Final Exam Flashcards
(142 cards)
1
Q
Evolution by natural selection requires
a. large populations
b. all of the above
c. none of the above
d. heritable variation in traits within a population
e. that mating is random
f. that migration does not occur
A
d. heritable variation in traits within a population
2
Q
The power law distribution illustrates the observation that in natural systems
a. that larger body organisms congregate near the poles
b. a small number of types of observations are common, while a large number of types of observations are uncommon
c. most observations cluster at extreme value
d. the fittest organisms survive
e. the distribution of resources is according to needs and abilities
A
b. a small number of types of observations are common, while a large number of types of observations are uncommon
3
Q
The term “ecology” is defined as the study of the
a. relationship between organisms
b. a bunch of tree-hugging crapola
c. impact of humans on the environment
d. relationships among organisms and their environment
e. natural economics
f. environment
A
d. relationships among organisms and their environment
4
Q
The mechanism of evolution on which Darwin focused in The Origin of Species was
a. Genetic Drift
b. Natural Selection
c. Finchification
d. Acclimatization
e. Plasticity
f. Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium
A
b. Natural Selection
5
Q
The characteristics that give an organism an advantage in a given environment are called
a. ramets
b. phenotypes
c. genes
d. adaptations
e. genets
f. mutations
A
d. adaptations
6
Q
Evolution is a change in _____ over time
a. inheritance
b. mutations
c. gene frequencies
d. acquired traits
e. phenotypes
A
c. gene frequencies
7
Q
What evolutionary process is illustrated in the following figure showing the distribution in bill size for the Black-Bellied Seedcracker
illustration shows: two bumps at different extremes
a. disruptive selection
b. stabilizing selection
c. scramble competition
d. Life History Speoliorization
e. the Allee effect
A
a. disruptive selection
8
Q
Which of the following statements is not a requirement of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
a. mutations do not occur
b. predation does not occur
c. mating is random
d. the population is large
e. migration does not occur
A
b. predation does not occur
9
Q
Fundamental evolutionary trade-offs among growth, reproduction, and survival are best illustrated by
a. Darwin’s Finches
b. The general observation that small-bodied organisms tend to have a large number of small offspring with short life expectancy
c. The conditional asexuality of the nematode C. elegens
d. Maternal cannibalism
e. The remarkably tenacious tardigrades
A
b. The general observation that small-bodied organisms tend to have a large number of small offspring with short life expectancy
10
Q
The figure above illustrates _______ for a population of Darwin’s Finches in the Galapagos Islands before and after a major drought
Picture: Size moving towards one extreme
a. founder effect
b. directional selection
c. density independent population regulation
d. density-dependent population regulation
e. stabilizing selection
A
b. directional selection
11
Q
Structural aspects of the populations include which of the following
a. distribution of organisms in space
b. number of juveniles and adults, females and males
c. number of organisms per unit area or volume
d. all of the above
A
d. all of the above
12
Q
For which organism would it be advantageous to allocate more resources to reproduction than to growth
a. one in which fecundity increases with increased body size
b. one in which offspring survival is very low
c. one with low adult survival rate
d. one with a long life span
A
c. one with low adult survival rate
13
Q
The process of allopatric speciation is best illustrated by
a. the distribution in size-classes of mammal species across high and low latitudes
b. the domestication of maize in southern Mexico approximately
c. the biogeography of salamanders in the Southern Appalachians
d. Melanization in Peppered Moths following the Industrial Revolution in London
A
c. the biogeography of salamanders in the Southern Appalachians
14
Q
Increasing the probability of local extinctions among meta-population distributed over a series of islands associated with __________
a. Local population size: smaller populations are more susceptible to local extinction
b. the landscape heterogeneity of the island
c. development pressure from the mainland
d. rate of emigration of individuals to the mainland
A
a. Local population size: smaller populations are more susceptible to local extinction
15
Q
Which type of organisms regulate its body temperature by internal metabolic processes
a. ectothermic
b. poikilothermic
c. endothermic
d. heterothermic
A
c. endothermic
16
Q
Assuming that the body shape of an animal is at least somewhat spherical, a considerable decrease in body size would ______ the surface area-to-volume ratio, and the ability to exchange heat with the environment would ______
a. increase; decrease
b. decrease; increase
c. increase; increase
d. increase; stay about the same
e. stay about the same; decrease
A
c. increase; increase
17
Q
Compared with large endotherms, small endotherms require ____ feeding rates, partly because they have a ____ surface area-to-volume ratio
a. lower; higher
b. similar; similar
c. lower; lower
d. higher; higher
A
d. higher; higher
18
Q
Which of the following distribution types are you least likely to encounter in natural populations
a. clumped
b. uniform or regular
c. power
d. random
e. normal
A
d. normal
19
Q
In some trees and shrubs, competition among seedlings causes individuals to be spaced relatively evenly throughout the habitat. These plants exhibit a ____ type of dispersion pattern.
