Final Exam Flashcards
(165 cards)
1
Q
What dysrhythmia causes PR
intervals to get progressively
longer before a QRS complex is
dropped?
A
second-
degree AV block, Type
I
2
Q
What part of the
stethoscope is used
to listen to murmurs
& bruits?
A
the bell
3
Q
What cardiac action
correlates to the QRS
wave ?
A
Depolarization of the
ventricles
4
Q
Atropine increases or
decreases heart rate?
A
Increases
5
Q
Adenosine is typically used
to treat which cardiac
dysrhythmia
A
SVT
6
Q
What type of isolation
would a patient with
TB need?
A
Airborne Precautions
7
Q
After a MVA, a patient has
severe SOB and a deviated
trachea. What diagnosis is of
concern?
A
Tension Pneumothorax
8
Q
What is the major
complication of a
thoracentesis
A
Pneumothorax
9
Q
What is the term used to
reduce sedation of a
ventilated patient and assess
their ability to wean off the
vent?
A
Daily
sedation vacation
10
Q
What is the safest
action by the nurse to
troubleshoot a
malfunctioning and
alarming vent?
A
disconnecting the
ventilator and bag-
valve mask to
ventilate the patient
11
Q
What is the name of
the meal-time short acting insulin
A
Humalog
12
Q
Which acid-base
imbalance is a patient
with DKA at risk for
A
metabolic acidosis
13
Q
Which naturally occurring
hormone in the body drives
potassium into the cells
A
Insulin
14
Q
When would you want to
hold metformin? For what
types of procedures?
A
What are CT scans
with contrast – risk
for lactic acidosis
15
Q
What patient demographic is
most at risk for HHS
A
older adults with type
II diabetes
16
Q
What is the major cause
of Type 1 diabetes
A
What is autoimmune
process destroying beta
cells
17
Q
What is the name of the
deep rapid respirations
often seen in patients with
DKA
A
Kussmal
respirations
18
Q
What affect does alcohol
have on blood glucose
A
Hypoglycemia
19
Q
You have a patient with
surgical evisceration of their
recent bowel surgery. What is
your first step?
A
apply moist sterile gauze
to the site then notify the
surgeon
20
Q
What is the nurse’s
responsibility in obtaining
informed consent before
surgery?
A
ensure the patient
understands and that patient is
capable of understanding, witness
the signature
21
Q
Interpret this ABG:
pH: 7.36
CO2: 55
HCO3: 40
A
fully compensated
respiratory acidosis
22
Q
usual
treatment for
pericarditis
A
NSAIDS
23
Q
What is the gold
standard test for
diagnosing heart
valve disease
A
echocardiogram
24
Q
How long will patients with
a mechanical heart valve
need to take
anticoagulation
A
Forever
25
Which OTC medications
should a patient on Eliquis
avoid
Aspirin and NSADIS
26
Most common
type of shock following a
MI
Cariogenic Shock
27
Which lab test
measures anaerobic
metabolism
Latic Acid
28
priority
medication to administer first
during anaphylactic shock
Epinephrine
29
Pulmonary
embolism is at risk for what
type of shock
Obstructive Shock
30
priority order
for a patient with
hypovolemic shock
secondary to a gunshot
wound
Packed RBC
31
What is the usual
first-line treatment for
hypovolemic shock
secondary to
dehydration
0.9% Normal Saline or Lactated Ringer
32
Electrolyte
abnormality causes
tall peaked T-waves
Hyperkalemia
33
What electrolyte
abnormality puts the
patient at greatest
risk for seizure
Hypo and Hypernatremia
34
Which acid-base disorder is a
patient with NGT suctioning at
risk for?
