen sinuses * Noisy breathing * Nasal discharge * Coughing * Decreased feed consumption * Weight loss
158
Mycoplasmosis diagnosis
Bacterial culture
159
Mycoplasmosis treatment
antibiotics reduce clinical signs and transmission through eggs, but do not eliminate infections
160
Mycoplasmosis prevention
- eliminate infected breeding stock, - biosecurity, - cleaning/disinfecting, - replace litter, - purchase from NPIP flocks
161
Blackhead
Histomoniasis
162
Histomoniasis transmission
Ingestion of protozoal cysts, earthworms containing cysts, “cloacal drinking”
163
Histomoniasis clinical signs
* Bright yellow manure * Listlessness * Ruffled feathers * Drooping wings * +/- Cyanotic (blue) head * +/- Weight loss
164
Histomoniasis treatment
None
165
Histomoniasis prevention
Do not keep chickens with turkeys or other susceptible birds
166
Histomoniasis diagnosis
histopathology of liver, ceca
167
Plague cause
Yersinia pestis
168
Plague hosts
mice, rats, chipmunks, fleas, prairie dogs, rabbits, squirrels
169
Plague treatment
Antibiotic
170
Plague transmission
- hosts - handling tissue or blood from infected animal - inhalation of infected droplets
171
Plague clinical signs
Vomiting, nausea, fever