a. clumped
b. ramet or genet
c. regular or uniform
d. random
A
c. regular or uniform
20
Q
What are the advantages of sex
a. sex tends to stabilize traits in the population through dissociative mating
b. increase variation in traits due to genetic recombination
c. sex facilitates hybridization of closely related species
d. sex maximizes the proportion of maternal genes in the population
A
b. increase variation in traits due to genetic recombination
21
Q
A powerful ice storm in 1998 felled a large proportion of trees across much of northern New England, New York State, and southeast Canada. Although the storm led to declines in abundance for many species of birds, it created opportunities for other bird species. With regard to its effects on the populations of bird species, the 1998 storm would be considered an
a. Allee Effect
b. density-independent control
c. a nor’easter
d. gap dynamics
e. density-dependent control
f. weather whiplash event
A
b. density-independent control
22
Q
The regulation of an animal’s body temperature using external mechanisms is described as
a. homeostatic
b. adiabatic
c. endothermic
d. ectothermic
e. piezometric
d. homothermic
A
d. ectothermic
23
Q
What is the most common reason that ecologists encounter discontinuous distributions of meta-populations across species geographic ranges
a. dispersal limitations
b. landscape heterogeneity
c. founder effects
d. climate change
e. ecological disturbance
A
b. landscape heterogeneity
24
Q
The basal metabolic rate per unit of body mass is highest in a
a. large ectotherm
b. large heterotherm
c. large endotherm
d. small endotherm
e. small ectotherm
A
d. small endotherm
25
Identify different scales of species distribution in order from smallest to largest areas and number of individuals
a. geographic range < metapopulation < population
b. metapopulation < population < geographic range
c. geographic range < population < metapopulation
d. population < metapopulation < geographic range
d. population < metapopulation < geographic range
26
In cod fishing, older and larger fish are more likely to be retained in nets than younger and smaller fish. Despite the removal of these large breeders, the population is still reproducing. How do you think cod characteristics have changed due to selection pressure from over-fishing
a. selection has led to increased growth rate
b. selection has led to decreases in the size of fish at the age of maturity
c. selection has led to decreased growth rates
d. selection has led to increases in the age of fish at the age of maturity
b. selection has led to decreases in the size of fish at the age of maturity
27
According to Bergmann's Rule, an Artic rodent species will be _____ relative to a related sub-tropical species
a. furrier
b. more tenacious
c. more endothermic
d. larger
e. smaller
d. larger
28
The 3/4 biomass-metabolism scaling law probably arises from
a. biophysical constraints on distributing nutrients and energy through biological volumes
b. biophysical constraints on maintaining energy balance
c. the cube-square law
d. all of these answers
d. all of these answers
29
Fill in the necessary spaces in the table below to calculate the proportion of rabbits that survive to age three
(Table is question 30 video 1)
a. 10%
b. 9%
c. 1%
d. 5%
e. 2.5%
c. 1%
30
Fill in the necessary spaces in the table below to estimate the net reproductive rate (Ro) for this population of rabbits.
