Final Exam Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
The definition of exercise includes which of the following?
A. Only physical activities that increase the heart rate
B. The body’s ability to respond to the demands of physical effort
C. Planned, structured, and repetitive movement
D. Movement produced by skeletal muscles
A
C. Planned, structured, and repetitive movement
2
Q
Which of the following best defines “physical activity”?
A. Planned, structured, and repetitive bodily movement done to improve or maintain one or more components of physical fitness
B. A set of health- and performance-related attributes
C. All body movements produced by skeletal muscles resulting in substantial increases in energy expenditure
D. The ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to function efficiently
A
C. All body movements produced by skeletal muscles resulting in substantial increases in energy expenditure
3
Q
The body’s ability to perform physical activities on a regular basis without getting too tired and with energy left over to handle physical and mental emergencies demonstrates
A. Physical Fitness
B. Aerobic Exercise
C. Physical Activity
D. Weight-loss Capacity
A
A. Physical Fitness
4
Q
Aerobic literally means
A. with energy
B. with oxygen
C. with strength
D. with air
A
B. with oxygen
5
Q
The ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to supply oxygen to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity is called
A. Muscular Endurance
B. Aerobic Power
C. Cardiorespiratory Fitness
D. Exercise
A
C. Cardiorespiratory Fitness
6
Q
The best fluid to drink during a 45-minute exercise session is
A. Any caffeinated soft drink
B. Plain water
C. Chocolate milk
D. A sports drink
A
B. Plain water
7
Q
The amount of motion possible at a joint or a series of joints is called
A. Endurance
B. Flexibility
C. Balance
D. Agility
A
B. Flexibility
8
Q
Ryan has been working in his yard on a very hot summer day. He is experiencing nausea, headache, dizziness, faintness, and the chills. Ryan is most likely suffering from
A. Heat stroke
B. Heat cramps
C. Heat fatigue
D. Heat exhaustion
A
D. Heat exhaustion
9
Q
Aerobic capacity (or power) is measured by
A. MET levels
B. Vo2 Max
C. HDL values
D. RPE
A
B. Vo2 Max
10
Q
Death from hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature drops to
A. 93.2 - 99.6 F
B. 87.0 - 90.0 F
C. 75.0 - 80.0 F
D. 89.2 - 93.0 F
A
C. 75.0 - 80.0 F
11
Q
Which of the following is true regarding exercise and cancer?
A. Exercise appears to reduce the risk of colon cancer, but not breast cancer
B. Exercise has no effect on breast or colon cancer
C. Exercise appears to reduce the risk of breast cancer, but not colon cancer
D. Exercise appears to reduce the risk of breast and colon cancer
A
D. Exercise appears to reduce the risk of breast and colon cancer
12
Q
Jeanne wants to exercise more, but she lacks motivation. Which of the following might help her overcome her lack of motivation?
A. Identify inexpensive resources on campus or in the community
B. Multitask, suce as listening to lecture tapes while riding an exercise bike
C. Explain the importance of exercise to people who may not support her efforts
D. Enlist the help of an exercise partner to make her accountable for working out
A
D. Enlist the help of an exercise partner to make her accountable for working out
13
Q
Julius just turned 20 years old. What should be his maximum heart rate?
A. 193.5
B. 150.2
C. 177.6
D. 120.9
A
A. 193.5
14
Q
Muscular endurance is best developed by increasing
A. The range of motion that you use to lift weights
B. The amount of repetitions you lift an amount of weight
C. The amount of weight you can lift a few times
D. The speed at which you can lift a weight
A
B. The amount of repetitions you lift an amount of weight
15
Q
True or False: Intensity is part of the FITT principal that refers to the duration of an activity.
A
False
16
Q
Werner may run marathons, but he is categorized as overweight because his body mass index (BMI) is
A. 199.9 or less
B. 25.0 - 29.9
C. 20.0 - 24.9
D. 30.0 or higher
A
B. 25.0 - 29.9
17
Q
Susan, Saundra, and Samuel like to weight train together. While doing the bench press recently, Susan did 10 repetitions of 150 pounds in 2 minutes, Saundra did 10 repetitions of 175 pounds in 2 minutes, and Samuel did 10 repetitions of 160 pounds in 2 minutes. Who burned the most calories during this exercise?
A. Susan
B. Samuel
C. Saundra
D. Samuel and Susan equally burned the most
A
C. Saundra
18
Q
Mikesha is trying to take a sensible approach to weight loss. She is trying to make permanent changes to her lifestyle by adding exercise and cutting back on calories. If Mikesha wants to lose weight at a rate of about one pound per week, about how many more calories a day must she expend than she consumes?
