Final Exam Flashcards

(145 cards)

1
Q

Name the defensive mechanism:
Dealing with anxiety by reaching out to others (taking a bad thing and turning it positive)

A

Altruism

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2
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
Covering up a real or perceived weakness by emphasizing a trait one considers more desirable

A

Compensation

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3
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
Responding to stress through the unconscious development of physical manifestations not caused by a physical illness

A

Conversion

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4
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
the transfer of feelings from one target to another that is considered less threatening or that is neutral

A

Displacement

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5
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
a disruption in consciousness, memory, identity, or perception of the environment that results in compartmentalization of uncomfortable or unpleasant aspects of oneself

A

Dissociation

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6
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
an attempt to increase self-worth by acquiring certain attributes and characteristics of an individual one admires

A

Identification

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7
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
an attempt to avoid expressing actual emotions associated with a stressful situation by using the intellectual processes of logic, reasoning, and analysis

A

Intellectualization

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8
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
integrating the beliefs and values of another individual into one’s own ego structure

A

Introjection

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9
Q

Name the defense mechanis:
separating a thought or memory from the feeling, tone, or emotion associated with it

A

Isolation

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10
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
attributing feelings or impulses unacceptable to one’s self to another person

A

Projection

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11
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
attempting to make excuses or formulate logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors

A

Rationalization

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12
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
preventing unacceptable or undesirable thoughts or behaviors from being expressed by exaggerating opposite thoughts or types of behaviors

A

Reaction formation

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13
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
retreating in response to stress to an earlier level of development and the comfort measures associated with that level of functioning

A

Regression

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14
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
involuntarily blocking unpleasant feelings and experiences from one’s awareness

A

Repression

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15
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
demonstrating an inability to reconcile negative and positive attributes of self or others into a cohesive image

A

Splitting

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16
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
rechanneling of drives or impulses that are personally or socially unacceptable into activities that are constructive

A

Sublimation

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17
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
the voluntary blocking of unpleasant feelings and experiences from one’s awareness

A

Suppression

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18
Q

Name the defense mechanism:
symbolically negating or canceling out an experience that one finds intolerable

A

Undoing

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19
Q

What are clinical manifestations of of ADHD?

A

1) Limited attention span
2) Impulsivity
3) Disruptive/Intrusive
4) Low frustration/Outbursts
5) Hyperactivity

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20
Q

What types of medication classes are given to those with ADHD?

A

Stimulants & non-stimulants

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21
Q

When is ADHD usually diagnosed?

A

School-age

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22
Q

What are comorbidities of ADHD?

A

1) Juvenile-onset BPD
2) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
3) Conduct disorder
4) Childhood depression**
5) Anxiety disorders
6) Substance use disorders

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23
Q

What are common side effects of stimulants for ADHD?

A

1) Decreased appetite
2) Weight loss
3) Hypotension

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24
Q

What 2 stimulants are most commonly given for those with ADHD?

