Final Exam Flashcards by Ziggy Glacier

What is the second vessel arising off the aortic arch?

A. Brachiocephalic Trunk
B. Innominate artery
C. Left Common Carotid Artery
D. Right Subclavian Artery

C. Left Common Carotid Artery

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The right common carotid artery typically arises from which vessel?

A. Right Subclavian artery
B. arotic arch
C. left common carotid artery
D. brachiocephalic trunk

D. brachiocephalic trunk

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The first major branch of the external carotid artery is:

A. superior thyroid artery
B. internal mammary artery
C. ascending pharyngeal artery
D. Facial Artery

A. superior thyroid artery

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What two veins join together to form the right innominate vein?

A. right Subclavian and right internal jugular
B. right Subclavian and right brachiocephalic
C. right Subclavian and left Subclavian
D. right axillary and right subclavian

A. Right Subclavian and right internal jugular

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Which artery crosses the dorsal aspect of the foot and bifurcates into the metatarsal arteries?

A. dorsalis pedis
B. anterior tibial artery
C. posterior tibial artery
D. tibioperoneal trunk artery
E. external iliac artery

A. dorsalis pedis

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Which intramuscular veins terminate and drain into the popliteal vein?

A. small saphenous vein
B. soleal vein
C. gastrocnemius veins
D. peroneal artery

C. gastrocnemius veins

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Flow in the _____ arteries is characterized as low resistance:

A. internal carotid and external carotid
B. internal carotid and superior thyroid
C. internal carotid and ophthalmic artery
D. internal carotid and subclavian

C. internal carotid and ophthalmic artery

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Normal laminar flow travels fastest:

A. In the center of a vessel
B. In the center of a stenosis
C. Near the vessel wall
D. Near the origin of a vessel

A. in the center of a vessel

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An increase in vessel length and decrease in vessel diameter creates:

A. Increased resistance
B. Decreased resistance
C. Increased pulsatility
D. Decreases pulsatility

A. Increased in resistance

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A greater loss of energy and volume can be found in what type of lesion:

A. Collateral
B. Tandem
C. Pre-stenotic
D. Post-stenotic

B. Tandem

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A cyclic increase and decrease in venous flow is associated with:

A. Respiration
B. Augmentation
C. Valsalva
D. Pulsatility

A. Respiration

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What is the most common location for an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A. Supra-renal aorta
B. Juxta-renal aorta
C. Infra-renal aorta
D. Thoracic aorta

C. Infra-renal aorta

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Which vascular disease usually affects males who are heavy smokers?

A. Kawasaki’s Disease
B. Giant Cell Arteritis
C. Wegener’s Granulomatosis
D. Berger’s Disease

D. Buerger’s Disease

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Which neurological deficit lasts less than 24 hours?

A. TIA
B. RIND
C. CVA
D. FMD

A. TIA

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May-Thurner Syndrome is characterized by extrinsic compression of the ______ by the _____:

A. right common iliac vein; left common iliac artery
B. left common iliac vein; right common iliac artery
C. left common iliac vein; left common iliac artery
D. right common iliac vein; right common iliac artery

B. left common iliac vein; right common iliac artery

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What is the mean diameter of a normal infra renal aorta?

A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm

B. 2 cm (pg. 10 Ave. aorta is 2)

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What is the term for a thrombus that travels to the lungs and occludes a pulmonary artery?

A. Pulmonary Embolus
B. Deep Vein Thrombosis
C. Myocardial Infarction
D. Coronary Artery Attack

A. Pulmonary Embolus

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Which vascular disorder may result in retrograde flow in the vertebral artery with an obstruction in the ipsilateral Subclavian artery?

A. Raynaud’s Phenomenon
B. Takayasu’s Arteritis
C. Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
D. Subclavian Steal Syndrome

D. Subclavian Steal Syndrome

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Median Arcuate Ligament Syndrome involves the compression of which vessel?

A. Superior Mesenteric Artery
B. Inferior Mesenteric Artery
C. Median Cubital Vein
D. Celiac Trunk

D. Celiac Trunk

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What is the descriptive term for a tear in the intimal layer of an arterial wall, causing blood flow between the layers of the wall?