a. 2.1
b. 1.72
c. 0.75
d. 3.03
e. 1.17
e. 1.17
31
Fill in the necessary spaces in the table below to calculate the average generation time in years (G) for this population of rabbits
a. 0.4
b. 3
c. 1.2
d. 4
e. 0.8
e. 0.8
32
Fill in the necessary spaces in the table below to estimate the population of rabbits after five years (hint: use 1348 as No and calculate r to make this estimate)
a. 2100
b. 3800
c. 14000
d. 3500
e. 17000
d. 3500
33
A species of turtle grows for several years before becoming sexually mature. It mates, reproduces, and dies soon afterward. This species of turtle would best be described as
a. semelparous
b. promiscuous
c. iteroparous
d. gametophytic
e. sporophytic
a. semelparous
34
The term "r-selection" refers to selection
a. that increases age at sexual maturity
b. under crowded conditions
c. for iteroparity
d. for high population growth rates
d. for high population growth rates
35
Which organisms would be most likely to be K-selected
a. Mice
b. Lions
c. Mayflies
d. Daffodils
b. Lions
36
In a mark-recapture study to estimate the size of a rodent population, researchers catch and mark 180 individuals. Two days later they again captured a number of rodents and found that 40% of the individuals are marked. Assuming that there have been no births, deaths, or migrations, the estimated size of the population is
a. 720
b. 450
c. 360
d. 600
b. 450
37
Certain species of grasses in the semiarid prairies of Colorado, Kansas, and Nebraska find refuge from grazing in the vicinity of the prickly pear cactus, which has a roughly uniform or regular distribution across most landscapes. These grasses mostly closely resemble a ____ type of dispersion pattern
a. stochastic
b. ramet
c. regular or uniform
d. clumped
e. random
d. clumped
38
When English Ivy first arrived in Virginia in 1800, it had no natural competitors or herbivores to consume it. What initial growth type would you expect for this population
a. Malthusian
b. extinction vortex
c. logistic increase
d. exponential increase
e. exponential decrease
d. exponential increase
39
Which equation best describes density-dependent population dynamics
a. dN/dt = rK(1-N/K)
b. dN/dt = rN
c. dN/dt = rN(1-N/K)
d. dN/dt = rK(1-K/N)
c. dN/dt = rN(1-N/K)
40
Assuming that their average population growth rates and all other factors are equal, which population would most likely be at risk for extinction
a. a small population with low variation in its growth rate
b. a large population with low variation in its growth rate
c. a large population with high variation in its growth rate
d. a small population with high variation in its growth rate
d. a small population with high variation in its growth rate
41
Which of the following is a likely reason for the decline in population growth at low population density in the figure
figure: spike in population growth rate and then a steady drop
a. the allee effect
b. the paradox of choice
c. decreased environmental stochasticity
d. increased biodiversity
a. the allee effect
42
A fictional animal from the Star Trek Universe, the tribble, reproduces in synchrony at regular intervals. When the logarithm of a particular tribble population was plotted against time by Dr. Spock, the result was a straight and increasing line. Which statement about the tribble population is false
a. if the actual population size were plotted against time, the result would be an increasing J-shaped curve
b. the lambda of the tribble population is constant and greater than 1
c. r =0
d. the tribble population is increasing in size geometrically
c. r =0
43
Which population would be expected to remain stable in size
a. a population with an r of < 1
b. a population with a lambda of 0 and an r of 1
c. a population with lambda of 1 or an r of 0
d. a population with an r of > 0
c. a population with lambda of 1 or an r of 0
44
When did the world human population first reach 1 billion
a. 1930
b. 1804
c. 1347
d. 2019
e. 1544
b. 1804
45
Population regulation occurs when
a. the population has reached a stable age distribution
b. density-independent factors affect birth, death, and emigration rates
c. the population is close to zero
d. density-dependent factors affect birth, death, and emigration rates
d. density-dependent factors affect birth, death, and emigration rates
46
The top five countries currently add approximately 40 million people a year to the world's population. Which of the following countries is not one of these top five
a. India
b. Italy
c. United States
d. China
e. Nigeria
b. Italy
47
What is the current global human population
a. 7.7 billion
b. 5.2 billion
c. 6.5 billion
d. 11.2 billion
e. 9.2 billion
f. 8.1 billion
f. 8.1 billion
48
Long-term trends in human population growth are most associated with
a. developments in agriculture technology
b. development in energy technology
c. pandemics
d. availability of medicine
e. climate change
f. developments in metal technology
a. developments in agriculture technology
49
What is the most significant single contributor to increases in human populations over the past 100 years
a. the development of industrial nitrogen fixation
b. vaccination programs
c. enhanced transportation
d. soap
e. electrification
a. the development of industrial nitrogen fixation
50
Competition between species arises due to
a. natural selection of antagonistic traits
b. overlapping rank abundance curves
c. scarcity of resources in the environment
d. the tendency of species interactions to become more amensal over evolutionary time
c. scarcity of resources in the environment
51
When two or more organisms use a portion of the same resource simultaneously, it is referred to as
a. niche overlap
b. mutualism
c. competitive niche
d. amensalism
e. commensalism
a. niche overlap
52
The biologist G. F. Gause used Paramecium species grown in test tubes to illustrate which prediction of Lotka-Volterra competition models
a. competitive exclusion
b. coexistence
c. resource pre-emption
d. consumption competition
e. tilman equilibrium
a. competitive exclusion
53
The full range of space, resources and environmental conditions to which an organism is adapted to live in and/or use is referred to as the ____ of that organism
a. geographic range
b. territory
c. habitat
d. fundamental niche
e. realized niche
d. fundamental niche
54