A

Ritlian & Vyvanse

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25
True or false: When communicating with someone who has ADHD, it is most effective to give a clear, simple, list of things and directions
False -- DON'T give them a list of things, give directions one at a time
26
What is the priority intervention for someone experiencing akathesia?
Give them a benzo to calm them down
27
Name the process: Court ordered & 2 physicians have to sign off on this
Involuntary admission
28
How soon does a court date appearance need to be made for someone with involuntary admission?
Within 60 days
29
Name the vocab: Chemical messenger that transmits messages from one neuron to another
Neurotransmitter
30
What NT is associated with memory?
Acetylcholine
31
What NT is associated with anxiety?
GABA
32
What NT is associated with depression?
Serotonin
33
What NT is associated with schizophrenia?
Dopamine
34
What does low amounts of acetylcholine cause?
Alzheimers
35
What can cause delerium?
1) Infection -- like UTI 2) Polypharmacy 3) Prolonged hospital/ICU stays
36
What does low amounts of norepi cause?
depression
37
What does high amounts of dopamine cause?
Schizophrenia & mania
38
What does low amounts of serotonin cause?
Depression
39
What does low amounts of GABA cause?
Anxiety
40
Name the med: 1) Controls episodes of acute mania 2) Prolongs phases between mania & depression (helps keep BPD stable) 3) Decreases incidence of suicide
Lithium
41
What are therapeutic lithium levels?
0.6 - 1.2
42
What lithium levels are expected of someone experiencing active mania in BPD?
1.0 - 1.5
43
How frequently should lithium levels be monitored
1) Monthly in the beginning 2) Once therapeutic levels are reached, every other month
44
Name the vocab: Provided care causes harm to patient because you are not meeting the client's needs
Negligence
45
Name the vocab: Form of restraint without a probable cause
False imprisonment
46
Name the vocab: Verbally threatening someone
Assault
47
Name the vocab: Physically harming someone (putting your hands on them)
Battery
48
Who is our duty of care owed to?
The patient
49
How frequently do restraints need to be assessed?
Every 15 mins
50
When does an order for restraints expire?
After 24 hrs
51
If you apply emergency restraints, how soon after do you need the physicians order?
Within 1 hr & they need to physically see the patient
52
True or False: Seclusion is considered a form of restraint
True
53
True or False: Ativan is considered a mechanical restraint
False- -- it is considered a chemical restraint
54
How do you remove restraints?
One at a time
55
True or False: Patients with anxiety r/t phobias can routinely take benzos
False -- NO routine benzos
56
What needs to be educated on for patients taking SSRIs?
Serotonin syndrome, especially if they are taking St Johns Wort too
57
What education is needed for patients taking benzos?
1) Sedation 2) Resp distress (when mixing w/ other CNS depressants like alcohol) -- synergistic effect 3) No driving/operating heavy machinery
58
When someone is experiencing an increased amount of stress, what behavioral modifications can be recommended?
1) Meditation/prayer 2) Guided Imagery 3) Breathing exercises 4) Progressive muscle relaxation 5) Exercise 6) Cognitive reframing 7) Journaling 8) Biofeedback 9) Priority Restructuring 10) Mindfulness 11) Assertiveness training
59
Name the stress management technique: Therapist uses painless sensors on skin to monitor ANS & client and therapist identify techniques to decrease stress
Biofeedback
60
Name the stress management technique: Client prioritizes differently to decrease number of stressors (ex: delegating tasks when needed)
Priority restructuring
61
Name the stress management technique: Being aware of surroundings, try to leave stressful environments, trying to finding things to relieve stress
Mindfulness
62
Name the stress management technique: Learn to say no to things that cause stress
Assertiveness training
63
Name the stress management technique: Help client look at irrational thoughts or cognitions in a more realistic way and help restructure those thoughts in a more positive way
Cognitive reframing
64
True or False: Anxiety is an emotional response
True
65
True or False: Fear is a cognitive response
True
66
What is the fear of needles, pins, and sharp objects r/t the medical setting?
Trypanophobia
67
What is the fear of being in places or situations from which escape or help might not be possible if panic sx occur -- scared of actual place?
Agoraphobia
68
What is the excessive fear that the affected person might be embarrassed or be evaluated negatively by others (scared how others will view them)?
Social Anxiety Disorder
69
Name the disorder: Temporary change in awareness characterized by feeling they are observing one's own personality or body from a distance or when the person feels the events are part of a dream or unreal
Depersonalization/derealization disorder
70
Name the disorder: Inability to recall personal information r/t traumatic or stressful events -- common with trauma victims (may not recall the crime or what the perpetrator looks like