A. Aneurysm
B. Pseudoaneurysm
C. Fibromuscular Dysplasia
D. Dissection

D. Dissection

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What is the first branch of the intracranial internal carotid artery?

A. Superior Thyroid Artery
B. External Carotid Artery
C. Ophthalmic Artery
D. Cranial Artery

C. Ophthalmic Artery

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Which two arteries join to form the basilar artery?

A. Right Vertebral and Left Vertebral Arteries
B. Right Subclavian and Left Subclavian Arteries
C. Right Middle Cerebral and Left Middle Cerebral Arteries
D. Right Subclavian and Right Internal Carotid Arteries

A. Right Vertebral and Left Vertebral Arteries

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What maneuver can be performed to elicit oscillations in the diastolic component of the external carotid artery waveform?

A. Valsalva
B. Temporal artery Tab
C. Sniff Test
D. Augmentation

B. Temporal Artery Tap

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The internal carotid artery typically courses ____ and ____ while the external artery typically courses ____ and ____.

A. anterior and medial; posterior and lateral
B. anterior and lateral; posterior and medial
C. posterior and medial; anterior and lateral
D. posterior and lateral; anterior and medial

D. posterior and lateral; anterior and medial

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The internal carotid artery flow characteristics are described as: A. Fast acceleration, slow deceleration with notable end diastolic flow B. Fast acceleration, fast deceleration with little to no end diastolic flow C. Slow acceleration, slow deceleration with notable end diastolic flow D. Slow acceleration, fast deceleration with little to no end diastolic flow

C. Slow acceleration, slow deceleration with notable end diastolic flow

Posterior cerebrovascular circulation disorders are primarily caused by disease in which arteries? A. Vertebrobasilar Artery B. Internal Carotid Artery C. External Carotid Artery D. Subclavian Artery

A. Vertebrobasilar Artery

What is the most common area for atherosclearotic disease in the extracranial arteries? A. Proximal Common Carotid B. Proximal Internal Carotid C. Proximal External Carotid D. Proximal Subclavian Artery

B. Proximal Internal Carotid

What is an abnormal sound heard through auscultation caused by vibration of tissue from turbulent flow? A. Thrill B. Pseudoaneurysm C. Bruit D. Occlusion

C. Bruit

When measuring the CIMT, measurements should be performed using the: A. near wall of the internal carotid artery B. Far wall of the internal Carotid Artery C. Near wall of the common carotid artery D. Far wall of the common carotid artery

D. Far wall of the common carotid artery

What window is used to evaluate the middle cerebral artery using transcranial doppler? A. Transforamenal B. Transorbital C. Submadibular D. Transtemporal

D. Transtemporal

What is the most common vessel for an intracranial artery aneurysm to occur? A. Posterior communicating artery B. Anterior communicating artery C. Middle cerebral artery D. Anterior cerebral artery

B. Anterior communicating artery

What position should the patient be in when performing ankle/brachial blood pressures for the ABI? A. Supine- w/ extremities at same level as the heart B. Supine- w/ head slightly elevated above the heart C. Supine- w/ feet slightly lower then the heart D. Supine- w/ the bed in reverse trendelenburg

A. Supine- w/ extremities at same level as the heart

What is a temporary constriction of the arteries that typically affects the digits? A. Extrinsic Compression B. Emboli C. Vasospasm D. Occlusion

C. Vasospasm

What does an ABI reveal about disease? A. Severity and location of disease B. Level of disease and presence C. Presence and severity of disease D. Location and presence of disease

C. Presence and severity of disease

A significant pressure gradient between the high thigh and the low thigh when performing segmental pressure on a patient, where is the level of disease located? A. Iliac artery B. Femoral artery C. Popliteal artery D. Tibial artery

B. Femoral artery

At what rate should a blood pressure cuff be deflated? A. 2-4 mmHg/sec B. 4-6 mmHg/sec C. 6-8 mmHg/sec D. 8-10 mmHg/sec

A. 2-4 mmHg/sec

What are the two major mechanisms that cause reduced arterial blood supply to the peripheral arterial system? A. Extrinsic compression and atherosclerosis B. Atherosclerosis and embolism C. Embolism and vasospasm D. Vasospasm and atherosclerosis

