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Elementary Psych > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the difference between nature and nurture in development?

A

Nature: Biologically determined maturation causes development.
- Nurture: Environmental experiences cause development.

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2
Q

What is a sensitive period?

A

A time window when development occurs best; nature sets the window, and **nurture provides the experience

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3
Q

What did Johnson & Newport (1989) find about the language-sensitive period?

A

There is a negative relationship between age of arrival and grammar ability in English learners; learning before age 7 leads to native-like grammar

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4
Q

How can experience affect biology according to Greenough’s “Rich Rats & Poor Rats” study?

A

Rats raised in enriched environments developed more complex neural structures than those in **basic cages*

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5
Q

What are three reasons the “Mozart Effect” is not reliable for child development?

A
  1. Studies were done on adults
  2. It doesn’t replicate well
  3. A caring home is already an enriched environment
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6
Q

What is the significance of “Motherese” (infant-directed speech)?

A

It attracts attention and exaggerates sound features, helping infants learn phonemes. Goofy baby talk helps infants understand language

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7
Q

What is over-regularization in language development?

A

Applying regular grammar rules to irregular verbs, like saying “goed” instead of “went.”

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8
Q

What does past-tense learning suggest about language acquisition?

A

It supports the idea of an explicit mental rule for grammar plus a list of exceptions (irregular verbs).

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9
Q

What are Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development?

A
  1. Sensorimotor (0–2 yrs)
  2. Preoperational (2–7 yrs)
  3. Concrete Operational (7–11 yrs)
  4. Formal Operational (11+ yrs)
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10
Q

What are the two main processes Piaget believed drive cognitive change?

A
  • Assimilation: interpreting new information using existing knowledge
  • Accommodation: altering knowledge structures to fit new information
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11
Q

What is the major milestone of the sensorimotor stage?

A

Development of the object concept, including object permanence

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12
Q

What is the A-not-B task and what does it demonstrate?

A

Infants look for an object where it was previously found (A), not where it was last placed (B). Failure of this task under ~12 months suggests immature frontal lobe development. (Sensorimotor stage)

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13
Q

What cognitive limitation is common in the preoperational stage?

A

Egocentrism – difficulty taking others’ perspectives (demonstrated by the three-mountains task).

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14
Q

What is conservation and how do children struggle with it?

A

Conservation is understanding that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or appearance. Children in this stage fail conservation tasks (e.g., liquid in different-shaped containers). (Preoperational stage)

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15
Q

What major ability develops in the concrete operational stage?

A

Children can perform mental operations but only on concrete, physical objects

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16
Q

What type of thinking emerges in the formal operational stage?

A

Abstract reasoning – including logic, hypothetical thinking, and concepts like justice and algebra.

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17
Q

What is counterfactual thinking?

A

Thinking about “what if” scenarios – a hallmark of the formal operational stage.

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18
Q

How does Vygotsky’s theory differ from Piaget’s?

A

Vygotsky emphasized social and cultural influences on development, rather than purely logical stages.

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19
Q

What is internalization in Vygotsky’s theory?

A

The process by which social behaviors become internal mental functions, like learning to point.

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20
Q

How do Montessori-style classrooms relate to Vygotsky’s theory?

A

They promote peer interaction and guided learning, aligning with the idea of working within the ZPD.

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21
Q

What are the three types of traits proposed by Gordon Allport?

A
  1. Cardinal Traits – Rare, dominate personality (e.g., Dalai Lama’s compassion)
  2. Central Traits – General dispositions (e.g., being outgoing)
  3. Secondary Traits – Context-dependent (e.g., talkative with friends, quiet with family)
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22
Q

What is the Lexical Hypothesis in trait theory?

A

If a trait exists, there should be a word for it in language. Allport and Odbert identified 18,000 unique terms to describe personality traits.

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23
Q

What are the Big Five traits?

A
  1. Openness to experience
  2. Conscientiousness
  3. Extraversion
  4. Agreeableness
  5. Neuroticism
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24
Q

Which Big Five trait is associated with worrying a lot?

