Final exam Flashcards

1
Q
Left heart failure will result in all of the following except:
A) pulmonary congestion
B) right failure
C) reduced cardiac output 
D) none of the above
A

D) none of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tachycardia describes an abnormally slow heart rate?
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cardiac shock is characterized by low cardiac output, low blood pressure,and low cardiac preload ?
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulants the release of \_\_\_\_\_\_ from juxtaglomerular cells .
A)aldosterone 
B) angiotensinogen 
C) renin
D) norepinephrine
A

C) renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Systolic failure is associated with a low cardiac output and low ejection fraction.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and Lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?
A) neurogenic 
B) cardiogenic 
C) anaphylactic 
D) septic
A

D) septic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most cases of heart failure are a consequence of coronary heart disease or systemic hypertension?
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock ?
A)cardiogenic 
B) septic
C) anaphylactic 
D) hypovolemic
A

C) anaphylactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) blood volume 
B) stroke volume 
C) preload 
D) after load
A

D) after load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is occurring in the ECG where episodes of tachycardia alternate with episodes of bradycardia ?
A) sinus arrhythmia
B) sinus are arrest
C) sick sinus syndrome

A

C) anaphylactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is due to?
A) high after load 
B) peripheral pooling of blood 
C) hypovolemia 
D) poor cardiac contractility
A

B) peripheral pooling of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
The common denominator in all forms of the heart failure. Is?
A) reduced cardiac output 
B) pulmonary edema 
C) tissue ischemia 
D) poor diastolic filling
A

A) reduced cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
First degree heart block is characterized by ?
A)absent  p waves 
B) prolonged pr waves
) variable pr wave 
D) widened QRS complex
A

B) prolonged pr waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All forms of shock are associated with inadequate tissue perfusion?
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of :
A) right side heart failure 
B) isolated left-sided heart failure 
C) peripheral vascular disease 
D) arterial obstruction
A

A) right side heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cardiac and hypovolemic shock can be different based on differences in cardiac preload.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Circulatory system primary function ?

A

Transportation of oxygen and nutrient and removal of metabolic waste products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ischemia

A

Lack of arterial blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hypoxia

A

Lack of oxygen to system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Common ventricular out flow in early embryonic heart
A) foramen ovale
B) septum primum
C) truncus arteriosis

A

truncus arteriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
Mitral regurgitation will lead to? 
A) left ventricular hypertension
B) left atrial dilation 
C) right ventricular failure 
D) all of the above
A

D) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
An example of an acyanotic heart defect is? 
A) tetralogy of fallot
B) transposition of the great vessels 
C) ventricular septal defect 
D)all right to left shunt defects
A

C) ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Restrictive cardiomyopathy clinically mimics which of the following?
A)pleural effusion
B) hypertensive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C)acute pericarditis
D) constructive pericarditis

A

D) constructive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
Classify the following arterial blood gas : PH = 7.19, PaCO2=49mm Hg , HCO3= 24 mEq/L
A)metabolic acidosis
B) respiratory alkalosis
C)  respiratory acidosis
D) metabolic alkalosis
A