The portion of potential resources and habitat that an organism actually uses in the presence of competitors is called the _____ of that organism
a. realized niche
b. territory
c. meta-community
d. geographic range
e. fundamental niche
a. realized niche
55
Which of the following would NOT be expected to result from competition
a. evolution of increased niche overlap
b. competitive exclusion
c. evolution of character displacement
d. decrease in population of one or both species
a. evolution of increased niche overlap
56
In the graphical depiction of the Lotka-Volterra competition equations, the diagonal lines representing combinations of densities of two species for which dN/dt = 0 are called the
a. zero-growth isoclines
b. ley lines
c. competitive exclusion parameters
d. competition coefficients
a. zero-growth isoclines
57
The net outcome of predator-prey interactions in the Lotka-Volterra equation is that
a. the predator switches to omnivory when prey populations are low
b. the predator drives its prey to extinction and then goes extinct itself
c. the prey population influences the mortality of the predator populations when prey populations are low
d. predator and prey populations oscillate
d. predator and prey populations oscillate
58
The figure above shows the interaction between predator abundance and prey abundance. Given populations of lynx and hares are located at the star. Based on the Lotka-Volterra predator-prey model, we would expect the number of prey to ____ and then number of predators to ____
Star is in the bottom right box
a. increase; increase
b. decrease; increase
c. decrease; stay the same
d. increase; decrease
a. increase; increase
59
The Lotka-Volterra predator-prey model of population growth
a. assumes that predators are eating multiple prey species
b. does not depend on the availability of the predator's resources
c. assumes that the prey population does not change when the predator population declines
d. assumes that when predators are absent the prey population grows exponentially
d. assumes that when predators are absent the prey population grows exponentially
60
In Lotka-Volterra predator-prey models, predators regulate prey populations by functioning as a
a. source of density dependent fecundity
b. Mullerian facilitator
c. obligate symbiont
d. source of density dependent mortality
e. numerical response regulator
d. source of density dependent mortality
61
Which of the following describes a system of species interactions in which an individual of one species lives in or on its host, feeding on it but usually not killing it
a. parasitism
b. parasitoidism
c. cannibalism
d. amensalism
e. predation
a. parasitism
62
The _____ describes reciprocal co-evolutionary changes observed in species of predators and prey, host and pathogen, and competitor species living in close associations over evolutionary time
a. Hardy Weinberg equilibrium
b. Red Queen Hypothesis
c. Green Witch Hypothesis
d. Direction Selection Axiosm
b. Red Queen Hypothesis
63
A host species which harbors only a developmental phase of a parasite is called an
a. definitive host
b. intermediate host
c. macrobiome
d. obligate mutualist
e. direct host
b. intermediate host
64
Which of the following describes species interaction where two or more organisms of different species live together in close physical and/or biochemical association
a. amensalism
b. mutualism
c. symbiosis
d. commensalism
e. parasitism
c. symbiosis
65
Which of the following is the least likely outcome of a host-parasite interaction
a. the parasite population evolves better means avoiding host defenses
b. the species zero growth isoclines converge
c. the host population evolves to become more susceptible to the parasite
d. the parasitism evolves into a mutualism
e. the host population evolves stronger defenses against the parasite
c. the host population evolves to become more susceptible to the parasite
66
Which of the following symbiotic mutualism involves a fungus
a. mycorrhizae
b. legume-rhizobium interactions
c. lichens and mycorrhizae
d. gut microbe-ruminant interactions
e. lichens
c. lichens and mycorrhizae
67
The group of species that occupy a given area, interacting either directly or indirectly, is an
a. population
b. biome
c. ecosystem
d. guild
e. community
f. assembly
e. community
68
Which description is true for most communities
a. a few species are very common and many are rare
b. all species are common
c. all species have approximately equal abundances
d. diversity scales as the 3/4 power of biomass
e. common species have the greatest biomass
f. all species are rare
a. a few species are very common and many are rare
69
Which of the following terms best describes the relationship between a flowering plant and an animal that harvests its pollen
a. carnivory
b. competition
c. herbivory
d. amensalism
e. commensalism
f. parasitism
g. mutualism
g. mutualism
70
A "dominant" species in a community may
a. all of these answers
b. be the most numerous
c. make the largest contribution to energy flow or nutrient cycling
d. occupy the most space
a. all of these answers
71
Which statement about biodiversity is true
a. alpha diversity is always greater than gamma diversity
b. metacommunities arise from sympatric speciation events
c. dominant species are responsible for trophic cascades
d. diversity scales as a function of area
e. the equilibrium number of species in a community can be estimated using zolterra's j
d. diversity scales as a function of area
72
One of the goals of restoration ecology is to increase the complexity structure within a degraded habitat. Based upon Huffaker's work with mites and mite predators on artificial substrates, how would an increase in habitat complexity affect predator-prey dynamics in the restored habitat
a. Prey populations would be driven to extinction while prey populations would dramatically increase
b. Prey populations would ultimately overwhelm predator populations, leading to a decline in predator numbers
c. Both predator and prey populations will ultimately persist due to "hide-and-seek" predator-prey cycles
d. Predator search effort would ultimately decline driving the prey to extinction
c. Both predator and prey populations will ultimately persist due to "hide-and-seek" predator-prey cycles
73
Plant community structure along an environmental gradient can often be explained by ______