Metabolic alkalosis
35
What is the fastest organ
in the body to correct acid-
base imbalance
Lungs
36
Which acid-base imbalance
would you expect to see in a
morphine overdose
Respiratory Acidosis
37
For what patient
condition would the
nurse administer iced IV
fluids
Malignant Hyperthermia
38
What vasopressor is used
in shock
(Norepinephrine) Levophed
dopamine
39
A spinal cord injury
increases a patient’s risk
for which type of shock
Disruptive Shock
40
A hyperventilating patient is at
risk for which acid-base
disorder
respiratory
alkalosis
41
Major
complication of epidural
regional blocks
Spinal Headache
42
Physician’s
responsibility for informed
consent
explaining the
procedure and risks of
procedure
43
Antibiotics be given before
surgery
1 hour
before surgery
44
What does high osmolarity indicate
Dehydration
45
4 organs involved in the
RAAS system
Adrenal Glands, Lungs, Kidney's and Liver
46
3 mechanisms the body
uses when dehydrated to reach
homeostasis
increased thirst from the
osmoreceptors, release of ADH, and
RAAS activation
47
What mechanism does the
body use during fluid volume
overload to reach
homeostasis
Natriuretic Peptides
48
3 ways to prevent
vent-associated pneumonia
1. Reposition patient q2H
2. Keep HOB above 30 degrees
3. Clean mouth with chlorhexidine q2H
49
3 risk factors for OSA
Obesity
T2DM,
Age: 40-65
Male gender
50
Antidote for
morphine overdose
Naloxone
51
Interpret this ABG:
pH 7.33; PaCO2 48,
HCO3 50
partially
compensated
respiratory acidosis
52
Two classes of
medications used to treat
atrial fibrillation
Anticoagulants and Beta
blockers
53
three associated
signs and symptoms of
peripheral venous disease,
also known as venous
insufficiency
- Constant achy pain
* Edema from venous pooling
* Warm temperature
* Stasis dermatitis (brown/yellowish rash)
54
Name three treatments for
peripheral venous disease, also
known as venous insufficiency
*Elevating the legs
* Anti-platelet therapy
* Controlling risk factors (diabetes, HTN, smoking, high cholesterol)
55
Name a diagnostic test to help
identify either PAD and/or peripheral
venous disease, also known as
venous insufficiency
*Ankle-brachial index (ABI)
* Duplex ultrasound
* CT angiogram
56
What is the cut-off size for AAA
surgery requirements
5cm
57
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure. The nurse
should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately to
the provider?
A. Weight gain of 0.9kg (2lb) in 24 hours
B. Increase of 10mm Hg in systolic blood pressure
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Dizziness when rising quickly
A. Weight gain of 0.9kg (2lb) in 24 hours
58
A nurse is caring for a client who has endocarditis. Which of the following findings
should the nurse recognize as a potential complication?
A. Friction rub
B. Dependent rubor
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Cardiac murmur
Cardiac murmur
59
A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft
(CABG) in 2 hours. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for
further clarification by the nurse?
A. "My arthritis is really bothering me because I haven't taken my aspirin in a week."
B. "My blood pressure shouldn't be high because I took my blood pressure medication this morning."
C. "I took my warfarin last night according to my usual schedule."
D. "I will check my blood sugar because I took a reduced dose of insulin this morning.
C. "I took my warfarin last night according to my usual schedule."
60
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for
exercise electrocariography at 11:00 a.m. Which of the following statements by the
client requires the nurse to contact the provider for possible rescheduling?
A. "I'm still hungry after the bowl of cereal I ate at 7 a.m."
B. "I didn't take my heart pills this morning because the doctor told me not to."
C. "I have had chest pain a couple of times since I saw my doctor in the office last week."
D. "I smoked a cigarette 30 minutes ago to calm my nerves about having this procedure."
"I smoked a cigarette 30 minutes ago to calm my nerves about having this procedure.
61
A nurse is providing health teaching to a group of clients. Which of the following
clients is at risk for developing peripheral arterial disease?
A. A client who has hypothyroidism
B. A client who has diabetes mellitus
C. A client whose daily caloric intake consists of 25% fat
D. A client who consumes two 12 oz. of beer per day
B. A client who has diabetes mellitus.
62
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client with an anterior MI. The
client's history reveals that they are just 1 week post-op from an open
cholecystectomy. The nurse should identify which of the following interventions is
contraindicated?
A. Administering IV morphine sulfate
B. Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Helping the client to the bedside commode
D. Assisting with thrombolytic therapy
D. Assisting with thrombolytic therapy.
63
A nurse is caring for a client who is receving heparin therapy and develops
hematuria. Which of the following actions should the nurse take if the client's aPTT
is 96 seconds (therapeutic range 30 to 40 seconds)?