C) respiratory acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
``` For a person with the following blood gas measurements , what would be a compensatory response: PH= 7.2, PaCO2=40mm Hg, HCO3=18mEq/L A) hyperventilating B) excretion of H+ C) excretion of bicarbonate 4) hypoventilation ```
A) hyperventilation
26
A patient with respiratory acidosis can compensate for the disorder by hyperventilating A) true B) false
B) false
27
Restrictive pericarditis is associated with : A) increase cardiac preload B) cardiac hypertrophy C impaired cardiac filing D) elevated myocardial oxygen consumption
C impaired cardiac filing
28
``` A student is nervous for a big exam and is breathing rapidly. Which of the following might occur? A) respiratory acidosis B) metabolic alkalosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) metabolic acidosis ```
C) respiratory alkalosis
29
``` Which of the following arterial blood gasses indicates a compensated respiratory acidosis A) PH 7.6 PACo2 60, HCO3 26 B) PH 7.4 PaCO2 40, HCO3 24 C) PH 7.36 , PaCO2 55,HCO3 30 D) PH 7.45, PACO3 40, HCO3 38 ```
C) PH 7.36 , PaCO2 55,HCO3 30
30
Inflammation of the inner Layer of the heart wall is termed endocarditis A)true B) False
A)true
31
Acute myocardial infraction and unstable angina are both acute coronary syndromes A) true B) false
A) true
32
Mitral valve stenosis may lead to right ventricular failure A) true B) false
A) true
33
If an infant had transposed Great arteries in conjunction with large VSD, which of the following is possible? A) normal blood flow through the circulatory system B) no mixing of blood between the pulmonary and systemic circuits C) the defects are not compatible with life D) only mild cyanosis due to mixing between circuits
D) only mild cyanosis due to mixing between circuits
34
If an infant has postductal coarctation of the aorta in conjunction with a patent ductus arteriosus , which of the following would occur? A) blood would shunt from the aorta into the pulmonary arteries B) blood would shunt from the pulmonary arteries into the aorta C) blood would shunt from the left atria to the right atria D) nothing normal circulation patterns would be in place
A) blood would shunt from the aorta into the pulmonary arteries
35
The enzyme that catalyze the conversion of carbonic acid into CO2 + H2O and vice Versa?
Carbonic anhydrase
36
A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO2 was 55 and PCO2 was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the ventruri mask. One hour later, after oxygen was placed , the nurse finds patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a code blue mad begins car. Explain why the patient stopped breathing.
In people who retain carbon dioxide because of pulmonary disease, arterial PCO2 is chronically elevated and chemoreceptors become unresponsive to the chemical stimulus. In such cases, declining PO2 levels act on the oxygen sensitive peripheral chemoreceptors and provide the principal respiratory stimulus, or so called hypoxia drive. Pure oxygen will stop a persons breathing, because his respiratory stimulus ( low PO2 levels ) would be removed.
37
``` All of the following are acyanotic congenital defects except A) patent ductus arteriosus B) truncus arteriosus C) ventricular septal defect D) arterial septal defect ```
B) truncus arteriosus
38
``` Two important renal buffers are? A) BUN and Creatinie B) NaHCO3 and hemoglobin C) NH3 and HPO4 D) CO2 and H2O ```
C) NH3 and HPO4
39
``` Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to? A) aortic stenosis B) pulmonary stenosis C) tricuspid stenosis D) aortic regurgitation. ```
B) pulmonary stenosis
40
Neutral PH for the human body?
7.4
41
The compensatory mechanism that are triggered following myocardial infarction? A) increase myocardial oxygen demands B) protect the heart from further. Ischemia C) reduced heart rate and blood pressure D) result from parasympathetic activation
A) increase myocardial oxygen demands
42
The number ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid in blood is 10:1 A) true B) false
B) false
43
Inflation of the inner heart layer is termed pericarditis ? A) true B) false
B) false
44
``` Causes of lactic acidosis include all of the following except? A) infections B) hypoxia C) acute myocardial infarction D) circulatory failure ```
A) infections
45
``` Which of the following are the result of aortic stenosis? A) decrease stroke volume B) decreased systolic blood pressure C) left ventricular hypertrophy D) all of they above ```
D) all of they above
46
``` Committing of stomach contents or continuos nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of? A) metabolic acidosis B) carbonic acid deficient C) carbonic acid excess D) metabolic acid deficit ```
D) metabolic acid deficit
47
