Final Exam Flashcards

(328 cards)

1
Q

electron

A

atomic particle with a negative charge

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2
Q

free radical

A

particle with an unnatural number of electrons

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3
Q

dimer

A

molecule composed of two monomers

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4
Q

rough ER (function)

A

synthesizes lipids

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5
Q

covalent bond

A

sharing of electrons between atoms

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6
Q

(CH2O)n

A

molecular formula of a carbohydrate

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7
Q

cilia

A

moves material over surface of a cell

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8
Q

mitochondrion

A

ATP producing organelle

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9
Q

catalyst

A

speeds up chemical reactions

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10
Q

amino acid

A

has a carboxyl, amino and r-group

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11
Q

solute

A

particles dissolved in a solvent

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12
Q

ribosome

A

binds to RNA and synthesizes protiens

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13
Q

isotonic

A

equal osmotic pressure on both sides

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14
Q

matrix

A

material between cells in a tissue

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15
Q

lysosome

A

vesicle containing digestive enzymes

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16
Q

how many electrons are found only in the second electron shell of an atom?

A

8

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17
Q

what tissue type has superficial cells connected to a basement membrane?

A

epithelial

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18
Q

which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of ATP molecules?

A

mitochondria

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19
Q

which atomic bond involves the transfer of electrons from one atom to another?

A

ionic bond

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20
Q
which molecule is organic: 
H2O
CO2
NH3
CH4
A

CH4

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21
Q

what type of tissue has the ability to contract?

A

muscle

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22
Q

which concept is part of cell theory:
all cells came from pre-existing cells;
cells were derived from non-living molecules billions of years ago;
all cells possess a nucleus with genetic material;
all cells perform photosynthesis

A

all cells came from pre-existing cells

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23
Q

what is the function of cholesterol in the body?

A

main component of steroid hormones

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24
Q

what type of cell transport does NOT need ATP?