A. Increase the heparin infusion flow rate by 2 mL/hr
B. Continue to monitor the heparin infusion as prescribed.
C. Request a prothrombin time (PT)
D. Stop the heparin infusion
D. Stop the heparin infusion
64
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 2 days postop following a heart
transplant. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A. "You might no longer be able to feel chest pain."
B. "Your level of activity intolerance will not change."
C. "After 6 months, you will no longer need to restrict your sodium intake."
D. "You will be able to stop taking immunosuppressants after 12 months."
A. "You might no longer be able to feel chest pain."
65
A nurse is admitting a client who has a leg ulcer and a history of diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following focused assessments should the nurse use to help
differentiate betwen an arterial ulcer and a venous stasis ulcer?
A. Explore the client's family history of PVD
B. Note the presence or absence of pain at the ulcer site
C. Inquire about the presence or absence of claudication
D. Ask if the client has had a recent infection
Inquire about the presence or absence of claudication.
66
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a prescription for
isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include in the teaching? Select all that apply.
A. This medication dilates the coronary arteries and helps resolve chest pain
B. This is a long-acting medication that should be taken daily
C. Do not take viagra or cialis with this medication
D. This medication increases your bleeding risk
✅A.. This medication dilates the coronary arteries and helps resolve chest pain
✅ B. This is a long-acting medication that should be taken daily
✅ C. Do not take Viagra or Cialis with this medication
67
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is experiencing atrial
fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse plan to monitor for and
report to the provider immediately?
A. Slurred speach
B. Irregular pulse
C. Dependent edema
D. Persistent fatigue
✅ A. Slurred speech
68
What is the indication for adenosine?
A. Helps elevate HR for patients with hypotension
B. First medication of choice for patients with 3rd-degree AV block
C. Helps patients with SVT go back into NSR
D. Administered for patients in cardiac arrest
C. Helps patients with SVT go back into NSR
69
Select all that apply. When would it be appropriate to administer amiodarone?
A. A-fib with RVR
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Complete Heart Block
D. Bradycardia
✅ A. A-fib with RVR
✅ B. Ventricular tachycardia
70
A patient is crashing and is bradycardic. Epinephrine is NOT an option. Which
medication should be used?
A. Morphine
B. Metoprolol
C. Atropine
D. Benadryl
C. Atropine
71
In which patient condition would you administer dopamine?
A. To a patient in cardiogenic shock
B. To a patient with atrial fibrillation RVR
C. To a patient with ventricular tachycardia
D. To a patient with acute coronary syndrome (MI)
✅ A. To a patient in cardiogenic shock
72
In a code situation where the patient has pulseless ventricular fibrillation. What is the first medication of
choice?
A. Dobutamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Amiodarone
D. Epinephrine
D. Epinephrine
73
Select all that apply. A 68-year-old male patient has recently been prescribed
aspirin and plavix following coronary artery stenting earlier today for actue
coronary syndrome (MI). Select the appropriate nurse education points below.
A. The nurse informs the patient they will only need to take these medications for up to 2 months after this procedure
B. The nurse informs the patient to use soft toothbrushes
C. The nurse informs the patient that after a few days, they can stop using the aspirin but must
continue the plavix for the rest of their lifetime
D. The nurse informs the patient to check for black tarry stools
E. The nurse informs the patient they must take aspirin and plavix for 1 year after stenting, then the cardiologist may discontinue one or both medications
✅ B. The nurse informs the patient to use soft toothbrushes
✅ D. The nurse informs the patient to check for black tarry stools
✅ E. The nurse informs the patient they must take aspirin and plavix for 1 year after stenting, then the cardiologist may discontinue one or both medications
74
Select all that apply. Which of the following are long term complications of
uncontrolled or untreated HTN?
A. Visual changes (from damaged vessels in the retina)
B. Stroke
C. Renal failure
D. Thyroid disorders
✅ A. Visual changes (from damaged vessels in the retina)
✅ B. Stroke
✅ C. Renal failure
75
Drag and drop. Which of the following symptoms are associated signs and
symptoms of PAD (peripheral arterial disease)?