Left to right shunts are classified as cyanotic congenital disorders A) true B) false
B) false
48
``` Stenosis of which valve would impair blood flow from left atrium to left ventricle A) pulmonary semilunar B) bicuspid C) aortic semilunar D) tricuspid ```
B) bicuspid
49
Loss of upper GI contents ( vomiting) may lead to metabolic acid excess, whereas loss of lower GI contents (diarrhea) may lead to metabolic acid deficit A) true B) false
B) false
50
Which of the following causes Eisenmenger syndrome with a VDS A) pulmonary vascular resistance exceeding systemic B) systolic pressure exceeding pulmonary C) systemic vascular resistance exceeding pulmonary D) systolic pressure exceeding system
A) pulmonary vascular resistance exceeding systemic
51
Most myocardial infarctions occur when an atherosclerotic plaque stimulates thrombus formation at the site? A) true B) false
A) true
52
Initially ventral septal defects produces ________ shunt A) r to L B) L to R
B) L to R
53
``` Pulsus paradoxus is classically found with: A) cardiac tamponade B) atherosclerosis C) chronic pericarditis D) mitral prolapse ```
A) cardiac tamponade
54
Which of the following is an accurate description of patent ductus arteriosus? A) a communication between the aorta and the pulmonary arter B) a structure of the aorta that impedes blood flow C) an opening between the artria D) a cyanotic heart defect associated with right to left shunt. G
A) a communication between the aorta and the pulmonary arter
55
Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of? A:) beta hemolytic streptococcal infection B)viral infection with herpes virus C) cardiomyopathy D) chronic intravenous drug abuse.
A:) beta hemolytic streptococcal infection
56
Coronary heart disease is also referred to as ischemic heart disease? A ) true B) false
A ) true
57
Although smoking has been linked to heart disease, it is no longer considered a major risk factor. A) true B) false
B) false
58
A person who chronically hypoventilates will have a higher than normal concentration of bicarbonate in the blood. A) true B) false
A) true
59
Truncus arteriosus is the term for the combined fetal atria A) true B) false
B) false
60
Decreased cardiac output, muffled heart sounds and equalized intracardiac pressures are manifestations of: a) myocardial infarction B) cardiomyopathy C) congestive heart failure D) cardiac tamponade
D) cardiac tamponade
61
The most common cause of coronary artery disease is coronary spasm. A) true B) false
B) false
62
``` Which of the following can be consequences of rheumatic heart disease A) mitral stenosis B) mitral regurgitation C) aortic stenosis D) all of the above ```
D) all of the above
63
``` Risk factors for atherosclerosis include : A) female gender B) low fiber diet C) higher protein diet D) hyperlipidemia ```
D) hyperlipidemia
64
``` Classify the following arterial blood gas : PH 7.5, PaCO2 =30 hCO3 = 24 mEq/l A) metabolic acidosis B) respiratory acidosis C) respiratory alkalosis D) metabolic alkalosis ```
C) respiratory alkalosis
65
Which side of the heart is first affected by cardiac tamponade A) left B) right
B) right
66
``` Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to: A) metabolic acidosis B) mixed acid- base disorders C) metabolic alkalosis D) respiratory acidosis ```
A) metabolic acidosis
67
``` A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by realist. The likely cause of this is A) myocardial infarction B) stable angina C) unstable angina D) coronary vasospasm ```
B) stable angina
68
An ASD located high in the atrial septum is termed a sinus venous defect A) true B) false
A) true
69
``` The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by: A) hypoventilation B) hyperventilation C) increasing bicarbonate ion excretion D) decreasing arterial carbon dioxide ```
A) hypoventilation
70
Widespread atelectasis, non cardiogenic pulmonary edema and fibrosis are characteristic of A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) B) asthma C) cor pulmonale D) acute respiratory distress syndromes ( ARDS)
D) acute respiratory distress syndromes ( ARDS)
71
Which of the following will decrease stroke volume, potentially leading to systolic heart failure? A) lower blood pressure B) decreased after load C) ventricular remodeling due to ischemia B) decreased preload.
C) ventricular remodeling due to ischemia
72
``` The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is A) tissue ischemia B) reduced cardiac output C) poor diastolic filing D) pulmonary edema ```
B) reduced cardiac output
73
Systolic failure is associated with a low ejection fraction A) true B) false
A) true
74
``` The most common cause of pulmonary embolism is A) anemia B) deep vein thrombosis C) atherosclerosis D) varicose veins ```
B) deep vein thrombosis
75
What arterial problem is illustrated in the following ECG