A

osmosis

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25
``` which of the following substances is a carbohydrate: sucrose maltase keratin cholesterol ```
sucrose
26
what molecule is made of a large lipid and a small protein?
proteolipid
27
``` which of these organelles has a double phospholipid bilayer: rough ER nucleus golgi apparatus flagella ```
nucleus
28
which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of cellular carbohydrates?
golgi apparatus
29
which property of water allows humans to lose large quantities of heat through the evaporation of sweat?
thermal stability
30
what is the name of the organelle that organizes the shape of the cytoskeleton?
centrioles
31
True/False: | stratified squamous epithelial tissue is often used for secretion
False
32
True/False: | substances that dissolve in water are hydrophobic
false
33
True/False: | a cell that grows to twice its former volume has twice its former surface area
false
34
True/False: | a mole is a number equal to 5.02x10^23
false
35
True/False: | cytosol is the gelatinous fluid component of cytoplasm
true
36
True/False: | proteins are responsible for cellular movement
true
37
True/False: | RNA molecules are smaller than DNA molecules
true
38
True/False: | for a triglyceride to be saturated, all three fatty acids in it have to be saturated
true
39
True/False: | in osmosis, solute particles move from low to high concentations
false
40
True/False: | particles in a colloidal mixture are less than 1nm in size
false
41
carbon has an atomic number of 6, oxygen has number 8, and hydrogen has 1. calculate the weight of one mole of the triglyceride C55H101O6
ANSWER
42
what are the three types of subatomic particles and what charges do they have?
proton (+) neutron (0) electron (-)
43
draw an atom with an atomic number 12 and atomic weight 24. fill in the electron shells and label the number of protons and neutrons
SEE TEST
44
what is the matrix of a tissue and what is it composed of?
ANSWER
45
what is the Fluid Mosiac Theory of cell membranes?
ANSWER
46
Name and describe the shapes of cells found in epithelial issue
squamous: flat shaped, the nucleus is on top, similar shape to a fried egg columnar: tall cells, nucleus is in the middle cubodial: square/ cube shaped, the nucleus is in the middle
47
define the conformation of a protein
ANSWER
48
define the denaturation of a protien
ANSWER
49
what is the name of the structure that anchors cilia and flagella to a cell?
ANSWER
50
what are the 3 most common elements of the body?
hydrogen, carbon, oxygen
51
what are the 3 types of cartilage and how tough or elastic are they?
ANSWER
52
what is the difference between integral and peripheral proteins?
ANSWER
53
define hydrophilic
molecules that bind/ form bonds with water
54
define hydrophobic
molecules that do not bind/ form bonds with water
55
define amphiphillic
molecules that have the ability to bind/ form bonds with water or not
56
what are the 3 protein filaments that make up the cytoskeleton and which is the thickest?
ANSWER
57
what do the prefixes mono-, poly-, and oligo- mean?
mono: one poly: many oligo: few
58
why are saturated fats solid and unsaturated fats liquid at room temperature?
ANSWER
59
explain why a larger surface area-to-volume ratio is good for a cell and how that limits cell size.
ANSWER
60
how many amino acid types are found in human proteins an how many amino acids in a chain make up a protein?
there are 20 amino acid types that are found in human proteins. a combination of 50 amino acids make up a chain.
61
what are the differences between symports, antiports, and uniports?
symports: brings 2 things into the same direction antiports: brings things into 2 different directions uniports: allows things to pass through a membrane in one direction
62
what is a hydration sphere?
ANSWER
63
what is the difference between synthesis, decomposition, and exchange reactions?
synthesis: two or more smaller molecules are joined together to make a larger molecule (A+B --> AB) decomposition: a larger molecule is broken up into at least 2 smaller molecules (AB --> A+B) exchange: a molecule is broken down into at least 2 parts but the elements are also exchanged (AB+CD --> AC+BD)
64
Describe the cell actions during pinocytosis
ANSWER
65
Describe the cell actions during phagocytosis
ANSWER
66
Describe the the cell actions during excocytosis
ANSWER
67
list the 6 physical properties of water
``` solvency cohesion thermal stability adhesion polarity chemical reactivitiy ```
68
explain the differences in shape and function of microvilli, cilia, and flagella
ANSWER
69
list the 7 functions of proteins in the body
ANSWER
70
** Compare and contrast diffusion and osmosis. Describe how particles flow in each, way they move the way they do and under what conditions they both reach equilibrium.
ANSWER
71
** describe the 4 levels of protein structure including what bonds are formed in each and why it makes those bonds.
ANSWER
72
Hematoma
blood clot
73
stratum corneum
epidermal layer of dead keratnized cells
74
endosteum
lines the medullary cavity of long bones
75
tendon
connects muscle to bone
76
exocrinw
gland that secretes through a duct
77
hair shaft
portion of the hair outside the epidermis
78
Haversian canal
carries blood vessels and nerves through compact bone