The correct symptoms associated with Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD) are:
✅ A. Intermittent claudication
✅ B. Very poor or absent peripheral pulses
✅ C. Cool temperature of the affected extremity
✅ D. Gangrene
76
Drag and drop. Which of the following symptoms are associated signs and
symptoms of PVD (peripheral venous disease), also known as venous
insufficiency?
✅ E. Constant achy pain
✅ F. Edema from venous pooling
✅ G. Warm temperature of the affected extremity
✅ H. Stasis dermatitis (brown/yellow rash)
77
Drag and drop. Which of the following are treatments for PAD (peripheral arterial
disease)?
A. Elevating the legs
B. Dangling the legs
C. Antiplatelet therapy
D. Control risk factors such as diabetes, HTN, smoking, and high cholesterol
✅ B. Dangling the legs
✅ C. Antiplatelet therapy
✅ D. Control risk factors such as diabetes, HTN, smoking, and high cholesterol
78
Drag and drop. Which of the following are treatments for PVD (peripheral venous
disease), also known as venous insufficiency?
A. Elevating the legs
B. Dangling the legs
C. Antiplatelet therapy
D. Control risk factors such as diabetes, HTN, smoking, and high cholesterol
✅ A. Elevating the legs
✅ D. Control risk factors such as diabetes, HTN, smoking, and high cholesterol
79
Select all that apply. Which of the following are diagnostic studies for identifying
either peripheral artery disease and/or peripheral venous disease?
A. Ankle-brachial index (ABI)
B. Duplex ultrasound(s) (venous and/or arterial) of affected limb
C. CT angiogram of affected area/limb
D. Overnight polysomnography
✅ A. Ankle-brachial index (ABI)
✅ B. Duplex ultrasound(s) (venous and/or arterial) of affected limb
✅ C. CT angiogram of affected area/limb
80
As a nurse, what are ways you can prevent the development of venous
insufficiency (peripheral venous disease)?
A. Elevate your legs after a long 12 hour shift
B. Wear compression socks/stockings
C. Eat more salty food
D. Maintain a healthy weight
✅ A. Elevate your legs after a long 12-hour shift
✅ B. Wear compression socks/stockings
✅ D. Maintain a healthy weight
81
What is the best way to detect carotid artery disease on physical exam?
A. Listen for a bruit over the carotid artery with the bell of your stethoscope
B. Listen for a bruit over the carotid artery with the diaphragm of your stethoscope
C. Look for positive jugular venous distension (JVD)
D. Look for negative jugular venous distension (JVD)
A. Listen for a bruit over the carotid artery with the bell of your stethoscope
82
What are the current screening guidelines for aortic artery aneurysm?
A. Screen men between ages 65-75 who have
smoked 100 cigarettes or more in their lifetime.
B. Screen women between ages 65-75 who have smoked 100 cigarettes or more in their lifetime.
C. Screen both women and men ages 65-75 who have smoked 100 cigarettes or more in their
lifetime.
D. Screen men between age 55-65 who have smoked 100 cigarettes or more in their lifetime.
Screen both women and men ages 65-75 who have smoked 100 cigarettes or more in their
lifetime.
83
What is the size cut-off for recommending surgical repair of a AAA (abdominal
aortic aneurysm)?
A. Recommend surgery if AAA is greater than 1 cm in diameter
B. Recommend surgery if AAA is greater than 2 cm in diameter
C. Recommend surgery if AAA is greater than 3 cm in diameter
D. Recommend surgery if AAA is greater than 5 cm in diameter
D. Recommend surgery if AAA is greater than 5 cm in diameter
84
What lab aides in detection of a DVT (deep venous thrombosis) or PE (pulmonary
embolism)?
A. D-dimer
B. aPTT
C. PT
D. INR
A. D-dimer
85
What measures are taken to PREVENT a DVT (Deep venous thrombosis) before
surgery and immediately after? Select all that apply.
A. ambulation
B. compression stockings
C. sequential compression devices (SCDs)
D. low molecular weight heparin (lovenox)
E. strict bed rest
A. ambulation
B. compression stockings
C. sequential compression devices (SCDs)
D. low molecular weight heparin (lovenox)
86
What measure should be avoided AFTER a patient has developed a DVT (Deep
venous thrombosis)?