A

Neuroticism

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25
Which Big Five trait is linked with being the life of the party?
Extraversion
26
What trait is someone displaying if they avoid philosophical discussions?
Low openness to experience
27
How does temperament differ from personality?
Temperament applies to young children and toddlers; personality is tested in teens and adults.
28
What are the three dimensions of temperament?
1. Positive emotionality 2. Negative emotionality 3. Self-regulation
29
What personality traits might self-regulation in temperament predict?
Conscientiousness and agreeableness
30
How is temperament measured?
Through self-reports by parents/teachers or behavioral paradigms.
31
What is Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development primarily focused on?
The social construction of thought.
32
What is "internalization" in Vygotsky's theory?
When social factors become part of the individual (e.g., using a pencil).
33
What is the "zone of proximal development"?
The gap between current abilities and maximal potential; most learning occurs here.
34
What is attachment in psychological development?
A strong social-emotional bond between a child and a caregiver.
35
What is imprinting and which psychologist studied it?
A form of attachment seen in animals; studied by Konrad Lorenz.
36
How did Mark Johnson’s research study how human infants show imprinting-like behavior?
Newborns orient more to faces than nonfaces
37
What is the "cupboard theory" of attachment?
The idea that attachment is driven by biological needs, mainly food.
38
Who proposed an alternative to the cupboard theory, and what was it?
Bowlby; he proposed that comfort, not food, is key to attachment.
39
What did Harlow’s monkey studies demonstrate about attachment?
Monkeys preferred cloth-covered "mothers" for comfort over wire ones that provided food, supporting Bowlby’s theory.
40
What is separation anxiety and when does it typically begin?
Distress when a caregiver leaves; begins around 8 months of age.
41
What is the "Strange Situation" and who developed it?
A structured observation method to study attachment patterns by having the mother enter and leave the infant in a room with a stranger; developed by Mary Ainsworth.
42
What are the characteristics of secure attachment?
Explores when mother is present, upset when she leaves, greets her upon return (~70% of infants).
43
What are the characteristics of insecure-ambivalent attachment?
Doesn’t explore environment, upset when mother leaves, ambivalent when she returns (~15%).
44
What are the characteristics of insecure-avoidant attachment?
Ignores mother, not upset when she leaves, aloof upon return (~15%).
45
How do attachments with fathers compare to those with mothers?
Children show similar attachment behavior with dads; moms provide security and comfort, dads are associated with physical play
46
How does early attachment style predict future behavior?
Securely attached infants tend to be well-adjusted, popular, and socially skilled later in life.
47
What does research say about daycare and attachment?
Results vary; some studies show daycare children are as securely attached as those raised at home—quality of daycare is crucial.
48
What is temperament and how does it affect attachment?
A biological/genetic disposition of personality; difficult temperaments can challenge secure attachment formation.
49
What is social psychology?
Social psychology is the study of how one's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are affected by others (society).
50
What are the four key topics studied in social psychology mentioned in the slides?
Attraction, influence of groups, authority, and cultural norms.
51
What is obedience as defined in the slides?
Compliance with an order due to the perception that the ‘requestor’ has a legitimate right to make the request.
52
How does obedience differ from conformity?
Conformity is a change in behavior due to real or imagined pressure from others, often for social acceptance, while obedience is compliance to authority.
53
What was Stanley Milgram’s main research question?
Will normal, average people perform evil acts simply because an authority figure asks them to?
54
What are Milgram’s three explanations for obedience?
1. Loss of responsibility by participants 2. Situational obligation 3. Science viewed as a legitimate institution
55
What are the four criteria psychologists use to define abnormal behavior?
1. Infrequent (statistically rare) 2. Deviant (violates social norms) 3. Maladaptive (causes harm) 4. Unjustifiable (without rational basis)
56
Give two pros and two cons of the DSM-5.
**Pros:** - Provides accurate and consistent diagnosis - Helps determine appropriate therapy **Cons:** - Can lead to loss of individuality - Can cause labeling and comorbidity issues (overlap of disorders)
57
What is an example of "labeling bias" shown by Rosenhan's (1973) study?
Healthy individuals admitted to psychiatric hospitals for saying they "heard voices" were then treated as if they were mentally ill, despite acting normally afterward.
58
What does the term "schizophrenia" literally mean?
"Split mind" (referring to disordered and disintegrated thinking, not multiple personalities).
59
What are the four main characteristics of schizophrenia?
1. Disorders of cognition (loosening of associations) 2. Social isolation 3. Hallucinations and delusions 4. Disturbance of affect (flat or inappropriate emotions)
60