79
hyperplasia
tissue growth through cell multiplication
80
hypodermis
mostly composed of adipose tissue
81
synarthrosis
non moveable joint
82
gomphosis
tooth socket joint
83
multiaxial
allows movement in 3 planes
84
solubility product
necessary for calcium deposition
85
bursae
contains synovial fluid and cushions outside out joints
86
fibrosis
replacement of damaged cells with FCT
87
which bone shape do the vertebrae have?
irregular
88
which layer of the epidermis is only found in thick skin
stratum lucidum
89
what are the fibers of collagen that extend into bone matriz from the periosteum called?
perforating fibers
90
what type of tissue change involves sudden death due to loss of blood supply?
infarction
91
what type of movement can be performed with a ball-and-socket joint?
circumduction
92
``` which cell does not come from an osteogenic cell: osteoblasts osteoclasts fibroblasts chondroblasts ```
osteoblasts
93
``` which is not a pigment found in the integument? hemoglobin carotene melanin myoglobin ```
myogloblin
94
in bone tissue, what is the name of the chamber the osteocytes sit in?
lacunae
95
what is an example of a cartilaginous joint?
between vertebral bodies
96
where will you find the zone of hypertrophy?
in the metaphysis
97
``` which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood adipocytes erythrocytes leukocytes platlets ```
adipocytes
98
which gland type produces earwax?
cercuminous
99
which hormone reduces blood calcium by stimulating osteoblasts?
calcitonin
100
``` which is not a feature of a synovial joint: synarthrosis meniscus joint capsule synovial fluid ```
synarthrosis
101
what is the smooth muscle bundle that causes hairs to stand on end?
arrector pili
102
True/False: | skin and bones are constantly growing new tissue
true
103
True/False: | the periostieum of a bone and the tendon of a muscle are made of the same tissue
true
104
True/False: | in thin skin, there are no sweat glands
false
105
True/False: | eumelanin produces red/ blond hair
false
106
``` True/False: third class levers have a high mechanical advantage ```
false
107
True/False: | inversion and eversion are motions of the hands
false
108
True/False: | all synovial joints are diarthroses
false
109
True/False: | lanugo hair is found on fetuses
true
110
True/False: | yellow marrow is only found in the epiphyses of bones
false
111
True/False: | all diarthrosis are synovial joints
true
112
put the following in chronological order: osteoblast, spongy bone, osteogenic cell, osteoid tissue, compact bone.
``` osteogenic cell osteoblast osteoid tissue spongy bone compact bone ```
113
Draw a hair in lateral view and in cross section and label the following parts: shaft, root, bulb, and then medulla, cortex and cuticle
SEE DRAWING
114
define abduction
movement away from the midline of the body
115
define adduction
movement towards the midline of the body
116
define flexion
bending motion that decreases the angle
117
define extension
extending motion that increases the angle
118
name the 3 stages of hair growth and what occurs in each stage
anagen: new hair follicle begins to grow catagen: old hair follicle dies and new follicle grows within the same spot telegen: resting stage. old hair is pushed out by new hair
119
name the 4 cutaneous glands and what they secrete
merocrine- sweat - apocrine- sweat - sebaceous- sebum - ceruminous- earwax
120
in what organs are calcitriol, calcitonin, and parathyroid hormones made?
ANSWER
121
name the three cell types found in the stratum basale of the epidermis and what their functions are.
ANSWER
122
what are the three types of cartilage?
hyaline fibrocartilage elastic cartilage
123
what are the three types of muscle tissue?
skeletal muscle tissue cardiac muscle tissue smooth muscle tissue
124
what are the organic and inorganic components of bone matrix?
organic: 1/3, protein and collagen inorganic: 2/3, hydroxipate, calcium, phosphate and sodium
125
what is the difference between amphiarthroses, diarthroses, and synarthrosis?
amphiarthroses: some movement diarthroses: broad movement synarthrosis: no movement (little, if any)
126
describe or draw a first class lever
EFR, RFE | the fulcrum is in the middle
127
describe or draw a second class lever
FRE, ERF | the resistance is in the middle
128
describe or draw a third class lever
REF, FER | the effort is in the middle
129
what is the difference between sereous, mucous and cytogenic glands?
ANSWER
130
what is the difference between appositional and interstitial growth?
appositional: the cells are near the surface and grow towards the surface interstitial growth: cells are in the middle and grow in both directions (ex. scar tissue)
131
name the pairs of bones that form a condyloid joint
ANSWER
132
name the pairs of bones that form a hinge joint
ANSWER
133
name the pairs of bones that form a pivot joint
ANSWER
134
define pronation
ANSWER
135
define supination
ANSWER
136
define opposition
ANSWER
137
define reposition
ANSWER
138
what doe the prefixes chondro-, osteo-, and fibro- refer to?
chondro- cartilage osteo- bone fibro- fibers
139
what is the difference between endocrine, exocrine, holocrine, and merocrine glands?
ANSWER
140
draw and label the following parts of an osteon: haversian canal, lamellae, osteocytes, canaliculi