a. gamma diversity
b. a tradeoff among species with respect to competitive ability and stress tolerance
c. differences among species in their competitive abilities
d. differences among species in their abilities to tolerate stress
e. differences among species in their resistance to herbivores
b. a tradeoff among species with respect to competitive ability and stress tolerance
74
In general, the degree of environmental heterogeneity of community has a _____ effect on the species diversity of the community
a. neutral
b. negative
c. logistic
d. factorial
e. positive
e. positive
75
The view of communities, advocated by Fredrick Clements, that communities are deterministic and integrated units of species, is referred to as the ______ concept of communities
a. individualistic
b. individualistic continuum
c. unified
d. organismic
e. food web
d. organismic
76
In contrast to the deterministic view of plant communities that prevailed in the early 20th century, ecologists now believe that community composition at any given location is determined by
a. disturbance
b. community physiology
c. species interactions
d. bottom-up effects
e. responses of multiple species to environmental conditions and landscape history
e. responses of multiple species to environmental conditions and landscape history
77
Changes in community composition over time are called
a. succession
b. floristic evolution
c. zonation
d. robustification
e. stratification
a. succession
78
Which of the following is/are critical to maintaining diversity in successional communities
a. shade tolerant tree species
b. climate communities
c. the yellow king
d. the red queen
e. disturbance
f. competition
e. disturbance
79
The progressive series of changes in the community composition that follows abandonment of an agricultural field is called
a. speciation
b. secondary succession
c. devolution
d. primary succession
e. eutrophication
b. secondary succession
80
____ changes in environmental conditions, which are common in plant succession, are brought about by the actions of organisms
a. autozygous
b. allogenic
c. allopatric
d. allergenic
e. all of these answers
f. autogenic
f. autogenic
81
Groups of sites within an area with similar climate and soils that are at different stages of succession are known as
a. chronosequences
b. clines
c. ecotypes
d. old fields
c. autosequences
a. chronosequences
82
During the early stages of succession, diversity typically
a. approaches gamma diversity
b. increases
c. stays the same
d. varies frequently
e. decreases
b. increases
83
Succession that occurs on a site not previously occupied by a community, for example a lava field or glacier moraine, is called _____ succession
a. primary
b. basic
c. secondary
d. initial
e. allogenic
a. primary
84
Nitrogen fixation by Alder tress early in the growth of an Alaskan forest is an example of
a. commensual development
b. facilitation
c. allogenic succession
d. symbiotic convergence
e. florisitc succesion
b. facilitation
85
Beta diversity refers to diversity observed
a. at the local scale
b. at a regional scale
c. in a primary succession sere
d. in a secondary succession sere
e. between two sites
e. between two sites
86
Alpha diversity is to gamma diversity as community is to _____
a. rank abundance
b. ecosystems
c. biome
d. meta-community
e. meta-population
d. meta-community
87
Which of the following are not drivers of alpha diversity
a. landscape history
b. number of bird species
c. average distance of habitat from other habitat patches
d. topology (connections and geometry) of patches in region
e. size of habitat
b. number of bird species
88
MacArthur's Warblers occupying different parts of coniferous trees are an example of which of the following
a. natural selection
b. competitive exclusion
c. boreal exclusion
d. niche partitioning
d. niche partitioning
89
What doesn't control alpha diversity
a. environmental gradients
b. beta diversity
c. patch heterogeneity
d. gamma diversity
e. connection among habitats in a region
b. beta diversity
90
How many dimensions are there in Hutchenson's n-dimensional hyper volume
a. n dimensions, where n = number of limiting nutrients and physical drivers
b. three: temperature, water availability, and PAR
c. four: temperature, water availability, PAR, and nitrogen
d. two: population of zooplankton and phytoplankton
e. k dimensions, where k = number of species - n of limiting nutrients
f. one: the zero-scape dimension that describes a plant species niche n water temperature space
a. n dimensions, where n = number of limiting nutrients and physical drivers
91
When a predator enhances the success of inferior competitors by suppressing a superior competitor, the interaction is called
a. indirect commensalism
b. indirect predation
c. predaceous
d. facilitation
e. keystone predation
e. keystone predation
92
Two species of birds feed on berries. The birds are active at different times of the day and do not come into contact with one another. Nonetheless, the presence of one species limits the survival and reproduction of the other. What type of competition is this
a. exploitation
b. antagonism
c. allelopathy
d. interference
e. logistic
a. exploitation
93
Suppose that two species of Darwin's finches live on the same island and eat seeds, but one species tends to eat larger seeds than the other one does. Based on this observation, we can conclude that these species are engaged in
a. competitive exclusion
b. exploitive competition
c. resource partitioning
d. allelopathy
e. interference competition
c. resource partitioning
94
Character displacement is likely to ____ the competition coefficients in two competing species and to ____ resource partitioning
a. increase; increase
b. lower; eliminate
c. lower; increase
d. increase; lower
c. lower; increase
95
The theory of island biogeography was experimentally tested by Wilson and Simberloff in the mangrove islands of the Florida Keys in the 19060s. Species richness of insect communities on several small mangroves islands were surveyed. The islands were then fumigated with methyl bromide to eliminate their arthropod communities. Following fumigation the immigration of species onto the islands was monitored and the study confirmed the main prediction of island biogeography theory. What did they find?