A. 50
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 500
A
D. 500
19
Q
The majority of adults
A. are dissatisfied with their bodies
B. exercise excessively
C. think their bodies are perfect
D. want to be more muscular
A
A. are dissatisfied with their bodies
20
Q
Which of the following best defines body image?
A. Your impression of what others think about your appearance.
B. Your overall feelings, perceptions, and assumptions about your body.
C. The portion of fat vs. lean muscle in body.
D. Whether or not you like your body.
A
B. Your overall feelings, perceptions, and assumptions about your body.
21
Q
The World Health Organization (WHO) projects that more than _____ million adults will be obese by 2015.
A. 200
B. 700
C. 500
D. 400
A
B. 700
22
Q
The average amount of time that Americans spend sitting each day is
A. 15 or more hours
B. 10 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 12 hours
A
A. 15 or more hours
23
Q
Environmental factors causing us to move less include all of the following except
A. Bicycles
B. Automobiles
C. Remote Controls
D. Desk Jobs
A
A. Bicycles
24
Q
Stuart is 19 years old and has 6 percent body fat. This categorizes him as
A. Obese
B. Overweight
C. Morbidly Obese
D. Underweight
A
D. Underweight
25
Maddie is trying to loose a few pounds. The weight she should be trying to lose is called
A. Storage fat
B. Essential fat
C. Subcutaneous fat
D. Intrinsic fat
A. Storage fat
26
Bob calculated his BMI to be at 27. This classifies him as
A. Underweight
B. Ideal weight
C. Obese
D. Overweight
D. Overweight
27
Cindy is 5' 11" tall and weighs about 141 pounds. According to the body mass index (BMI) table, this means she has a healthy weight. In which of the following ranges would you expect to find her?
A. BMI 30.0 - 39.9
B. BMI 25.0 - 29.9
C. BMI
D. BMI 18.5 - 24.9
28
One pound of additional body fat is created by consuming how many extra calories?
A. 500
B. 2,500
C. 3,500
D. 2,500
C. 3,500
29
Morbidly obese individuals have body weight ___ percent or more above their ideal weight.
A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100
D. 100
30
Judy has started walking briskly everyday. If, as a result, she burned 350 calories more per day than she consumes, how many days will it take her to lose 10 pounds?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 50
D. 110
B. 100
31
Which of the following parts of the digestive system is where nutrients are absorbed?
A. Rectum and Anus
B. Stomach
C. Large Intestine
D. Small Intestine
D. Small Intestine
32
Darlene is looking for a complete protein amongst the choices in her dining hall. Which of the following is probably her best option?
A. Grilled chicken breast
B. Spinach
C. Corn on the cob
D. Black beans
A. Grilled chicken breast
33
Which of the following parts of the digestive system is where solid waste ends up and is passed out the body?
A. Large Intestine
B. Small Intestine
C. Rectum and Anus
D. Stomach
C. Rectum and Anus
34
The entire digestive process takes approximately
A. 48 hours
B. 14 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 4 hours
C. 24 hours
35
Luke, a third-string first baseman on the junior varsity baseball team, drinks a heavily advertise electrolyte beverage while he watches games from the bench. Because he has so much free time on his hands during games, he has read the list of ingredients in the electrolyte beverage. Which of the following is an added sugar that may be in Luke's favored beverage?
A. Dextrose
B. Pentose
C. Hexose
D. Concentrated vegetable juices
A. Dextrose
36
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B12
37
Which of the following is a common function of fats in the body?
A. Helps maintain healthy skin and hair
B. Repairs bone cells
C. Helps move foods through the digestive system
D. Gets stored as glycogen for energy uses later
A. Helps maintain healthy skin and hair
38
Rex, who leads fitness classes at a gym on campus, burns a lot of calories at work each day. Which of the following provides the calories Rex needs to succeed at work?
A. Minerals
B. Vitamins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Water
C. Carbohydrates
39
Which of the following is most likely a function of protein in the body?
A. Repairs muscle cells
B. Helps move foods through the digestive system
C. Removes metabolic wastes
D. Insulates body organ
A. Repairs muscle cells
40
Which of the following is NOT a carbohydrate?