SEE DRAWING
141
where are the primary and secondary centers found?
ANSWER
142
define atrophy
cell/ tissue size shrinks
143
define apoptosis
pre-programmed cell death
144
define necrosis
early cell death
145
list the 6 functions of the skeletal system
``` acid/ base balance electrolyte balance support movement protection form trauma blood formation ```
146
list the 6 functions of the integumentary system
ANSWER
147
list in order of depth all the strata and layers of tissue in the epidermis and dermis
ANSWER
148
list the 3 types of fibrous joints, the 2 types of cartilaginous joints, and the 6 types of synovial joints
Fibrous Joints: gomphosis, suture, and syndesmoses Cartilaginous Joints: symphysis and Synchondrosis Synovial Joints: ball & socket, condylar, saddle, plane, hinge, pivot
149
** name all the zones of the metaphysis and describe in detail what is happening in each of the zones until osteons are formed
ANSWER
150
** describe in detail how a fractured bone is repaired. include the types of tissue formed, what cells formed them, and in what order.
ANSWER
151
What are the anatomical structures of the spinal cord and spinal nerves?
ANSWER
152
What are the connective tissues associated with nervous tissue?
ANSWER
153
How many spinal nerve pairs are there?
31
154
What are the 5 plexuses?
ANSWER
155
What are the proximal branches of the spinal nerve?
ANSWER
156
What are the distal branches of the spinal nerve?
ANSWER
157
What are the functions of all the branches of the spinal nerves?
ANSWER
158
What is a dermatome?
ANSWER
159
What are the characteristics of a reflex?
ANSWER
160
Describe a reflex arc.
ANSWER
161
What types of neurons are found in the roots of spinal nerves?
ANSWER
162
What is the difference between a funiculus and a fasciculus?
ANSWER
163
What is the difference between ascending and descending tracts?
ANSWER
164
What is the difference between ipsilateral and contralateral tracts?
ANSWER
165
What are the anatomical structures of the brain? (Check the lab list of structures)
ANSWER
166
What are the three meninges?
ANSWER
167
Which is most superficial and deepest?
ANSWER
168
What are the ventricles?
ANSWER
169
What are the choroid plexuses?
ANSWER
170
What are the 3 functions of cerebrospinal fluid?
ANSWER
171
How is cerebrospinal fluid made?
ANSWER
172
Why is it important to keep whole blood from touching the CNS?
ANSWER
173
What is the difference between the blood-brain barrier and the blood-CSF barrier?
ANSWER
174
What are the structures that make up the hindbrain?
ANSWER
175
what are the structures that make up the midbrain?
ANSWER
176
what are the structures that make up the forebrain?
ANSWER
177
What are four functions of each structure in the hindbrain, midbrain and forebrain?
ANSWER
178
What are the 5 functions of the reticular formation?
ANSWER
179
What are the 7 functions of the hypothalamus?
ANSWER
180
What are the 5 lobes of the cerebrum?
ANSWER
181
What are their general functions of each lobe of the cerebrum?
ANSWER
182
What are the 3 areas of cerebral gray matter?
ANSWER
183
What are the 3 tract types of cerebral white matter?
ANSWER
184
What limbic system nuclei are centers of emotion and memory?
ANSWER
185
What are the 8 higher brain functions?
ANSWER
186
What is the difference between Wernicke’s area and Broca’s area?
ANSWER
187
How are primary sensory and association areas related to one another?
ANSWER
188
How are the motor association and primary motor areas of the frontal lobe related to one another?
ANSWER
189
What are the differences between sensory and motor divisions of the PNS?
ANSWER
190
What are the differences between somatic and visceral divisions of the PNS?
ANSWER
191
Which of these divisions are part of the autonomic nervous system: somatic, visceral, sensory, motor?
ANSWER
192
How many neurons are needed to reach effectors from the CNS in a somatic pathway versus an autonomic pathway?
ANSWER
193
What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic fiber lengths?
ANSWER
194
What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Names and locations of the ganglia?
ANSWER
195
What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Neurotransmitters used?
ANSWER
196
What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Origin of the path from the CNS?
ANSWER
197
What are the differences between the anatomy of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions in terms of: Neuronal divergence?
ANSWER
198
What are the three routes that sympathetic paths can follow and where do the post-ganglionic fibers run for each route?
ANSWER
199
How could blood vessel width be regulated using only sympathetic enervation?
ANSWER
200
What are the characteristics of receptors?
answer
201
What are the 4 types of info sent by receptors?
modality (type), location (which), intensity (rate), duration (way)
202
What is the difference between phasic and tonic receptors?
phasic: adapt quickly after initial burst of sensation tonic: adapt slowly and send continual impulses
203
What are the 5 modalities of receptors?
chemoreceptors, thermoreceptors, nocieptors, mechanorecptors, photoreceptors
204
what are interoceptors
detect stimuli in the internal organs
205
what are proprioceptors
dectect stimuli in muscles, tendons and joints
206
what are exteroceptors