a. The empty niches tended to exhibited R* species characteristics
b. islands closer to the mainland recovered faster than those further away
c. the number of species was determined by the difference between the rate of speciation and the rate of extinction
d. the islands were invaded by very large rats
e. islands all recovered their arthropod communities at the same rate
b. islands closer to the mainland recovered faster than those further away
96
Edge effects are a common consequence of habitat fragmentation. Which of the following is an example of an edge effect?
a. The isolation of large habitat patches from each other
b. greater biodiversity in the interior of the fragmented habitat
c. greater abundance of species adapted to edge environments
d. increased competition between species in the core of the habitat
c. greater abundance of species adapted to edge environments
97
The biochemical pathway most commonly used by plants and chemosynthetic bacteria to fix CO2 in order to synthesize carbohydrates is
a. the Krebs cycle
b. the Calvin cycle
c. glycolysis
d. the Citric Acid cycle
e. the C4 photosynthetic pathway
b. the Calvin cycle
98
What takes place during the first step of photosynthesis, referred to as the "light-driven reactions"
a. CO2 is oxidized by solar radiation
b. CO2 is fixed, producing carbohydrates
c. Chlorophyll is oxidized by water
d. Water is split to provide electrons to synthesize ATP and NADPH
e. Green wavelengths of light are absorbed by chlorophyll
d. Water is split to provide electrons to synthesize ATP and NADPH
99
What is the primary function of RUBISCO in photosynthesis
a. to catalyze the splitting of water molecules
b. to fix carbon dioxide during the Calvin cycle
c. to produce oxygen during light reactions
d. to synthesize glucose from organic compounds
b. to fix carbon dioxide during the Calvin cycle
100
What is the main advantage of C4 photosynthesis over C3 photosynthesis
a. C4 photosynthesis is more efficient in low light conditions
b. C4 photosynthesis requires less water for carbon fixation
c. C4 photosynthesis produces more oxygen
d. C4 photosynthesis reduces photorespiration by concentrating CO2
d. C4 photosynthesis reduces photorespiration by concentrating CO2
101
Ecosystems have two major paths of energy flow _____ and _____
a. up; down
b. primary; secondary
c. producers; consumers
d. autotrophs; heterotrophs
e. grazing; detrital
e. grazing; detrital
102
RUBISCO can also catalyze a reaction with oxygen, instead of carbon dioxide. This side reaction is called
a. Photorespiration
b. Respiration
c. Photosynthesis
d. Fermentation
a. Photorespiration
103
Which of the following is a plant group that commonly uses C4 photosynthesis
a. Pine trees
b. Mosses
c. Grasses (corn and switchgrass)
d. Oak trees
e. Ferns
c. Grasses (corn and switchgrass)
104
Suppose that the aboveground biomass of a patch of grassland ecosystem is 400 kilograms at the start of the growing system. A month later, it is 1600 kilograms. During that month, Net Primary Production is _____ kilograms
1200
105
An ecologist studying productivity in a grassland measures gross primary productivity as 4000 g C/m^2 / yr and autotrophic respiration as 1000 g C/ m^2 / yr. Based on these estimates the net primary production would be
a. cannot be determined from the given information
b. 4000 g C/ m^2 / yr
c. 100 g C/ m^2 / yr
d. 5000 g C/ m^2 / yr
e. 3000 g C/ m^2 / yr
e. 3000 g C/ m^2 / yr
106
Higher trophic levels in a food chain contain ___ energy compared to lower trophic levels
a. more
b. less
c. less variable
d. more variable
e. equal
b. less
107
An autotrophic organism living in a hydrothermal vent on the bottom of the ocean would be expected to obtain its energy through
a. the decomposition of detritus
b. mostly chemosynthesis, with small amounts of photosynthesis
c. equal amounts chemosynthesis and photosynthesis
d. chemosynthesis only
e. photosynthesis only
d. chemosynthesis only
108
Which of these organisms would be considered a true autotroph
a. a sea slug that obtains nutrients from the algae it feeds on
b. an oak tree that receives all of its energy through photosynthesis
c. a dodder that pierces into the phloem of its host plant to obtain nutrients
d. a mistletoe that receives energy from both photosynthesis and its host plant
e. pirate bush