A. Starch
B. Fish
C. Fiber
D. Glucose
A. Fish
41
If person X needs about 2,000 calories per day, person X is probably
A. an active man, ages 31 - 50
B. An active woman, ages 31 - 50
C. A sedentary woman, ages 19 - 30
D. A sedentary man, ages 19 - 30
C. A sedentary woman, ages 19 - 30
42
Which of the following plant sources of protein would be categorized as a legume?
A. Almonds
B. Wheat
C. Corn
D. Peanuts
D. Peanuts
43
Which of the following contains the highest percentage of water?
A. Cheese
B. Bread
C. Fruit
D. Meats
C. Fruits
44
Marjorie does not produce lactase, an enzyme in the lining of the gut that degrades lactose, a sugar in dairy products. If she consumes a product containing lactose, she becomes bloated with gas and she experiences abdominal pain and diarrhea. Based on this information alone, which of the following statements is probably true about Marjorie's condition?
A. Marjorie has celiac disease
B. Marjorie has a food intolerance
C. Marjorie has a food allergy
D. Marjorie is a locavore
B. Marjorie has a food intolerance
45
Which of the following is a common function of vitamins in the body?
A. Repairs muscle cells
B. Gets stored as glycogen for energy uses later
C. Heals wounds
D. Helps move foods through the digestive system
C. Heals wounds
46
Which of the following statements is true regarding long-term stress and physiological effects?
A. Long-term stress increases in the size of the hippocampus
B. Long-term stress only has psychological effects
C. Long-term stress causes 80 percent of all deaths in the United States
D. Long-term stress may cause low back pain, diabetes, and cancer
D. Long-term stress may cause low back pain, diabetes, and cancer
47
Stress created by a dependence on technology and the constant state of connection is referred to as
A. Technostress
B. Technodistress
C. Technostressors
D. Technoeustress
A. Technostress
48
Which of the following events is most likely to cause distress?
A. Getting a promotion at work
B. Getting married
C. Getting a new puppy
D. Loosing your home to foreclosure
D. Loosing your home to foreclosure
49
Derek's football team is playing the number one team in their division. Derek's team has to win this game to qualify for the regional championship. He is stressed because of their all-important game. The kind of stress Derek is experiencing is called
A. Eustress
B. Positive Stress
C. Acute Stress
D. Chronic Stress
A. Eustress
50
Robin has a full class schedule and he plays on the varsity badminton team. Despite all of his commitments, his undergraduate research advisor is pressuring him to take on yet another project. Which of the following strategies should best help Robin say no to his advisor and mean it?
A. Give in to the guilt because your advisor can write you a bad recommendation for graduate school
B. Say yes, but then do not do it
C. Explain that you cannot take on one more project right now
D. Say that you want to think about it so that you can delay having to say no until later
C. Explain that you cannot take on one more project right now
51
A school examination is an example of
A. A stressor
B. Strain
C. A strainer
D. Stress
A. A stressor
52
When stress levels are low, the body is often in a state of
A. Adaptive response
B. Distress
C. Homeostasis
D. Eustress
C. Homeostasis
53
Michael never seems to be off his phone. He is either taking calls, making calls, sending or receiving text messages and e-mails, or looking up something on the web. Which of the following is a way for Michael to reduce stress?
A. He needs to devote less time to face-to-face interactions with family and friends.
B. He needs to turn off his electronic devices when he is out with other people.
C. He needs to respond to every call, text, or email immediately.
D. He needs to increase his use of technology.
B. He needs to turn off his electronic devices when he is out with other people.
54
Which of the following is not a negative health outcome that can be associated with chronic stress?
A. Weight gain
B. Cardiovascular disease
C. Hair loss
D. A strengthened immune system
D. A strengthened immune system
55
Oscar and Emily have been staying up late and getting up early to finish a project for their architecture class. By working these kinds of long hours, they are contributing to which of the following?