dectect stimuli external to the body
207
What is the difference between general and special senses?
general senses are receptors widely distributed in the skin, muscles, tendons, joints and viscera special senses...
208
What are the 3 unencapsulated nerve endings in the skin?
free nerve endings, tactile (merkel) discs, hair receptors
209
What are the encapsulated nerve endings in deeper tissues?
tactile (corpuscles) krause end bulbs lammellated corpuscles ruffini corpuscles
210
What is the projection pathway for touch receptors?
nueron to spinal cord into the thalamus into the cortex
211
What are nociceptors?
pain receptors
212
What are the two types of pain?
fast and slow
213
What is substance P?
ANSWER
214
What is the projection pathway for pain?
skin to spinal cord spinal cord to thalamus and reticular formation thalamus to parietal lobe reticular formation to hypothalamus and limbic system
215
What is spinal gating?
ANSWER
216
What are endogenous opioids?
ANSWER
217
What is chemoreception?
ANSWER
218
What is gustation?
ANSWER
219
What is olfaction?
ANSWER
220
What is the difference between taste buds and lingual papillae?
ANSWER
221
What are the shapes of the 4 lingual papillae?
ANSWER
222
Where are most taste buds found?
ANSWER
223
What are the 5 accepted taste sensations?
ANSWER
224
What is the projection pathway of taste sensation?
ANSWER
225
What 3 cranial nerves sense taste?
ANSWER
226
How many taste buds are there?
ANSWER
227
How many olfactory cells?
ANSWER
228
How long do taste cells and olfactory cells live and why?
ANSWER
229
How many smells can a person differentiate on average?
ANSWER
230
What is the projection pathway of olfaction?
ANSWER
231
What is the difference between pitch and loudness?
ANSWER
232
how is pitch measured
ANSWER
233
how is loudness measured
ANSWER
234
What are the three sections of the ear?
ANSWER
235
What are the anatomical structures in each section of the ear?
ANSWER
236
What are the ossicles?
ANSWER
237
What are the names of the ossicles?
ANSWER
238
What is the difference between perilymph and endolymph?
ANSWER
239
What is the difference between the cochlea and the vestibule?
ANSWER
240
What is the pathway that sound vibrations follow through the entire ear?
ANSWER
241
How is sound transduced into nerve impulses?
ANSWER
242
What is the projection pathway of sound?
ANSWER
243
What is the difference between static equilibrium and dynamic equilibrium?
ANSWER
244
What is the difference between linear and angular acceleration?
ANSWER
245
what organs sense linear acceleration
ANSWER
246
what organs sense angular acceleration
ANSWER
247
What is the difference between the maculae and the cristae?
ANSWER
248
What are otoliths?
ANSWER
249
What is the projection pathway of balance?
ANSWER
250
What are the accessory structures of vision?
ANSWER
251
what are the functions of the accessory functions of the structures of vision
ANSWER
252
How many muscles move the eyeball in the socket?
ANSWER
253
How many cranial nerves?
ANSWER
254
What are the three tunics of the eye?
ANSWER
255
What are the structures of the optical apparatus?
ANSWER
256
What are the structures of the neural apparatus?
ANSWER
257
What are the three means of improving focus on nearby objects?
ANSWER
258
How do the ciliary bodies, suspensory ligaments and lens work together to focus vision?
ANSWER
259
What are the three layers of cells in the retina?
ANSWER
260
What is the difference between rods and cones in function and neural connection?
ANSWER
261
What parts of the retina have higher concentrations of rods and/or cones?
ANSWER
262
What is the projection pathway of vision?
ANSWER
263
action potential
thin filament in a sarcomere
264
fusiform
spindle like muscle shape
265
trigger zone
dominated by voltage gated ion channels
266
actin
thin filament in a sarcomere
267
lactic acid
byproduct of anaerobic fermenations
268
IPSP
makes a neuron less likely to fire
269
endoneurium
sheath surrounding each axon in the CNS
270
motor unit
motor neuron and its neuron fibers
271
reverberating
neuronal circuit that stimulates itself
272
tetanus
smooth prolonged contraction of muscle
273
synapse
junction of a neuron and target cell
274
treppe
muscle cells go to full relaxation but next twitch has higher tension
275
isometric
change in tension, no change in length
276
ganglion
bundle of muscle or neuron fibers
277
calcium
ion pumped outside of smooth muscle
278
Which of the following is a function of the muscular system: a. Integration. b. Heat production. c. Conduction. d. Electrolyte balance.
heat production
279
Which muscle action opposes the prime mover?
antagonist
280
Which neurotransmitter type is made of modified amino acids?
monoamines
281
Which of the following is a cuff of connective tissue that holds tendons in place? a. Aponeurosis. b. Retinaculum. c. Insertion. d. Origin.
retinaculum
282
What type of conduction is permitted by myelinated neurons?
saltatory
283
Which type of conduction brings impulses from the body to the CNS?
sensory
284
Which type of neuroglial cell creates a supportive framework in the CNS?
astrocytes
285
Which of the following is NOT one of the meninges? a. Fara mater. b. Arachnoid mater. c. Pia mater. d. Dura mater.
fara matter
286
What is a full cycle of contraction and relaxation of a muscle?
muscle twitch