B. Atherosclerosis and embolism

What is the most common site of atherosclerotic disease in the lower extremity arterial system? A. Common femoral artery at the bifurcation B. Superficial femoral artery origin C. Superficial femoral artery at the adductor canal D. Distal popliteal artery

C. Superficial femoral artery at the adductor canal

The Doppler waveform of an AV fistula between any artery and an adjacent vein can be characterized as: A. High velocity and high resistance B. Low velocity and low resistance C. Low velocity and high resistance D. High velocity and low resistance

D. High velocity and low resistance

Claudication is described as: A. Pain in muscles when exercising which is relieved by rest and is reproducible B. Pain in legs while lying in a supine position and is intermittent C. Weakness in legs while lying in a reverse trendelenburg position D. Numbness and tingling in legs while lying in a trendelenburg postion

A. Pain in muscles when exercising which is relieved by rest and is reproducible

What percent of patients who have femoral artery aneurysms have popliteal artery aneurysms? A. 3% B. 9% C. 15% D. 30%

A. 3%

A decrease in ABI of ____ demonstrates a significant change from one exam to the next. A. 0.05 B. 0.10 C. 0.15 D. 0.20

C. 0.15

What is a significant change in blood pressure between levels in the arms? A. 5 mmHg B. 10 mmHg C. 15 mmHg D. 20 mmHg

D. 20 mmHg

What is a normal upper extremity digital brachial index (DBI) pressure? A. 30 mmHg B. 50 mmHg C. 60 mmHg D. 70 mmHg

D. 70 mmHg

What maneuver has a patient to take a deep breath in, hold it, and look over the right shoulder, then over the left shoulder while recording the waveforms? A. Adson's maneuver B. Hyperaduction maneuver C. Costoclavicular maneuver D. Hyperabduction maneuver

A. Adson's maneuver

What percent of thoracic outlet cases are arterial related? A. 1% B. 5% C. 15% D. 30%

A. 1%

What is a pulsating hematoma that communicates with an artery that is usually caused by injury/trauma? A. Hematoma B. Aneurysm C. Pseudoaneurysm D. Arteriovenous Fistula

C. Pseudoaneurysm

Where will abnormal VPR waveforms be visualized in a patient with significant disease? A. Proximal to the level of disease B. At the level of disease C. Distal to the level of disease D. Both A and C

C. Distal to the level of disease

Which of the following is a risk factor for pseudoaneurysm? A. Bruit B. Trauma C. Post-cardiac catheterization D. Pulsatile Mass

C. Post-cardiac catheterization

Accoridng to the Bernoulli Principle within a high grade stenosis the: A. Velocity decreases and pressure increases B. Velocity increases and pressure decreases C. Velocity decreases and pressure decreases D. Velocity increases and pressure increases

B. Velocity increases and pressure decreases

During an exercise test of the lower extremities a patient's ABI does not return to baseline for 6-12 minutes; what is the patient's suspected level of disease? A. None- it is considered normal B. Single level disease C. Multilevel disease D. Severe occlusive disease

C. Multilevel disease

What is the amount of time considered abnormal for venous insufficiency in a deep vein? A. 0.35 seconds B. 0.5 seconds C. 1.0 seconds D. 1.5 seconds

D. 1.5 seconds

What percent of patients with a history of DVT will develop chronic venous insufficiency within a year? A. 26% B. 35% C. 52% D. 69%

D. 69%

What is the most common area of the leg for venous ulcers to present themselves? A. Small toes B. Gaiter area C. Dorsum of foot D. Plantar area of foot

B. Gaiter area

What type of thrombus is characterized as having medium to lightly echogenic or anechoic, spongy texture, poorly attached to the venous wall of "free floating" within the lumen? A. Linear striation B. Indeterminate aged thrombosis C. Chronis thrombosis D. Acute Thrombosis

D. Acute Thrombosis

What are the three factors described in Virchow's Triad that are responsible for venous thrombosis? A. Venous stasis, hypercoagulable state, and endothelial damage B. Smoking, Venous stasis and hyperlipidemia C. Endothelial damage, stroke, and venous stasis D. Hypercoagulable state, venous stasis, and venous insufficiency

A. Venous stasis, hyupercoagulable state, and endothelial damage

What condition should be suspected in a patient with pulsatile lower extremity venous flow? A. Lymphedema B. Pregnancy C. Congestive Heart Failure D. Aortic valve Regurgitation