A. ambulation
B. compression stockings
C. sequential compression devices (SCDs)
D. low molecular weight heparin (lovenox)
C. sequential compression devices (SCDs)
87
When teaching a client with congestive heart failure about their medications, the
nurse correlates each medication to its action in the cardiac system. Please match
the medication class to the mechanism of action in the cardiac system.
A. Decreases preload ... ___
B. Decreases afterload ... ___
C. Increases contractility ... ___
D. Decreases workload of the heart by lowering heart rate (may also lower afterload) ... ___
Enter the number that indicates the Answer into the corresponding blank above.
1. Diuretics
2. Blood pressure medications such as ACEi or ARB
3. Digoxin
4. Beta blockers
A. Decreases preload ... 1. Diuretics
B. Decreases afterload ... 2. Blood pressure medications such as ACE inhibitors or ARBs
C. Increases contractility ... 3. Digoxin
D. Decreases workload of the heart by lowering heart rate (may also lower afterload) ... 4. Beta blockers
88
Match the medication with the correct description.
A. Gemfibrozil (Lopid) … ___
B. Ezetimibe (Zetia) … ___
C. Rosuvastatin (Crestor) … ___
D. Simvastatin (Zocor) … ___
Enter the number that indicates the Answer into the corresponding blank above.
1. A high-intensity statin that significantly lowers LDL cholesterol
2. A low-intensity statin that modestly lowers LDL cholesterol
3. A medication that primarily lowers triglycerides and raises HDL cholesterol
4. A medication that reduces cholesterol absorption in the small intestine.
A → 3
B → 4
C → 1
D → 2
89
The nurse is assessing a client. Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with
left-sided heart failure (HF)? Select all that apply.
A. Nausea and anorexia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Dyspnea
E. Crackles on lung auscultation
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Dyspnea
E. Crackles on lung auscultation
90
The nurse is teaching the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet to a patient with
hypertension. Which statement indicates that the client understands the DASH diet?
A. "I should increase my daily intake of meat."
B. "I should increase my intake of fresh fruits and vegetables."
C. "I should drink whole milk and eat high-fat cheese with every meal."
D. "I should decrease my grain intake to no more than twice a week."
B. "I should increase my intake of fresh fruits and vegetables."
91
Which signs and symptoms are associated with right-sided heart failure? Select
all that apply.
A. Ascites
B. Crackles in the lungs
C. Peripheral edema
D. Paroxysmal Noctural Dyspnea (PND)
E. Jugular venous distention
A. Ascites
C. Peripheral edema
E. Jugular venous distention
92
A patient is speaking about his risk of heart disease and his lipid levels. Which of
the following shows that further education is needed?
A. I need to raise my low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels and lower my high-density lipoprotein
(HDL) levels.
B. Cholesterol is found in the diet and is synthesized by the liver
C. HDL is the "good" cholesterol.
D. Some medications can lower your cholesterol.
A. I need to raise my low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
93
A nurse is reviewing a patient's blood values and vital signs. Which should be
elevated for cardioprotective effects?
A. Triglycerides
B. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
C. High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
D. Blood pressure (BP)
C. High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
94
A patient is to receive a quadruple coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). What is
the result of the procedure?
A. Create a bypass around the four chambers of the heart
B. Reconnect vessels to connect the heart chambers differently
C. Use harvested vessels to circumvent four arterial blockages
D. Place four stents in the heart arteries
C. Use harvested vessels to circumvent four arterial blockages
95
Why is aspirin given to a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?
A. It causes blood vessel dilation to give oxygenated blood around the current blood clot
B. It alters coagulation factor synthysis to prevent blood from clotting
C. It causes fibrinolysis (clot buster)
D. It decreases platelet adherence (makes platelets slippery) so that the current blood clot does not
get bigger
D. It decreases platelet adherence (makes platelets slippery) so that the current blood clot does not
get bigger
96
What is a common treatment recommendation for acute myocarditis?
A. Placement of stents in the coronary arteries
B. Prescription antibiotics
C. Restriction of activity for 6 months or more
D. Pericardial fluid removal
C. Restriction of activity for 6 months or more
97
A clinician is discussing a patient's diagnosis of Prinzmetal angina. What is the
defining characteristic of this type of angina?