287
What type of neuron has only one dendrite and one axon attached to the soma?
bipolar
288
Which characteristic is common to both nervous tissue and muscular tissue? a. Contractility. b. Elasticity. c. Excitability. d. Extensibility.
excitability
289
Which method of ATP production does not use oxygen but does use glucose?
anaerobic fermenation
290
What is the name of the contractile unit of a muscle cell?
sarcomere
291
Which part of the muscle cell contains ligand-gated ion channels?
motor end plate
292
Which muscle shape has the weakest of contraction strength?
circular
293
True/ False: Qualitative encoding is based on how many neurons fire and how often they fire.
false
294
True/ False: Ependymal cells filter blood to make cerebrospinal fluid.
true
295
True/ False: Sodium is kept at a high concentration inside neuron membranes.
false
296
True/ False: The time during which a cell cannot be stimulated again is the latent period.
false
297
True/ False: Interneurons communicate between sensory and motor neurons.
true
298
True/ False: Myosin heads bind to actin active sites when exposed.
true
299
True/ False: Superficial fascia lies between muscle surface and skin.
true
300
True/ False: Myofibrils are made up of many sarcomeres.
true
301
True/ False: Actin filaments are connected to dense bodies in smooth muscle.
true
302
True/ False: Sodium gates are slow to open compared to potassium gates.
false
303
What are all the benefits and disadvantages to aerobic respiration and anaerobic fermentation?
aerobic: creates NO lactic acid, muscles do not fatigue as quickly anaerobic: makes lactic acid, muscles fatigue quickly
304
What are the three characteristics of nervous tissue AND the five characteristics of muscle tissue?
Nervous: excitability, conductivity, secretion
305
Name three of the six neuroglial cell types, and give one function of each.
Microglia- macrophages Epidymal- fitters Oligendrocytes- makes myelin sheath astrocytes- form supportive framework for nervous tissue satellite- provide electrical insulation around soma schwann- assist in regeneration
306
What is the difference between a neuron, a nerve and a ganglion?
neuron: nerve cel nerve: bundle of nerve fibers ganglion: knot like swelling in a nerve
307
List three ways to increase the strength of a muscle twitch and/or prevent twitch weakness.
ANSWER
308
Explain how smooth muscle cells are stimulated in a single-unit format.
ANSWER
309
What is the difference between the CNS and the PNS and what do those acronyms stand for?
CNS: central nervous system - contains the brain and spinal cord PNS: peripheral nervous system - contains everything EXCEPT the brain and spinal cord
310
What cells create the myelin sheath in the CNS and PNS and what are the two functions of the sheath?
ANSWER
311
What is the difference in location between endomysium, perimysium and epimysium?
endomysium: deepest perimysium: middle epimysium: closest to the surface
312
What are the three ways to remove neurotransmitters from a synaptic cleft?
ANSWER
313
What is the difference between the somatic and visceral divisions of the PNS?
answer
314
What is the function of the troponin/tropomyosin complex?
ANSWER
315
Draw a multipolar neuron and label the dendrite, soma, axon, terminal arborization, and synaptic knobs.
ANSWER
316
Explain the action of an IPSP. (Not just what it is, but how one is formed.)
ANSWER
317
Name three things that return a muscle cell to its resting size during relaxation.
antagonistic muscles recoil of elastic components titin
318
List the physical differences between a smooth muscle cell and a skeletal muscle cell.
ANSWER
319
Explain why the brain is perfused with CSF and not blood.
ANSWER
320
What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative neural coding?
quantitative: based on how many neurons fire qualitative: based on what kind of neurons fire
321
What is the difference between temporal summation and spatial summation?
Temporal: the same nerve/ neuron fires repeatedly until the threshold is met spatial: multiple nerves/ neurons fire to meet the threshold
322
Draw a simple sarcomere and label the actin, myosin, z-disc, titin, A-band, and I-band.
ANSWER
323
Describe the process of regeneration of a severed axon in the PNS.
ANSWER
324
List the differences in form and function of local and action potentials.
ANSWER
325
List the differences in anatomy and function between slow and fast twitch fibers.
ANSWER
326
List the physiological causes of fatigue in muscle cells
accumulation of K+ in the ECF ADP/ Pi accumulation fuel depletion electrolyte loss
327
**Describe in detail ONE of the following processes: Excitation, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction, relaxation.
excitation: - nerve signal to synaptic knob - voltage gated ion channels open - calcium ions enter knob and stimulate excytosis - ACh is released - ACh diffuses and binds to receptors - ligand gated ion channel - 2 ACh molecules bind to receptor - channel opens: Na+ flows IN; K+ flows OUT
328
**Describe the transmission of an action potential down an axon in detail, starting from the trigger zone. Describe the motion of sodium and potassium and the change in membrane voltage during the action potential, plus its effects on the next section of the axolemma.
ANSWER