Atrial flutter
76
Cystic fibrosis is ? A) a restrictive disorder characterized by proteolytic destruction of alveoli B) autosomal recessive disorder affecting exocrine glands C) caused by chronic exposure to second hand smoke D) an allergic disorder triggered by specific antigens
B) autosomal recessive disorder affecting exocrine glands
77
``` A common cause of secondary hypertension is A) anemia B) renal disease C) myocardial infarction D) dissecting aneurysm ```
B) renal disease
78
Of the statements below, which best describes lymphedema A) pressure in lymphatic vessels due to thrombus formation B) accumulation of tissue fluid due to impairment of lymph circulation C) thickening of lymphatic vessels walls due to antherosclerosis D) accumulation of tissue fluid due to impairment of blood circulation.
B) accumulation of tissue fluid due to impairment of lymph circulation
79
``` Persistent abnormal dilation of bronchi ? A) epiglottis B) bronchiolitis C) larngotracheobronchitis D) bronchiectasis ```
D) bronchiectasis
80
Left side heart failure is characterized by: A) jugular vein distention B) peripheral edema C) decreased systemic vascular resistance D) pulmonary congestion
D) pulmonary congestion
81
A serious complication of a thromboembolus leaving the left atrium is a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) A) true B) false
A) true
82
``` Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is due to? A) hypovoemia B) poor cardiac contractility C)high after load D) peripheral pooling of blood ```
D) peripheral pooling of blood
83
``` Cardiogenic Shock is characterized by: A) hypovolemia B) reduced systemic vascular resistance C) reduced cardiac output D) elevated S vO2 ```
C) reduced cardiac output
84
What type of AV block is illustrated by ECG tracing ?
Second degree type 1
85
``` A patient with heart failure who complains of intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing? A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia B) sleep apnea C) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea D) Orthopnea ```
C) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
86
``` Left heart failure will result in all of the following except A) pulmonary congestion B) right heart failure C) reduced cardiac output D) none of the above ```
D) none of the above
87
Atrial natriuretic peptide A) stimulates the release of renin, adosterone and ADH B) decreases the glomerular filtration rate C) increases excretion of water and sodium by the kidney D) is released from the the atria in response to decreased preload
C) increases excretion of water and sodium by the kidney
88
``` Risk factors for hypertension most often alter: A) cardiac output B) potassium retention C) pressure natriuresis relationship D) heart rate ```
C) pressure natriuresis relationship
89
``` Which of the following is not a possible embolism cause? A) amniotic fluid B) bacteria C) air D) all of the above are possible causes ```
D) all of the above are possible causes
90
Asthma is caused by airway inflammation A) true B) false
A) true
91
The presence of a Ghon tubercle in a patients lung is indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome. A) true B) false
B) false
92
``` Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulates the release of _______ from juxtaglomerular cells A)aldosterone B) norepinephrine C) angiotensinogen D) renin ```
D) renin
93
``` Risk factors for hypertension include A) male gender B) smoking C) obesity D) all of the above ```
D) all of the above
94
``` Which of the following is not a possible cause of hypovolemic shock? A) hemorrhage B) burns C) emesis D) all of the above are possible causes ```
D) all of the above are possible causes
95
Raynaud syndrome and raynaud phenomenon have the same symptoms, but different causes A) true B) false
A) true
96
``` Term for subjective sensation of uncomfortable breathing A) tachypena B) dyspnea C) hemoptysis D) cyanosis ```
B) dyspnea
97
What problem characterized by lack of impulse initiation, is illustration in the ECG
Sinus arrest
98
A lack of surfactant, as occurs with URDS causes airway collapse and hyperinflation of alveolit. A) true B) false
B) false
99
``` A hypertensive patient is reluctant to adhere to the prescribed plan because he feels fine and doesn't like his diet. It can be explained to him that high blood pressure increases the risk of all of the following except A) renal disease B) stroke C) ischemic heart disease D) diabetes ```
D) diabetes
100
A venous thromboembolus is most likely to form ____ and lodge in the _______ . A) in the right ventricle, pulmonary circulation B) in the legs, pulmonary circulation C) in the right ventricle, carotid artery D) in the legs carotid artery
B) in the legs, pulmonary circulation
101