Dissociative amnesia
71
Name the disorder: Type of dissociative amnesia where person travels to new area and does not know self or parts of their past (could end up in the middle of a field)
Dissociative fugue
72
Name the disorder: Personality switches to protect the primary self- client displays more than 1 personality (at least 2) & will have memory gaps
Dissociative identity disorders
73
What is the 1st line tx for PTSD?
SSRIs
74
Name the disorder: Exposure to traumatic events that cause anxiety, detachment, and other manifestations about the event for > 1 month (can last for years)
PTSD
75
What are CMs of PTSD?
1) Intrusions (flashbacks) 2) Guilt 3) Recurring dreams 4) Avoidance or reminders of stimuli 5) Anhedonia 6) Negative mood/state 7) Persistent arousal (outbursts, self-destructive behavior) 8) Depersonalization/derealization
76
What is systemic desensitization?
Behavioral therapy to remove the response of phobia or images (PTSD) -- gradual stimulus to exposure
77
What are CMs of MDD?
1) Depressed mood 2) Loss of interest 3) Potential SAD recurrence 4) Sleep disturbances 5) Suicidal ideation 6) Anhedonia 7) Weight changes
78
How long must someone experience sx of MDD to be dx?
Every day for at least 2 weeks
79
What are the 1st line tx for MDD?
SSRIs/SNRIs
80
What are med classes that can be given for MDD?
1) SSRIs/SNRIs 2) Anti-anxiety 3) TCA (take longer to work) 4) MAOIs
81
What are positive sx of schizophrenia?
1) Delusions 2) Hallucinations 3) Disorganized thinking 4) Grossly disorganized of Abnormal Motor Behavior
82
What are negative sx of schizophrenia?
1) Lack of emotional expression 2) Avolition 3) Alogia 4) Associality 5) Concrete thinking 6) Apathy 7) Anosognosia 8) Anergia
83
Name the vocab: Decreased or lack of motivation to complete purposeful activities
Avolition
84
Name the vocab: Decreased verbal communication
Alogia
85
Name the vocab: Decreased interest in social interaction and relationship
Associality
86
Name the type of thought disturbance (+ sx of schizophrenia): Paranoid
Persecutory
87
Name the type of thought disturbance (+ sx of schizophrenia): Exceptional greatness
Grandiose
88
Name the type of thought disturbance (+ sx of schizophrenia): Cues in the environment are specifically referring to them
Delusions of reference
89
Name the type of thought disturbance (+ sx of schizophrenia): Magical thinking
Delusions of control or influence
90
Name the type of thought disturbance (+ sx of schizophrenia): Centered on personal body function
Somatic
91
Name the type of thought disturbance (+ sx of schizophrenia): The self, part of self, others, or the world is nonexistent or has been destroyed
Nihilistic
92
Name the type of thought disturbance (+ sx of schizophrenia): Someone of higher status is in love with tehm
Erotomanic
93
Name the type of thought disturbance (+ sx of schizophrenia): Sexual partner is unfaithful
Jealous
94
What are the + sx: thought disturbances of schizophrenia?
1) Persecutory 2) Grandiose 3) Delusions of reference 4) Delusions of control or influence 5) Somatic 6) Nihilistic 7) Erotomanic 8) Jealous
95
True or False: Thought disturbances of schizophrenia are delusions
True
96
True or False: Perceptual disturbances of schizophrenia are hallucinations
True
97
Name the vocab: False sensory perceptions not associated with real external stimuli (involves 5 senses)
Hallucinations
98
Name the vocab: Imitating movement of others
Echopraxia
99
Name the vocab: Misperceptions or misinterpretations of real external stimuli
Illusions
100
Name the type of disorganized thinking (+ sx of schizophrenia): Shift of one idea to another without connection of ideas
Loose associations
101
Name the type of disorganized thinking (+ sx of schizophrenia): Newly invented words that are meaningless to others
Neologisms
102
Name the type of disorganized thinking (+ sx of schizophrenia): Using words in a sentence that rhyme
Clang associations
103
Name the type of disorganized thinking (+ sx of schizophrenia): Words that are put together without meaning
Word salad
104
Name the type of disorganized thinking (+ sx of schizophrenia): Unable to express point of topic due to unnecessary or tedious details
Circumstantiality
105
Name the type of disorganized thinking (+ sx of schizophrenia): Unable to focus on topic, veers off topic
Tangentiality
106
Name the type of disorganized thinking (+ sx of schizophrenia): Speaking same word or idea in response to different questions
Perseveration
107
Name the type of disorganized thinking (+ sx of schizophrenia): Repeating words or phrases spoken by another
Echolalia
108
Name the vocab: Not aware they have an illness even when sx are obvious to others
Anosognosia
109
What are associated factors of catatonia?
1) Stereotyped behaviors 2) Automatic obedience 3) Bizarre posturing 4) Waxy flexibility 5) Negativism 6) Stupor 7) Extreme motor activity
110
What do conventional (1st gen) antipsychotics target?
Positive sx of schizophrenia
111
What are disadvantages of conventional (1st gen) antipsychotics?
1) Extrapyramidal SEs 2) Anticholinergic SEs 3) Lower seizure threshold 4) Agranulocytosis 5) Sexual dysfunction 6) Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