A. Their sleep debts
B. The national debt
C. Their personal debt
D. Their oxygen debt
A. Their sleep debts
56
The term describing what happens to our bodies when we perceive danger is called
A. Adaption Response
B. Homeostasis
C. The Resistance Phase
D. Fight or Flight Response
D. Fight or Flight Response
57
After you realize the strange noise you heard late at night was your cat and not a burglar, the system stimulated by the stress response will be slowed down by the
A. Voluntary Nervous System
B. Sympathetic Nervous System
C. Parasympathetic Nervous System
D. Central Nervous System
C. Parasympathetic Nervous System
58
Darlene runs cross-country in the fall and track in the spring. She carries a full load of classes in electrical engineering, and she volunteers two days a week at the local Humane Society. Darlene, a senior, has been enduring this unrelenting overload for almost a year and it has led to a state of physical and mental exhaustion known as
A. Acute Stress
B. Burnout
C. Stress Inoculation
D. Flameout
B. Burnout
59
Your belief or confidence in your skills and ability to perform is known as
A. Self-consciousness
B. Self-hatred
C. Self-efficacy
D. Self-esteem
C. Self-efficacy
60
How you feel about yourself is known as
A Self-esteem
B. Self-hatred
C. Self-conciousness
D. Self-efficacy
A. Self-esteem
61
Even though the pills that Milton takes for his arthritis have no active ingredients, they make him feel better anyways. His improvement is due to
A. Self-hypnosis
B. The cure effect
C. The placebo effect
D. Spontaneous remission
C. The placebo effect
62
Lindsay is a nurse who has an advanced degree, conducts diagnostic test, and can prescribe medication in some states. What type of nurse is she?
A. Registered Nurse
B. Vocational Nurse
C. Nurse Practitioner
D. Licensed Practical Nurse
C. Nurse Practitioner
63
Chiropractic treatment has been established to be effective for all of the following except
A. Neck Pain
B. Headaches
C. Back Pain
D. Fractures
D. Fractures
64
Which of the following is a condition for which you should consult a physician?
A. Seasonal allergies
B. Minor scrapes
C. A headache at the end of a tension filled day
D. Yellowing of the whites of the eyes
D. Yellowing of the whites of the eyes
65
Becky is 80 years old and is covered by federal health insurance program. What is this program called?
A. Federal Health Plan
B. Medicaid
C. Medicare
D. Social Security
C. Medicare
66
Jon's insurance only converse 90% of his total medical bills. The 10% he must pay is an example of
A. An exclusion
B. A co-payment
C. Co-insurance
D. A deductible
C. Co-insurance
67
Maria has a PPO plan. Which of the following is a disadvantage of this plan?
A. She must obtain all her medical services from one facility
B. She is not allowed to see an out-of-network provider
C. She must pay for preventive services
D. She must pay a considerably higher cost to see a physician not on the preferred list
D. She must pay a considerably higher cost to see a physician not on the preferred list
68
Approximately how many millions of people in the United States are without insurance?
A. 22 million
B. 32 million
C. 5 million
D. Over 50 million
D. Over 50 million
69
Which of the following are used by homeopathic physicians?
A. Meditation
B. Qigong
C. Herbal Medicine
D. Massage
C. Herbal Medicine
70
Which of the following is true about Physician Assistants?
A. They must work under the supervision of a licensed physician.
B. More than 80% practice in areas where physicians are in short supply.
C. They are competent to treat 100% of those seeking primary care.
D. All states allow physician assistants to prescribe drugs.
A. They must work under the supervision of a licensed physician.
71
Ryan's insurance will not begin to pay for covered services until he has paid the first $500 of his annual health car bill. The $500 is called
A. Co-insurance
B. A co-payment
C. A deductible
D. An exclusion
C. A deductible
72
The Consolidated Omnibus Reconciliation (COBRA) allows
A. Former employees to continue health insurance temporarily, at a group rate
B. Current employees to choose from several insurance plans
C. Current employees and distant relatives to choose the plan most appropriate to their needs
D. Former employees to remain on group health insurance plans indefinitely
A. Former employees to continue health insurance temporarily, at a group rate
73
Suppose your grandfather is suffering from end-stage lung cancer. If the doctor treating your grandfather suggests a certain surgical procedure, which may or may not work, which of the following is something you can do to advocate for your grandfather?
A. Leave your grandfather alone to make his own decision. He is the only one who really knows what he has to do.
B. Pressure your grandfather to undergo the procedure. His life depends on it.
C. Ask about the risks and the cost of the surgical procedure. Do the benefits outweigh the risks?
D. Agree to the procedure. Doctors always know best.
C. Ask about the risks and the cost of the surgical procedure. Do the benefits outweigh the risks?
74
True or False: Complementary and alternative medical therapies incorporate a holistic approach to medicine that focuses on treating the mind and whole body, rather than just an isolated part of the body.
True
75
True or False: Purchasing drugs from the Internet is a time-saving, cost effective, and perfectly safe alternative to traditional pharmacies.
False
76
In which age group is CVD significantly more prevalent among men than among women?
A. 60 - 79 years old
B. 20 - 39 years old
C. 40 - 59 years old
D. 80+ years old
B. 20 - 39 years old
77
What is the number one cause of death for women in the United States?