A. Easily diagnosed
B. Presents specific electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern
C. Develops as the result of coronary artery vasospasm
D. Most common type of angina
C. Develops as the result of coronary artery vasospasm
98
In infective endocarditis, which portion of the heart is directly infected?
A. Coronary arteries
B. Myocardial cells
C. Aorta
D. Inner lining of the heart
D. Inner lining of the heart
99
Match the type of cardiomyopathy with the correct underlying pathophysiology.
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ... ___
B. Dilated cardiomyopathy ... ___
C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy ... ___
D. Ischemic cardiomyopathy ... ___
Enter the number that indicates the Answer into the corresponding blank above.
1. Hypertrophy of the septum between ventricles, usually inhereted
2. Ventricular dilation usually due to HTN
3. Stiff ventricles associated with the elderly or sarcoidosis
4. Due to severe coronary artery disease or MI
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
-1. Hypertrophy of the septum between ventricles, usually inhereted
Dilated cardiomyopathy
-Ventricular dilation usually due to HTN
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- Stiff ventricles associated with the elderly or sarcoidosis
Ischemic cardiomyopathy ... 4
-Due to severe coronary artery disease or MI
100
Match the correct measurement to the correct hemodynamic monitoring system.
A. Arterial line ... ___
B. Central venous line ... ___
C. Pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter ... ___
Enter the number that indicates the Answer into the corresponding blank above.
1. MAP (mean arterial pressure), aquiring ABGs
2. Central venous pressure and preload
3. Uses a balloon to measure SvO2 to assess pulmonary HTN and right-sided heart function
A. Arterial line ... 1
➡️ MAP (mean arterial pressure), acquiring ABGs
B. Central venous line ... 2
➡️ Central venous pressure and preload
C. Pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter ... 3
➡️ Uses a balloon to measure SvO₂ to assess pulmonary hypertension and right-sided heart function
101
The nurse correlates which pathophysiological processes to Virchow’s triad? Select all that apply.
Vasodilation
Stasis of blood flow
Hypercoagulability
Leukocytosis
Endothelial injury
✅ Stasis of blood flow
✅ Hypercoagulability
✅ Endothelial injury
102
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk factor for developing endocarditis?
A. IV drug use
B. Diabetes
C. Autoimmune disease
D. Dental work
A. IV drug use
103
A patient presents to the ER with a fever, new onset heart murmur, and painful red
nodes on their hand and splinter hemorrhages under their fingernails. What is their
most likely diagnosis?
A. Endocarditis
B. Pericarditis
C. Myocarditis
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
A. Endocarditis
104
A young male patient, age 19, is being evaluated in the ER for chest pain with
rapid onset heart failure. He reports having a viral upper respiratory tract infection
12 days ago. His labs show an elevated C-reactive protein, elevated ESR (sed
rate), elevated BNP, and mildly elevated troponin. Since he is so young, the
cardiologist does not think he is having an acute MI. He denies pleuritic chest pain
and he has no friction rub. What other heart condition is most likely?
A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopthay
C. Myocarditis
D. Pericarditis
C. Myocarditis
105
A 60 year old male patient who has had a recent MI is seen in the ER for chest
pain and new onset fever. He reports that his chest pain is worse when he takes a
deep breath but sitting up and leaning forward alleviates the pain. On exam, you
hear a friction rub. What is his most likely diagnosis?
A. Pericarditis
B. Myocarditis
C. Endocarditis
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy
A. Pericarditis
106
What is the usual treatment of pericarditis?
A. 4-6 weeks of IV antibiotics
B. Heparin
C. NSAIDs
D. Metoprolol
C. NSAIDs
107
Which cardiomyopathy is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young
athletes and is characterized by hypertrophy of the septum between the
ventricles?
A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
D. Ischemic cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
108
Which factor influence cardiac output
Heart rate, Preload,Afterload and heart rate
109
Which lab is important to asses before cardiac cath
Creatine Kinase
110
Blood pressure is which aspect of cardiac output
Afterload
111
A nurse is trying to determine what measurement should be used for preload:
Central venous pressure
112
Nurse sees a BNP order for pt what teaching should they prepare:
Signs or Heart Failure Heart Failure
113
A patient is recovering after a right heart catheterization. Which of the following findings requires immediate notification of the provider?