112
What are S&S of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
1) Fever 2) Muscle rigidity 3) Tachycardia 4) AMS
113
What are the 4 EPS?
1) Akathesia 2) Psuedoparkinsonism 3) Tardive dyskinesia 4) Acute dystonia
114
True or False: Atypical (2nd gen) antipyschotics tx both positive and negative sx of schizophrenia
True
115
True or false: Atypical antipsychotics have minimal to no EPS
True
116
What is a disadvantage of using atypical antipsychotics?
Weight gain
117
Name the EPS: 1) Stooped posture 2) Shuffling gait 3) Rigidity 4) Bradykinesia 5) Tremors at rest 6) Pill-rolling motion of hands
Pseudoparkinsonism
118
Name the EPS: 1) Facial grimacing 2) Involuntary upward eye movement 3) Muscles spams of tongue, face, neck, and back 4) Laryngeal spasms
Acute dystonia
119
Name the EPS: 1) Restless 2) Trouble standing still 3) Paces the floor 4) Feet in constant motion, rocking back and forth
Akathisia
120
Name the EPS: 1) Protrusion and rolling of the tongue 2) Sucking and smacking movements of the lips 3) Chewing motion 4) Facial dyskinesia 5) Involuntary movements of the body and extremities
Tardive dyskinesia
121
What are the cluster A personality disorders?
1) Paranoid 2) Schizoid 3) Schizotypal
122
What are the cluster B disorders?
1) Histrionic 2) Narcissistic 3) Antisocial 4) Borderline
123
What are the cluster C disorders?
1) Dependent 2) Avoidant 3) Obsessive-Compulsive
124
What are cluster a disorders characterized as?
Odd & eccentric
125
What are cluster b disorders characterized as?
Impulsive, Erratic, Dramatic
126
What are cluster c disorders characterized as?
Anxious & Avoidant
127
Name the personality disorder: characterized by distrust and suspiciousness towards others- may believe others want to cause harm “everyone wants to harm them”
Paranoid
128
Name the Personality Disorder: Characterized by emotional detachment, disinterest in close relationships/will not engage in relationships whatsoever, indifference (don’t like) to praise or criticism, often uncooperative
Schizoid
129
Name the Personality Disorder: Characterized by odd beliefs/behaviors leading to interpersonal difficulties, may have an eccentric appearance, and may have magical thinking that are not clear delusions or hallucinations; very indifferent, but can also be detached
Schizotypal
130
True or False: Cluster A disorders are not dx of schizophrenia & do not have clear delusions or hallucinations
True
131
Name the personality disorder: disregard for others with exploitation, lack of empathy, repeated unlawful actions, deceit, failure to accept personal responsibility, evidence of conduct disorder by age of 15 (will harm others/animals with no regard or remorse), entitlement, manipulative (be nice & sweet to get what they want), impulsive, sexually seductive, and is verbally charming and engaging. Ex: serial killers/psychopaths
Antisocial
132
Name the personality disorder: instability of affect, identify, and relationships. Has splitting behaviors (commonly seen), manipulation, impulsiveness, and fear of abandonment (to the point where they will hurt themselves or others/threaten suicide or engage in act of suicide if someone tries to leave them), affect is unstable, difficulty maintaining relationships often engages in self harm, potential for suicide
Borderline
133
Name the personality disorder: emotional attention seeking behavior, in which the person needs to be center of attention. Often seductive and flirtatious, dresses provactively, very extroverted to gain attention, overly concerned with appearance
Histrionic
134
Name the personality disorder: arrogance, grandiose views of self importance, need for constant admiration, and lack of empathy for other- sensitive to criticism; if someone rejects them or does not give desired answer, they get very rude and arrogant; very egocentric; feel like they are on top of the world
Narcissistic
135
Name the personality disorder: social inhibition and avoidance of all situations that require interpersonal contact despite wanting close relationships. Extreme fear of rejections- they have feelings of inadequacy and are anxious in social situations
Avoidant
136
137
Name the personality disorder: indecisiveness and perfectionism with a focus on orderliness & control to the extent that the individual might not be able to accomplish a task
Obsessive-Compulsive
138
What are examples of SSRIs? (antidepressants)
1) Celexa 2) Lexapro 3) Prozac 4) Luvox 5) Zoloft
139
How long can it take to see full effects of SSRIs?
4 weeks
140
What are examples of SNRIs (antidepressants)?
1) Duloxetine 2) Venlafaxine
141
What are examples of TCAs?
1) Elavil 2) Anafranil 3) Tofranil
142
What are SEs of TCAs?
1) Sedation 2) Orthostatic hypotension 3) Anticholinergic effects 4) Sweating 5) Seizures 6) Arrthymias
143
What are foods high in tyramine?
1) Wine 2) Chocolate 3) Aged cheese 4) Caffeine 5) Bologna, salami, pepperoni 6) Avocados, bananas
144
What are toxic lithium levels?
1.5 - 2.0
145
What are S&S of lithium toxicity?
1) V/D 2) Slurred Speech 3) Weakness 4) Stupor 5) Coma 6) Tremors 7) Seizures