A. Stroke
B. Cardiovascular Disease
C. Ovarian Cancer
D. Breast Cancer
B. Cardiovascular Disease
78
Damage to an area of the heart muscle caused by the lack of blood supply is called
A. Heart Failure
B. Bradycardia
C. Angina Pectoris
D. A heart attack
D. A heart attack
79
Susan's aunt suffered from a cerebrovascular accident. What is the common name for this medical problem?
A. Stroke
B. Heart Attack
C. Angina
D. Arrhythmia
A. Stroke
80
Hypertension refers to
A. A sustained low blood pressure
B. Fluctuating blood pressure readings
C. Tachycardia from over reading
D. A sustained high blood pressure
D. A sustained high blood pressure
81
Systolic blood pressure refers to pressure applied to the walls of the arteries when
A. The heart contracts
B. The heart is between contractions
C. Blood is reentering the heart
D. The heart relaxes
A. The heart contracts
82
When the heart relaxes, the pressure on the arterial was decreases. this is called the
A. Pumping phase
B. Systolic pressure
C. Baseline pressure
D. Diastolic pressure
D. Diastolic pressure
83
For the average person, a healthy blood pressure is
A. 140/90
B. 110/80
C. 90/70
D. 150/80
B. 110/80
84
Donna was diagnosed with cancer. Cancer is a group of diseases characterized by
A. Solid tumor development
B. Replication of genetic material
C. Uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells
D. Predictable spreading of abnormal cells
C. Uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells
85
John was told that the tumor in his brain is malignant. This means that the tumor is
A. Noncancerous
B. Dormant
C. Cancerous
D. Likely to be contained in the brain
C. Cancerous
86
Thomas was told that the tumor in his brain is benign. It means that the tumor is
A. Dormant
B. Noncancerous
C. Spreading quickly
D. Cancerous
B. Noncancerous
87
When a tumor reappears in sites distant from the primary tumor, the process is known as
A. Progressive
B. Benign
C. Detection
D. Metastasis
D. Metastasis
88
According to the American Cancer Society, the greatest percentage of new cases of cancer in women will be located in
A. The breast
B. The thyroid
C. The lungs
D. The pancreas
A. The breast
89
According to the American Cancer Society, the greatest percentage of deaths from cancer in men will be due to
A. Prostate Cancer
B. Lung Cancer
C. Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
D. Colon Cancer
B. Lung Caner
90
In the "ABCD" rule for the symptoms of melanoma, the letters stand for
A. Actual size, bleeding, cancer stage, and dark appearance
B. Asymmetry, border irregularity, color, and diameter
C. Asymmetry, border uniformity, color, and delayed healing
D. Acute pain, bleeding, constant swelling, and diameter
B. Asymmetry, border irregularity, color, and diameter
91
Planned, structured, and repetitive bodily movement done to improve or maintain one or more components of physical fitness
Exercise
92
Any body movement that works your muscles, uses more energy than when resting, and enhances health
Physical Activity
93
Prevents several chronic diseases (cardiovascular disease, diabetes, cancer, hypertension, obesity, depression, and osteoporosis), walking
Physical Activity for Health
94
Cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, body composition (weight training, cardio)
Physical Activity for Fitness
95
Agility, balance, coordination, power, speed, and reaction time (sports, ironman)
Physical Activity for Performance
96
Ability to sustain aerobic whole body activity for a prolonged period of time
Cardiovascular Fitness
97
Muscular force able to be exerted by single contraction of a muscle or muscle group
Muscular Strength
98
Ability to perform high-intensity muscle contractions repeatedly without fatiguing
Muscular Endurance
99
```
BMI:
Underweight
Normal Weight
Overweight
Obese
```
Underweight: 30
100
FITT Principle for Muscular Strength, Endurance, and Flexibility
Frequency
Intensity
Time
Type
101
Occur suddenly and violently, typically by accident
Traumatic Injuries
102
May result from doing too much intense exercise, too much exercise without variation, or not allowing for sufficient rest and recovery time
Overuse Injuries
103
Common Overuse Injuries
Hip
Knee
Shoulder
Elbow
104
RICE
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation
105
Body Fat Percentage Norms for Men and Women:
Obesity
Morbidly Obese
Good Fat Percentage for 20-29 year old men
Good Fat Percentage for 20-29 year old women
Obesity: 20 – 90%
Morbidly Obese: double, 100% or more
Good Fat Percentage for 20-29 year old men – 11 – 15%
Good Fat Percentage for 20-29 year old women – 17 – 19%
106
Body Image Disorders
Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD)
| Social Physique Anxiety (SPA)
107
Body Image
Negative feelings about one’s body can contribute to behaviors that can threaten your health—and your life
A healthy body image can contribute to reduced stress, and increased sense of personal empowerment, and more joyful living
Body Hate Disassociation, Distorted Body Image, Body Preoccupied Obsessed, Body Acceptance, Body Is Not an Issue
Factors that influence body image include celebrity photos, social media, and interactions with others such as family and peers
108
What is the amount of time on average Americans are sedentary?