b. an oak tree that receives all of its energy through photosynthesis
109
The feeding strategy with the highest assimilation efficiency is
a. localvore
b. omnivore
c. carnivore
d. detritivore
e. herbivore
c. carnivore
110
All other things being equal, production efficiency is typically highest among
a. endotherms
b. localvores
c. ectotherms
d. carnivores
e. herbivores
c. ectotherms
111
Which of the following is an example of a method used to measure primary production
a. Measuring the respiration rates of primary consumers
b. Measuring the amount of oxygen produced in a sealed aquatic chamber
c. Estimating the diversity of decomposers
d. Counting the number of herbivores in a given area
b. Measuring the amount of oxygen produced in a sealed aquatic chamber
112
When populations at a given trophic level are controlled by populations in the trophic level above them, they are said to be under _____ control
a. Lotka Volterra
b. functional
c. bottom-up
d. trophic
e. top-down
e. top-down
113
Aquatic ecosystems dominated by phytoplankton typically support ___ rates of herbivory than those in which vascular plants dominate
a. more variable
b. higher
c. lower
d. less deterministic
e. equal
b. higher
114
In terrestrial ecosystems, the ____ food chain is the major pathway of energy flow
a. tertiary
b. consumer
c. heterotrophic
d. detrital
e. grazing
d. detrital
115
Under what conditions may one expect to encounter "inverted trophic pyramids" where consumer biomass exceeds producer biomass
a. in ecosystems where turnover of phytoplankton exceeds turnover of zooplankton
b. terrestrial ecosystems
c. tide-pool ecosystems
d. in ecosystems where turnover of consumers exceeds turnover of producers
a. in ecosystems where turnover of phytoplankton exceeds turnover of zooplankton
116
The rate of energy of acquisition by plants after accounting for autotrophic respiration is
a. gross primary productivity
b. net primary productivity
c. photosynthesis
d. the standing crop biomass
e. net ecosystems productivity
b. net primary productivity
117
Secondary production is most directly limited primarily by
a. nutrient availability
b. high availability
c. water availability
d. temperature
e. primary production
e. primary production
118
Which of the following breaks down the slowest during decomposition
a. simple sugars
b. chitin
c. proteins
d. lignin
e. cellulose
d. lignin
119
Which of the following conditions is conducive to a high rate of decomposition
a. low temperature
b. low moisture
c. high moisture
d. low temperature and low moisture
e. high temperature and high moisture
f. high temperature
e. high temperature and high moisture
120
The process of conversion of nutrients from an organic form into an inorganic form that plants can use is called
a. transmogrification
b. respiration
c. transpiration
d. immobilization
e. mineralization
e. mineralization
121
Which of the following elements is typically the most limiting nutrient to primary production in terrestrial ecosystems
a. nitrogen
b. phosphorus
c. iron
d. carbon
e. sulfur
a. nitrogen
122
In lakes nutrients and oxygen are seasonally vertically stratified by
a. phosphorus availability
b. zooplankton
c. eutrophication
d. temperature
e. aquatic vegetation
d. temperature
123
Which of the following elements is most closely linked to the energy cycle in ecosystems
a. sulfur
b. carbon
c. iron
d. phosphorus
e. silica
f. nitrogen
b. carbon
124
Soil organic matter is:
a. the largest pool of terrestrial organic carbon
b. none of these answers
c. made up of microscopic organisms, recently dead biological material, and residues of decomposing plant and animal matter
d. comprised or detritus and humus
e. all of these answers
e. all of these answers
125
As decomposition proceeds, which molecule is lost to the atmosphere
a. CH4
b. NO3
c. CO2
d. PO4
c. CO2
126
The global nitrogen cycle is dominated by the ______ reservoir
a. terrestrial
b. atmospheric
c. detrital
d. oceanic
e. sedimentary
b. atmospheric
127
Nitrogen is limiting nutrients to primary production in terrestrial ecosystems because
a. none of these answers
b. nitrogen is an important constituent of amino acids
c. all of these answers
d. nitrogen may be tightly bound in soil humus fractions for hundreds of years
e. some forms of nitrogen are highly mobile in terrestrial ecosystems and easily lost
