FINAL EXAM Flashcards by Viviana Rodriguez

What was the early focal point of interest in organ transplantation?
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Liver

A. Kidney

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Skin grafts were first used experimentally as a treatment for which condition?
A. Leg ulcers
B. Traumatic injury
C. Burn injury
D. Skin cancer

C. Burn injury

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What was one of the earliest immunosuppressants to be successfully used on transplant patients?
A. Cyclosporine
B. Azathioprine
C. Corticosteroids
D. 6-mercaptopurine

B. Azathioprine

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Early attempts at organ and hematopoietic cell transplantation failed for which underlying reason?
A. Use of nonhuman donors
B. Postoperative infections
C. Primitive surgical techniques
D. Lack of knowledge about histocompatibility

D. Lack of knowledge about histocompatibility

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The transplantation of tissue between members of the same species is which type of graft?
A. Autograft
B. Heterograft
C. Xenograft
D. Allograft

D. Allograft

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Which term refers specifically to transplantation between identical twins?
A. Isograft
B. Autograft
C. Heterograft
D. Allograft

A. Isograft

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Segmental (partial) live-organ donations are usually between which two parties?
A. Identical twins
B. Husband and wife
C. Parent and child
D. Human and ape

C. Parent and child

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Which major legislation authorizes the donation of all or part of the human body following death?
A. National Organ Transplant Act
B. Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
C. Uniform Determination of Death Act
D. Omnibus Reconciliation Act

B. Uniform Anatomical Gift Act

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According to the Uniform Determination of Death Act, which aspects are included in the definition of brain death? Select all that apply,
A. Irreversible
B. Failure of cardiac function
C. Loss of brain stem function
D. Loss of all brain function
E. Glascow coma scale of 3

A, C, D

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Which diagnostic criterion must be met before a patient can be clinically diagnosed with brain death?
A. Core temperature of 32°C or higher
B. Arterial pH between 7.35 to 7.45
C. Serum K between 3 and 5 mEq/L
D. Serum glucose between 70 and 100 mg/dL

A. Core temperature of 32°C or higher

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In apnea testing, the patient is considered apneic if the PaCO2 is ___ mm Hg after ___ minutes and no respiratory effort is noted.
A. 50, 5
B. 50, 10
C. 60, 5
D. 60, 10

D. 60, 10

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Which confirmatory test for brain death evaluates blood flow to the brain?
A. Electroencephalography
B. Cerebral angiography
C. Somatosensory evoked potentials
D. Arterial blood gas

B. Cerebral angiography

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What are major management goals in caring for the donor patient? Select all that apply.
A. Maintaining a stable hemodynamic status
B. Maintaining infections at a minimum level
C. Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance
D. Maintaining optimal oxygenation status

A, C, D

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What is the most common underlying cause of hypotension in the donor?
A. Dehydration
B. Cardiac function
C. Fluid overload
D. Increased systemic vascular resistance

A. Dehydration

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A patient diagnosed with brain death who develops a coagulopathy may receive which therapy to counteract this program?
A. Dopamine
B. Fresh frozen plasma
C. Levothyroxine
D. Solu-Medrol

B. Fresh frozen plasma

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A patient who will be an organ donor has been given a diagnosis of brain death. Which urine output parameter would be the goal to maintain the patient’s kidney status?
A. 30 to 50 mL/hr
B. 50 to 75 mL/hr
C. 75 to 100 mL/hr
D. 100 to 300 mL/hr

D. 100 to 300 mL/hr

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A major advantage of early notification of the organ procurement coordinator when a potential donor has been identified is that ___ can be initiated.
A. Family counseling
B. Life-support measures
C. Signing of the consent form
D. Preliminary evaluation for suitability

D. Preliminary evaluation for suitability

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Which statement best describes procedures related to organ recovery in the operating room?
A. An anesthesiologist is not necessary.
B. The donor’s physician is not part of the recovery team.
C. Only one organ recovery team can be present in the operating room.
D. The recipient’s physician must be part of the recovery team.

B. The donor’s physician is not part of the recovery team.

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When the donor is brought to the OR for organ recovery, the chart must contain which required documentation? Select all that apply.
A. Signed OPO release form
B. Signed or recorded consent form
C. Time-of-death declaration
D. Specification of which organs are to be recovered
E. Date-of-death declaration

B, C, E

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Which descriptors best represent how recovered organs are preserved for transport? Select all that apply.
A. Preservation solution
B. Sharp frozen
C. Cold packing
D. Electrolyte solution
E. Warm packing

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A, C

Where on (in) the cell are HLA antigens located?
A. Surface
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria

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A. Surface

The best histocompatibility matching is found between which relatives?
A. Siblings
B. Identical twins
C. Parent and child
D. Fraternal twins

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B. Identical twins

What is the term for the identification of the histocompatibility antigens of both donor and recipient?
A. Crossmatching
B. ABO typing
C. Antigen classifying
D. Tissue typing

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D. Tissue typing

A recipient can become sensitized to foreign HLA antigens in which ways? Select all that apply.
A. Pregnancy
B. Donating blood
C. Prior organ transplantation
D. Receiving blood transfusion

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A, C, D

What are some general guidelines for determining organ transplant need? Select all that apply. A. Severe functional disability B. End-stage organ failure C. Psychological readiness D. Additional serious health problems