15 or more hours
109
Dietary proteins that supply all essential amino acids (animal)
Complete Proteins
110
Proteins from plant sources that lack one or more of the essential amino acids (plant)
Incomplete Proteins
111
Found naturally in fruits, many vegetables, and diary (monosaccharaides and disaccharides)
Simple Carbohydrates
112
Found in grains, cereals, legumes, and other vegetables (starches, glycogen, fiber (soluble or insoluble))
Complex Carbohydrates
113
What type of fat comes from animal sources?
Saturated Fats
114
What type of fat is liquid at room temperature, comes from plants, and includes most vegetable oils?
Trans-fats
115
What type of person does a 2,000-calorie diet pertain to? (5% of population)
14 - 18 year old sedentary males
116
Polysaccharide that is the storage form of glucose in plants
Starch
117
Mental and physical response and adaptation by out bodies to the real or perceived changes and challenges in our lives
Stress
118
Lingers indefinitely and can harm your body’s systems, build up over years
Chronic Stress
119
Intense stress that flares quickly and disappears quickly, short-term stress
Acute Stress
120
Physical Traits that are negative to large amounts of stress
Cardiovascular disease, weight gain, alcohol dependence, hair loss, diabetes, digestive problems, impaired immunity
121
Refers to how you “feel” about yourself
Self-esteem
122
Confidence in one’s skills and abilities to cope with life’s challenges
Self-efficacy
123
Internal fight to restore homeostasis in the face of a stressor
General Adaptation Syndrome
124
All body systems are operating smoothly to maintain equilibrium
Homeostasis
125
Ability to handle work individually
Accountability
126
The lower number in the fraction that measures blood pressure, indicating pressure on arterial walls during the relaxation phase of heart activity (Normal:
Diastolic Blood Pressure
127
The upper number in the fraction that measures blood pressure, indicating pressure on the walls of the arteries when the heart contracts (Normal:
Systolic Blood Pressure:
128
Insulin-dependent diabetes, autoimmune disease, juvenile diabetes
Diabetes I
129
Non-insulin-dependent diabetes, insulin resistance
Diabetes II
130
Most common type of network, provides a range of covered benefits for a fixed prepaid amount, least expensive form and most restrictive
Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
131
Networks of independent doctors and hospitals, members may see doctors not on preferred list for an additional cost
Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
132
Front-end payments you make for health care before coverage kicks in to pay for eligible services
Deductibles
133
Set amounts paid per service
Co-payments
134
Percentage you must pay based on the terms of the policy
Coinsurance
135
Highly trained and strictly regulated health professionals who provide a wide range of services
Nurses
136
Nurses with advanced training obtained through either a master’s degree program or a specialized nurse practitioner program
Nurse Practitioners (NPs)
137
Examine and diagnose patients, offer treatment, and write prescriptions under a physician’s supervision
Physician Assistants (PAs)
138
Called Allopathic Medicine
Conventional Health Care
139
Bloating, pain in the pelvic area, feeling full quickly, feeling the need to urinate more frequently, digestive disturbances, fatigue, pain during intercourse, unexplained weight loss, changes in bowel or bladder habits, incontinence; early-stage treatment includes surgery, chemotherapy, and occasionally radiation are risk factors
Ovarian Cancer
140
Early age at first intercourse, multiple sex partners, cigarette smoking, and certain sexually transmitted infections, including HPV and herpes are risk factors
Cervical Cancer
141
Age, estrogen, and obesity are risk factors
Endometrial (Uterine) Cancer
142
Epithelial tissues are the most common sites for cancers
Carcinomas
143
Occur in the mesodermal layers of tissue (bones, muscles)
Sarcomas
144
Develop in the lymphatic system—the infection-fighting region of the body—and metastasizes through the lymphatic system
Lymphomas
145
Cancer of the blood-forming parts of the body, particularly the bone marrow and spleen
Leukemia