c. all of these answers
128
The rate of carbon cycling between the atmosphere and the biosphere is determined by the processes of
a. primary production and decomposition
b. none of these answers
c. primary production
d. decomposition
e. mineral weathering
f. vulcanism
a. primary production and decomposition
129
Nitrogen fixation is
a. an energy-intensive biochemical pathway facilitated by fungi
b. an energy-extensive biochemical pathway
c. a process facilitated by fungi
d. an energy-intensive biochemical pathway facilitated by bacteria
d. an energy-intensive biochemical pathway facilitated by bacteria
130
Excess nitrogen in the environment may contribute to
a. all of these answers
b. invasion of weedy plant species
c. eutrophication
d. nitrate concentration of ground and surface water
e. acid rain
a. all of these answers
131
Which of the following nutrients has a cycle that does NOT contain a significant atmospheric phase
a. carbon
b. oxygen
c. sulfur
d. phosphorus
e. nitrogen
d. phosphorus
132
Which is the most productive biome on a global basis
a. Algal beds and coral reefs
b. temperate deciduous forests
c. boreal forests
d. temperate grasslands
e. open ocean
f. tundra
e. open ocean
133
Following clean air act legislation in the US reductions in ______ and ______ emissions led to decrease in acid rain
a. nitrogen and phosphorus
b. carbon and phosphorus
c. carbon and sulfur
d. sulfur and nitrogen
d. sulfur and nitrogen
134
In bottom-up control, energy flow through the ecosystem is determined primarily by the
a. production efficiencies of herbivores
b. abundance of carnivores
c. assimilation efficiencies of herbivores
d. supply of resources limiting NPP
d. supply of resources limiting NPP
135
Seasonal hypoxia in the Gulf of Mexico is linked to increased _____ and ____ discharge from the Mississippi River Basin
a. oxygen and iron
b. carbon and nitrogen
c. nitrogen and sulfur
d. nitrogen and phosphorus
e. carbon and phosphorus
d. nitrogen and phosphorus
136
The atmosphere is composed of ____ % nitrogen in the form of ____
a. 21: N2
b. 21: NH4+
c. 78: N2
d. 78: NH4+
c. 78: N2
137
Decomposition of organic matter with a C:N ratio _____ than 25:1 (the optimal ratio for microbial growth) would result in a net release of nutrients into the soil. The reason is that microbial growth in this situation would be more limited by the _____ supply than by the _____ supply
a. greater; energy; nitrogen
b. less; energy; nitrogen
c. less; nitrogen; energy
d. less; nitrogen; carbon dioxide
b. less; energy; nitrogen
138
Which statement best describes the effect of occlusion of phosphorus in soils on the flux of anthropogenic phosphorus from terrestrial to aquatic ecosystems
a. it accelerates the flux when nitrogenous compounds are abundant but has little or no effect otherwise
b. it minimizes the flux, but that flux still has significant potential for negative environmental effects
c. it has minimized the flux to the extent that the flux does not have significant potential for negative environmental effects
d. it always accelerate the flux
b. it minimizes the flux, but that flux still has significant potential for negative environmental effects
139
Atmospheric CO2 levels have increased from 280 to ___ ppm since the Industrial Revolution
a. 425
b. 365
c. 300
d. 750
e. 560
f. 320
a. 425
140
What is the magnitude of the annual carbon flux from fossil fuel emission
a. 0.9 Pg C/ yr
b. 1000 Pg C/ yr
c. 1.5 Pg C/ yr
d. 10 Pg C/ yr
d. 10 Pg C/ yr
141
What is the fate of carbon emissions from fossil fuel combustion
a. All of these emissions contribute to a build-up of CO2 in the atmosphere
b. Most carbon emissions from fossil fuel combustion are absorbed by the oceans
c. About 60% is absorbed by the terrestrial biosphere and oceans and the rest contributed to increasing CO2 in the atmosphere
d. About one-third of carbon emissions are absorbed by the terrestrial biosphere and oceans
e. About one-half of carbon emissions are absorbed by the terrestrial biosphere and oceans
c. About 60% is absorbed by the terrestrial biosphere and oceans and the rest contributed to increasing CO2 in the atmosphere
142
Which is the largest pool of carbon on a global basis
a. the atmosphere
b. net primary production
c. soils and permafrost
d. terrestrial plant biomass
c. soils and permafrost