``` Which of the following is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction? A) purpura B) pain C) pallor D) pulselessness ```
A) purpura
102
Secondary chronic orthostatic hypotension can be caused by A) aortic stenosis B) endocrine disorders C) GI disorders D) secondary form has no known initial cause
B) endocrine disorders
103
Tachycardia describes an abnormally slow heart rate A) true B) false
B) false
104
All forms of shock are associated with inadequate tissue perfusion A) true B) false
A) true
105
``` Disorder characterized by hypersecretion of mucus and production cough that continues for at least 3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years A) emphysema B) asthma C) chronic bronchitis D) acute bronchitis ```
C) chronic bronchitis
106
``` After sitting in a chair for an hour an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequences of A) right sided heart failure B) isolated left sided heart failure C) arterial obstruction D) peripheral vascular disease ```
A) right sided heart failure
107
Cardiogenic shock is characterized by low cardiac output, low blood pressure , and low cardiac preload A) true B) false
B) false
108
An elderly patient's blood pressure is measured at 160/98. How would his left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure? A) high blood pressure will enhance left ventricular perfusion. During systole B) high pressure work will lead to left ventricular atrophy C) this is an expected blood pressure in the elderly and has little effect on left ventricular function. D) left ventricular workload is increased with after load.
D) left ventricular workload is increased with after load.
109
First degree heart block is characterized by A) widened QRS complex B) variable PR interval C) prolonged PR interval ) absent p waves
C) prolonged PR interval
110
``` What is occurring in the ECG where episodes of tachycardia alternate with episodes of bradycardia? A) sick sinus syndrome B) sinus arrest C) sinus arrhythmia D) a systole ```
A) sick sinus syndrome
111
Viral pneumonia is characterized by A) productive cough B) dry cough C) exudative consolidation D) significant ventilation perfusion. Imbalance
B) dry cough
112
``` All of the following changes occur during an acute asthma episode except A) hypersecretion of mucus B) bronchi constriction C) alveolar collapse D) bronchial mucosal edema ```
C) alveolar collapse
113
Second degree heart block type 1 (wenckenback) is characterized by A) no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes B) variable PR interval and dropped QRS complexes C) absent P wave D) constant PR interval and dropped QRS intervals
B) variable PR interval and dropped QRS complexes
114
``` A patient presenting with fever hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock? A) cardiogenic B) septic C) neurogenic D) anaphylactic ```
B) septic
115
``` Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation. And hypotension occurs with what type of shock. A) cardiogenic B) anaphylactic C) hypovolemic D) septic ```
B) anaphylactic
116
``` All of the following are possible causes of ARDS except A) pneumonia B) burns C) gas inhalation D) all of the above possible causes ```
D) all of the above possible causes
117
Right side heart failure usually is a consequence of A) congenital anomalies B) right ventricular infarction C) elevated right ventricular after load D) tricuspid valve defects
C) elevated right ventricular after load
118
``` High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases A) preload B) blood volume C) stroke volume D) after load ```
D) after load
119
What type of AV block is illustrated in the ECG
Second degree type 2
120
``` Copious, foul smelling respiratory secretions are generally associated with. A) pneumoconiosis B) emphysema C) pulmonary edema D) bronchiectasis ```
D) bronchiectasis
121
Wilms tumor is renal cancer that primary affects children. A) true B) false
A) true
122
``` The duct most commonly obstructed by gallstone ejection from the gallbladder is A) pancreatic duct B) hepatic duct C) common bike duct D) cystic duct ```
D) cystic duct
123
``` Polycystic kidney disease is A) genetically transmitted B) always rapidly fatal C) due to streptococcal infection. D) associated with supernumerary kidney ```
A) genetically transmitted
124
Alcohol abuse is the primary risk factor for chronic pancreatitis A) true B) false
A) true
125
``` A complication of liver disease that is directly attributable to portal hypertension is? A) jaundice B) gonadal hypofunction C) encephalopathy D) esophageal varices ```
D) esophageal varices
126
Crown disease and ulcerative colitis are two types of irritable bowel syndrome A) true B) false
B) false
127
The fibrosis leading to cirrhosis following alcohol abuse is primarily due to damage to hepatocytes A)true B) false
A)true
128