A. Mild bruising at the catheter insertion site
B. Mild leg swelling
C. Decreased pulse in the foot
D. Slight low-grade fever
C. Decreased pulse in the foot
114
A patient with heart failure has a BNP blood test ordered. What does the BNP level measure?
BNP (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) measures the overstretching or increased pressure in the ventricles of the heart.
115
What is the best way to support your patient who is not breathing well:
Semi to high fowlers
Perused lip breathing
Tripod position
116
What is the name of a first generation oral decongestant?
Benadryl (Dipenhydramine)
117
How long can you use afrin?
3 days
118
What is the purpose of a nasal steroid/spray
To reduce inflammation
119
True or false: Incentive spiratometer prevents blood clots:
False
120
Which Lobe Of the lung are you most likely able to get aspiration pneumonia from?
Right middle & right lower
121
What test is helpful for diagnosising pneumonia
Sputum Culture
Chest xray
122
Which are the following are true of asthma
A. Acid reflux can induce asthma symptoms.
B. Asthma is commonly treated with antibiotics.
C. Symptoms are dyspnea, chest tightness, and wheezing.
D. Allergies are a common etiology.
E. High blood pressure is a typical symptom of asthma.
- Allergies are a common etiology
- Symptoms are dyspnea, chest tightness and wheezing
- Acid reflux can induce asthma symptoms
123
You are a school nurse working in a local elementary school, which tool would you use to assess the child:
Peak flow meter
124
What viral infection can cause these extreme complications
ARDS
Sepsis
Long COVID
Clotting/Bleeding
COVID -19
125
What diagnostic tests would you use to look for a Pulmonary Embolism
Elevated D-Dimer
CT Angiography of the chest
126
You are treating a patient with cystic fibrosis and you ask him does he understand his diagnosis, which answer shows the patient needs more teaching
The answer that indicates that he will be cured because their is no cure
127
What are you at risk for with any blunt force trauma?
Pnemothorax
Hemothorax
Plueral effusion
128
Manuel is a seeking clinical info abt a medical test he was given before starting his new job as nurse the test for tb required a intradermal injection that was monitored 48 hr later what are the names for this test
PPD Mantoux
129
What are the risk factors for developing pneumonia:
Smoking and recent flu that did not improve
130
Which of the following pulmonary function test results are associated with obstructive lung disease
Reduced FEV-1 & Reduced FEV-1/FEV Ratio
131
Which of the following are characteristics of COPD Select all that apply
A. Smoking
B. Clubbing of the fingers
C. Cyanosis
D. Pursed lip breathing
E. Pulmonary function tests are the key to diagnosis
F. COPD is cured with one-time surgery
G. Vision loss is a common early symptom of COPD
A. Smoking
B. Clubbing of the fingers
C. Cyanosis
D. Pursed lip breathing
E. Pulmonary function tests are the key to diagnosis
132
Which of the following are symptoms of chronic bronchitis
- Blue bloaters
- Thick mucus secretions
- Productive cough
- overweight / peripheral edema
- Cyanosis
133
Classic signs and symptoms of TB
Weight loss
Hemoptysis
Night sweats
134
When is a V/Q scan used
To measure ventilation-perfusion ratio
135
What are some medical complications that can occur is strep throat is left untreated:
scarlet fever
Rheumatic fever
Pandas
Glomerulonephritis
136
T/F: COPD Patients are stimulated to breathe by hypercapnia
False
137
A type 2 diabetic previously controlled on PO diabetic meds is now on insulin post op, they ask you will I have to be on insulin from here on out, how does the nurse respond?
No, we are just giving you insulin to promote wound healing; when you go back home you will be on your PO medication.
138
Which team members are sterile and non sterile?
Sterile:
Surgeon
Surgical Assistant: NP, RN, PA
Scrub Nurse: Preop OR, Pass instruments
Surgical Tech
Non-Sterile:
Anesthesiologist/ CRNA
Unlicensed personnel
Circulating Nurse: Coordinates the environment
OR Director/manager/ coordinator
139
You are a PACU nurse and your patient's family is upset because their loved one is very confused and disoriented out of surgery. How do you answer the family?