What are positive vs. negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
- **Positive symptoms:** Presence of abnormal behaviors (e.g., hallucinations) - **Negative symptoms:** Absence of normal behaviors (e.g., flat affect)
61
What causes schizophrenia according to the Biological-Psychological account?
- Biological predisposition (e.g., excess dopamine in the frontal lobe) - Psychological/social stress (e.g., socioeconomic status, emotional expression in family)
62
What defines a specific phobia?
A persistent, irrational fear of a specific object, activity, or situation that is excessive relative to the actual threat.
63
What are the diagnostic criteria for a specific phobia?
- Immediate fear/anxiety when encountering the object or situation - Active avoidance or endurance with intense fear - Fear is out of proportion to actual danger - Persistent for 6 months or more - Causes clinically significant distress or impairment
64
What famous figure had a specific phobia of germs and dust?
Howard Hughes.
65
Besides genetic components, what learning theory can explain the development of many
Classical conditioning (example: Little Albert experiment).
66
What is trephining, and how was it historically used?**
Trephining is the act of drilling a hole into the skull, used historically as a treatment for abnormal behavior
67
What are some explanations for why people who undergo trephining might report feeling better?**
Cognitive dissonance, regression to the mean, and the placebo effect.
68
What model does modern therapy follow?**
The pathology model, which views symptoms as arising from an underlying cause that therapy should target
69
What are the two types of underlying causes of abnormal behavior identified in therapy history?*
Somatogenic (biological/organic) and psychogenic (psychological)
70
What did Hans Eysenck (1952) claim about psychotherapy?
He claimed that psychotherapy was not effective and that recovery rates were higher without therapy due to spontaneous recovery
71
What is spontaneous recovery, and how does it relate to regression to the mean?
Spontaneous recovery is when symptoms improve naturally over time, especially when initial severity was extreme — this is explained by regression to the mean
72
What is empirical validation in psychotherapy?
It refers to evidence that a specific therapy works better than doing nothing or better than alternative therapies
73
What did Smith & Glass find in their meta-analyses?
People who received therapy were about twice as likely to improve as those who did not receive therapy
74
What therapy is most commonly supported by empirical validation?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
75
What are the two components of CBT?
Cognitive (restructuring thoughts) and Behavioral (learning positive behavior change)
76
What is the main treatment for schizophrenia?
Antipsychotic medications that reduce dopamine levels
77
Why is social support important in treating schizophrenia?
Because patients must remain on medication, and social support helps ensure adherence
78
What kind of therapy is most effective for phobias?
Behavioral therapy.
79
Who pioneered counterconditioning, and what did it involve?
Mary Cover Jones helped a child unlearn fear of rabbits through counterconditioning
80
What is systematic desensitization?
A form of exposure therapy combining relaxation techniques with gradual exposure to the feared stimulus
81
What is flooding in exposure therapy?
Exposing the patient to a large amount of the feared stimulus all at once to demonstrate they are safe.
82
What is the DSM-5 used for in clinical psychology?
It’s a diagnostic tool used to classify and diagnose mental disorders
83
What do clinical psychologists do besides diagnosing mental disorders?
They identify psychosocial or contextual factors that contribute to the disorder
84
What are the two main symptoms required for a Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) diagnosis?
Depressed mood and loss of interest/pleasure (anhedonia) — at least one must be present.
85
What is the minimum duration for MDD symptoms to be considered diagnosable?
Symptoms must be present most of the day, nearly every day, for **at least two weeks
86
What is rumination, and how does it relate to MDD?
Rumination is repetitively thinking about emotional problems, more common in women and linked to higher MDD risk.
87
What is the difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorder?
Bipolar I includes at least one manic episode; Bipolar II includes at least one hypomanic episode and one depressive episode, but no full manic episode.
88
What triggers Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders?
Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence.
89
What are the four PTSD symptom clusters?
1) Intrusion, 2) Avoidance, 3) Negative alterations in mood/cognition, 4) Arousal/reactivity.
90
What distinguishes PTSD from Acute Anxiety Disorder?
PTSD symptoms last more than one month; Acute Anxiety Disorder symptoms last between **3 days and 1 month**
91
According to the Diathesis-Stress Model, what causes mental disorders?
A combination of genetic predisposition (diathesis) and environmental stressors. Nature v. Nurture
92
What are two main treatment categories for mental disorders?
Biological (e.g., medications like SSRIs or SNRIs) and Psychological (e.g., Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy).

Elementary Psych (3 decks)

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