C. Congestive heart failure

Which lower extremity vein courses above the muscular facia? A. Gastrocnemius vein B. Great saphenous vein C. Soleal vein D. Posterior tibial vein

B. Great saphenous vein

How many valves are expected in the inferior vena cava? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

A. 0

Which vessel is the first choice as conduit for autogenous bypass graft? A. Radial artery B. Cephalic Vein C. Basilic veni D. Great Saphenous Vein

D. Great Saphenous Vein

If a distal augmentation is performed during a venous exam and no change in the venous flow is visualized what should be suspected? A. Obstruction superior to the transducer B. A collateral channel C. Venous insufficiency D. Nothing, that is normal

A. Obstruction superior to the transducer

Venous stenosis in the upper extremity can be a result of: A. Atherosclerosis B. Venous plaque C. Paget Schroetter Syndrome D. Phlegmasia cerulean dolens

C. Paget Schroetter syndrome

Air Plethysmography quantifies the physiological components of ___. A. Venous reflux and foot muscle function B. Venous reflux and calf muscle function C. Venous reflux and thigh muscle function D. Venous reflux and gluteal muscle function

B. Venous reflux and calf muscel function

Normally venous blood flow from the ____ venous system to the ____ venous system via the ____ veins towards the heart. A. deep; superficial; perforator B. superficial; deep; perforator; C. perforator; superficial; deep D. deep; perforator; superficial

B. superficial; deep; perforator

What is considered a normal venous return time when evaluating a patient for venous insufficiency using photoelectric plethymography (PPG) without a cuff inflated on thigh? A. >10 secs B. > or = 20 secs C.

B. > or = 20 secs

What should a blood pressure cuff be inflated to in order to occlude the superficial venous system to determine if a patient has deep venous insufficiency using photoplethysmography technique? A. 25 mmHg B. 50 mmHg C. 75 mmHg D. 20 mmHg over the systolic brachial pressure

B. 50 mmHg

Where should a PPG sensor be placed on the limb when evaluating for venous insufficiency? A. just below medial malleolus B. on the dorsum of the foot C. just above the medial malleolus D. on the great toe

C. just above the medial malleolus

What is the typical frequency of a probe used for assessing abdominal vessels? A. 1-4 MHz B. 5-10 MHz C. 8-12 MHz D. 10-15 MHz

A. 1-4 MHz

What aortic diameter is usually associated with surgical intervention? A. 5.0 cm B. 2.0-3.0 cm C. 3.0-3.5 cm D. >5.0 cm

D. > 5.0 cm

The shape of a true aneurysm is: A. saccular and multiform B. saccular and round C. fusiform and saccular D. fusiform and round

C. fusiform and saccular

What is the term used to describe uniform arterial dilatation throughout an artery greater than 50% its typical diameter? A. Aneurysm B. Arteriomegaly C. Dissection D. Pseudoanuerysm

B. Arteriomegaly

What is a significant increase in size of an abdominal aortic aneurysm sac that may indicate there is an endoleak present? A. 0.15 cm B. 0.25 cm C. 0.5 cm D. 1.0 cm

C. 0.5 cm

When a patient has median arcuate ligament syndrome, the PSV ____ with expiration and ___ with inspiration: A. Increases; normalizes B. decreases; normalizes C. normalizes; increases D. normalizes; decreases

A. increases; normalizes

Which of the following is true: A. The right RA is shorter than the left and is posterior to the inferior vena cava and right RV/ B. The right RA is longer than the left and is posterior to the inferior cava and right RV C. The right RA is longer than the left and is anterior to the IVC and right RV D. The right RA is shorter than the left and is anterior to IVC and right RV

A. The right RA is shorter than the left and is posterior to the IVC and right RV

What is a normal waveform characteristic of the superior mesenteric artery in a fasting patient: A. Laminar B. Biphasic C. Low resistance D. High resistance

D. High resistance

What is the normal diameter of the main portal vein? A. 1-3 mm B. 5-9 mm C. 6-10 mm D. 8-12

D. 8-12 mm

TIPS (Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt) is usually placed in the: A. Kidney B. Liver C. Stomach D. Lung