It is common that elderly patient have delirium up to 2 days after surgery because their liver/kidney function is low after surgery
140
What are the two lethal rhythms:
V-Tach & VFIB
141
Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for atropine administration?
a) Symptomatic bradycardia
b) Acute myocardial infarction
c) Angle-closure glaucoma
d) Sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 50 bpm
c) Angle-closure glaucoma
142
A patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia with a heart rate of 45 bpm. Which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate administering?
a) Metoprolol
b) Digoxin
c) Atropine
d) Lidocaine
c) Atropine
143
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse explains that the primary purpose of this medication is to:
A.Increase the force of heart contractions to improve cardiac output.
B. Reduce heart rate and blood pressure to decrease cardiac workload.
C. Promote fluid excretion to decrease pulmonary congestion.
D. Constrict blood vessels to improve circulation to vital organs
B. Reduce heart rate and blood pressure to decrease cardiac workload.
144
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV albumin for treatment of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
C) Crackles heard in the lung bases and sudden shortness of breath
145
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of cefepime?
a) Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
b) Disruption of the bacterial cell membrane
c) Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
d) Interference with bacterial DNA replication
c) Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
146
3. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/minute. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate a therapeutic effect of this medication?
a) Increased peripheral edema
b) Decreased urine output
c) Increased blood pressure and heart rate
d) Improved cardiac output and decreased pulmonary congestion
d) Improved cardiac output and decreased pulmonary congestion
147
4. A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client receiving dopamine. The nurse understands that a primary effect of dopamine administration is:
a) Decreases heart rate and lowers blood pressure.
b) Increases heart rate and lowers blood pressure
c) Decreases heart rate and increases blood pressure.
d) Increases heart rate and increases blood pressure.
d) Increases heart rate and increases blood pressure.
148
. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed meropenem for a severe bacterial infection. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize before administering meropenem?
a) Monitor the patient's renal function (creatinine and BUN levels)
b) Assess the patient's blood pressure and heart rate
c) Check the patient's temperature for signs of fever
d) Monitor the patient's oxygen saturation levels
a) Monitor the patient's renal function (creatinine and BUN levels)
149
6. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine (Levophed). Which of the following nursing interventions is most critical to include in the client's plan of care?
a) Monitoring blood glucose levels every 4 hours.
b) Monitor blood pressure every 2-3 minutes after administration until stable.
c) Encouraging the client to ambulate in the room twice per shift.
d) Administering an oral beta-blocker concurrently to prevent tachycardia.
Monitor blood pressure every 2-3 minutes after administration until stable.
150
7. Which of the following statements is true regarding Zosyn (piperacillin/tazobactam)?
A) Zosyn is primarily used for treating viral infections such as the flu.
B) Zosyn is a combination of a penicillin-class antibiotic and a beta-lactamase inhibitor, commonly used for severe bacterial infections.
C) Zosyn is only effective against gram-positive bacteria.
D) Zosyn is typically administered orally for most infections
B) Zosyn is a combination of a penicillin-class antibiotic and a beta-lactamase inhibitor, commonly used for severe bacterial infections
151
Atropine
Increases Hearate
Used for Heart Block , Bradycardia
152
Amiodarone
Decrease HR
Used for Afib & RVR
153
Adenosine:
Decrease HR
Used for SVT
154
Dopamine
Increase HR
Vasopressor
Increase contractility
155
Epinephrine
Used for allergic reaction
1st line in non- shockable rhythm
156
Med For:
Preload
Diuretics
157
Med For:
Increasing contractility
Digoxin
158
Med For:
Decreasing workload of the heart
Beta Blockers
159
Med For:
Decreasing Afterload
ACE -PRIL
ARBS (Startan)
CCB: Almil Pine
160
Albuterol
SABA
Rescue Med
Salmeterol
161
Fluticasone (Inhaled Flovent )
Steroid
Maintenance med
162
Symbicort
Combination med: Inhaled corticosteroid and LABA combined
Maintenance med
163
Spiriva
Anticholinergic
Maintenance Med
Used for COPD
164
Allergra
Allergies
Antihistamine
Second Gen: Don’t get as much SE
165
Singualr
Pill
Asthma & Allergies Pt
Monteluckast inhibitor