``` Common manifestation of peptic ulcer disease include. A) hematemesis B) diarrhea C) frank blood in the stool D) burning epigastric pain ```
D) burning epigastric pain
129
``` Seven year old L.E has developed acute glomerulonephritis following a strep throat infection. Fortunately, he was a healthy boy before this, so his physician and family are optimistic that he will make a full recovery L.E begins to have significant proteinuria, and a 24 hour urine collection Contains 4.0 g of protein LE has progressed to A) renal failure B) needing dialysis C) ATN D) nephrotic syndrome ```
D) nephrotic syndrome
130
The reversible stage of alcoholic liver disease is A) alcoholic cirrhosis B) fatty infiltration of the liver C) nodular regeneration of hepatocytes D) fibrotic scarring due to hepatocyte damage
B) fatty infiltration of the liver
131
``` Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to A) hepatitis vaccine B) blood or semen C) contaminated food D) feces ```
B) blood or semen
132
The manifestation of bowel obstruction are primarily related to A) edema impairing biliary secretion B) accumulation of Fluid and gas proximal to the obstruction C) death of intestinal bacteria D) decrease absorption of nutrients
B) accumulation of Fluid and gas proximal to the obstruction
133
``` What is the cause of primary biliary cirrhosis A) autoimmune reactions B) biliary atresia C) glomerulonephritis D) cystic duct obstruction. ```
A) autoimmune reactions
134
``` A congenital disease of the colon in which there are sufficient autonomic ganglia in the bowel resulting I contraction, but inadequate relaxation to move the fecal mass forward efficiently is called ? A) Celiac disease B) Hirschsprung disease C) short bowel syndrome D) irritable bowel syndrome ```
B) Hirschsprung disease
135
``` Which of the following forms of viral hepatitis is likely to be transmitted sexually? A) HAV B) HBV C) HEV D) all of the above ```
B) HBV
136
``` The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called? A) nephralgia B) nephronitis C) nephritic D) nephrotic ```
A) nephralgia
137
Cholelithiasis is present in most patients who have acute cholecystitis. A) true B) false
A) true
138
A deficiency of lipid digestion or absorption commonly results in A) constipation B) steatorrhea C) hyperlipidemia D) cholelithiasis
B) steatorrhea
139
``` Another name for jaundice is ? A) hemolysis B) icterus C) bilirubin D) hypobilirubinemia ```
B) icterus
140
The adult form of polycystic kidney disease is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder? A) true B) false
A) true
141
Polycystic renal disease A) is associated with impaired function of the gallbladder and pancreas in children B) is seen as small, atrophied kidneys on sonogram C) is very responsive to treatment and ultimately curable D) manifests with decreasing renal function, hypertension and flank psi. In adults.
D) manifests with decreasing renal function, hypertension and flank psi. In adults.
142
The compensatory mechanisms that are triggered following myocardial infarction. A) protect the heart from further ischemia B) result from parasympathetic activation C) increase myocardial oxygen demands D) reduced heart rate and blood pressure
C) increase myocardial oxygen demands
143
Term for unique combination of hypoglycemia in type 1 diabetic children.? A) diabetic ketoacidosis B) dawn phenomenon C) somogyi effect D) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non ketotic syndrome
C) somogyi effect
144
Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency? A) no change in serum glucocorticoid level. B) an increase in serum ACTH level C) an increase in serum glucocorticoid level D) a decreased in serum glucose level.
A) no change in serum glucocorticoid level.
145
The underlying pathogenic mechanism for both type 1 and type 2 diabetes is ? A) lack of insulin receptors B) impaired glucose transport into cells C) pancreatic beta cell destruction D) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
B) impaired glucose transport into cells
146
Prerenal acute renal failure occurs when kidney perfusion is impaired A) true B) false
A) true
147
Infectious cystitis is usually a consequence of bacterial invasion from the uretha. A) true B) False
A) true
148
Neurons do not require insulin for glucose entry into their cytoplasm A) true B) false
A) true
149
``` An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to A) hyponatremia B) a decrease I. Serum osmolarity C) hypervolemia D) dehydration ```
D) dehydration
150
What problems is a patient likely to experience during the end stage of renal failure A) proteinuria B) uremia C) polyuria and nocturia D) hematuria
B) uremia
151
The presence of a goon tubercle in a patients lung is indicative of scut respiratory distress syndrome A) true B) false
B) false