B. Liver

Nutcracker syndrome is when the left renal vein is being compressed by the ___ and the ___? A. Aorta; superior mesenteric artery B. aorta; right common iliac artery C. aorta; left common iliac artery D. aorta; left common iliac vein

A. aorta; superior mesenteric artery

What is an abnormal resistive index of the kidney? A. 0.2 B. 0.5 C. 0.75 D. 0.8

D. 0.8 (better answer) normal

What vascular disorder is described as having a series of hemodynamically significant stenosis with a "string of beads" like appearance by imaging? A. Median arcuate ligament syndrome B. Fibromuscular dysplasia C. Nutcracker syndrome D. Budd-Chiari syndrome

B. Fibromuscular dysplasia

IVC filters should be positioned: A. above the level of the renal veins B. below the level of the renal vein C. at the level of the renal veins D. adjacent to the level of the renal veins

B. below the level of the renal vein

How do you calculate an ABI? A. lowest brachial and lowest ankle pressures B. lowest brachial and highest ankle pressures C. highest brachial and highest ankle pressures D. highest brachial and lowest ankle pressures

C. highest brachial and highest ankle pressures

What is the gold standard testing modality used for the detection of pulmonary embolus (PE)? A. Magnetic resonance imaging B. X-ray C. Computerized tomography (CT) D. Ventilation/perfusion scan (VQ)

C. Computerized tomography (CT)

What two controls should be adjusted in order to eliminate spectral doppler aliasing? A. Scale and gain B. Scale and baseline C. Gain and filter D. Filter and scale

B. Scale and baseline

What will increasing the number of focal zones decrease? A. Compression B. slice thickness C. Depth D. Frame Rate

D. Frame Rate

Which ultrasound machine control allows for different reflecting echoes at different depths and in return produces an image that is consistent in appearance? A. TGC B. Depth C. Gain D. Wall filter

A. TGC

What cardiac disorder would result in low amplitude waveform? A. MS B. MR C. AS D. AR

A. MS (Gail's answer) or C. AS pg. 338-339 says both

What vascular disorder may cause a "double peak" arterial waveform? A. AR B. AS C. AI D. AR and AS

A. AR/ B. AS/ C. AI/ D. AR and AS | All are right answers pg 338

What can increased or elevated right sided pressure within the heart cause? A. Cardiac arrhythmia B. Decreases phasicity of the peripheral veins C. Increased pulsatility of the peripheral veins D. "Double peak" arterial waveform

C. Increases pulsatility of the peripheral veins

What is considered a high cardiac output? A. 2 L/min B. 4 L/min C. 6 L/min D. 8 L/min

D. 8 L/min

What is the first line of treatment for Popliteal Entrapment Syndrome? A. Antiplatelet drugs such as aspirin B. Heparin to ensure thrombosis does not form C. No treatment unless thrombosis is present D. Steroids to reduce swelling

C. No treatment unless thrombosis is present

What is the first line of treatment for fibromuscular dysplasia? A. Alteplase B. Aspirin C. Heparin D. Nothing - there is no treatment

B. Aspirin

What might diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and beta blockers be used to treat? A. Arteritis B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Hyperlipidemia

C. Hypertension

What can you do to get adequate color flow in the vertebral arteries? A. decrease the color gain B. decrease the color scale C. decrease the color gate D. decrease the color filter

B. decrease the color scale

Which vascular disorder has a 96% treatment success rate when treated with ultrasound guided thrombin injection? A. Venous insufficiency B. Raynaud's phenomenon C. Dissection D. Pseudoaneurysm

D. Pseudoanuerysm

A 50% diameter reduction is numerically equal to an _____ area reduction. A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 80%

C. 75%

IF the power is increased by a factor of 2, then the intensity is increased by a factor of ____. A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4

D. 4

What is the common time frame used to compare a non-invasive exam to a gold standard exam? A. Within 6 weeks B. Within 2 months C. Within 6 months D. Within 12 months

C. Within 6 months

What is the statistical term for the ability of the non-invasive exam to detect the lack of disease in a population? A. Negative predictive value B. Accuracy C. Sensitivity D. specificity

D. Specificity

What is the statistical term for the ability of the non-invasive exam to determine disease in a population? A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Accuracy D. Positive predictive value

A. Sensitivity

Final Exam Flashcards

(100 cards)