A, B, D

The decision to place a person on the organ transplant waiting list is usually made by whom? A. The patient/family B. A multidisciplinary committee C. The organ procurement team D. The potential recipient’s physician

B. A multidisciplinary committee

The determination of end-stage organ failure is based primarily on which criterion? A. Tissue biopsy B. Patient history C. Functional disability D. Age/gender

A. Tissue biopsy

A transplant candidate undergoes basic psychological testing for which reason? A. There is a risk of posttransplant psychosis B. A depressed state is a major contraindication for transplantation C. A higher mortality is associated with pretransplant psychological distress D. Certain psychological profiles increase the risk of posttransplant nonadherence to the drug regimen

D. Certain psychological profiles increase the risk of posttransplant nonadherence to the drug regimen

Organ rejection that takes place minutes to hours following transplantation and results from the presence of preformed graft-specific cytotoxic antibodies is called __ rejection. A. Subacute B. Acute C. Hyperacute D. Chronic

C. Hyperacute

Postransplant patients are at particular risk for developing a __ infection either from being seropositive prior to the transplant of after receiving a seropositive organ or blood transfusion? A. Cytomegalovirus B. Pneumonia C. Hepatitis A D. Wound

A. Cytomegalovirus

Posttransplant patients are at increased risk for malignancies secondary to which condition? Select all that apply. A. Organ toxicity B. Persistent viral infection C. Underlying tissue incompatibility D. Prolonged immunosuppressant therapy

B, D

What are some risk factors for posttransplant new-onset diabetes mellitus? Select all that apply. A. Organ rejection B. Age older than 60 C. Non White ethnicity D. Female gender E. History of hepatitis C infection

A, C, E

Which immunosuppressant selectively acts against cytotoxic T cells without affecting other types of immune cells? A. Corticosteroids B. Azathioprine C. Cyclosporine D. OKT3

C. Cyclosporine

Long-term posttransplantation steroid therapy is particularly associated with potentially severe ___ disorders. A. Heart B. Bone C. Liver D. Blood

B. Bone

Which major gastrointestinal side effect is common to almost all immunosuppressant drugs? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Heartburn C. Abdominal cramping D. Constipation

A. Nausea and vomiting

Monoclonal antibodies are unique in that they target which cells? A. B cells B. Helper T lymphocytes C. Suppressor T lymphocytes D. Specific lymphocyte subsets

D. Specific lymphocyte subsets

What is the most common symptom associated with CRS? A. Chills B. Vomiting C. Diarrhea D. Hypotension

A. Chills

When a patient has orders to receive sirolimus and cyclosporine, which administration rule applies? A. They should be administered simultaneously B. They cannot be given within 4 hours of each other C. They should be administered in separate veins D. They cannot be administered within 6 hours of each other

B. They cannot be given within 4 hours of each other

Allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation to treat cancer has which major advantage? A. It can cure all types of leukemia B. It has fewer complications than other treatments for cancer C. Remaining cancer cells can be filtered out during apheresis D. A high-dose chemotherapy regimen can be used to eradicate the cancer

D. A high-dose chemotherapy regimen can be used to eradicate the cancer

What is the major drawback of using autologous stem cells for transplantation? A. It has a higher risk of graft rejection than that associated with allogeneic grafts B. It has a higher risk of reintroducing malignant cells into the blood C. It requires high doses of immunosuppressive drug therapy D. It is not as effective as allogeneic stem cell transplantation in restoring marrow function

B. It has a higher risk of reintroducing malignant cells into the blood

When a donor’s peripheral blood is to be used as the source of hematopoietic stem cells for grafting purposes, what step must be taken before cells are harvested? A. The final round of cancer chemotherapy is completed B. Growth factors are administered to mobilize stem cells C. Total body irradiation has been administered D. Immunosuppressants are administered to decrease the number of immune cells

B. Growth factors are administered to mobilize stem cells

The conditioning treatment necessary to prepare a patient for HSCT usually includes which procedure? Select all that apply. A. High-dose chemotherapy B. Administration of growth factor C. Total body irradiation D. Administration of erythropoietin

A, C

Graft failure is a potential negative outcome of HSCT therapy. How can the risk of this problem be reduced? A. By using a matched-sibling donor graft B. By administering immunosuppressant therapy prior to grafting C. By holding the conditioning treatments until after the grafting D. By using a matched-unrelated donor graft

A. By using a matched-sibling donor graft

Which statement regarding graft-versus-host disease is correct? A. It usually targets the heart and lungs B. It is treated using apheresis C. It requires aggressive antibiotic therapy D. It is difficult to successfully treat

D. It is difficult to successfully treat

The major indication for kidney transplantation is end-stage renal disease, which most commonly results from which problems? Select all that apply. A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hypertension C. Glomerulonephritis D. Nephrotoxicity

A, B, C

Dysfunction of a kidney graft is most commonly associated with which factor? A. Preoperative condition of the donor B. Preoperative condition of the recipient C. Length of time the organ was preserved D. Length of time required to perform the transplant

C. Length of time the organ was preserved

What is the most common cause of renal graft failure? A. Rejection B. Hypoperfusion C. Hypertension D. Nephrotoxicity

A. Rejection

Directly following transplant surgery, the nurse can anticipate initiating interventions to maintain urine output at which level? A. 30 mL/hr B. 50 mL/hr C. 75 mL/hr D. 100 mL/hr

D. 100 mL/hr

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

(48 cards)