Final Exam Flashcards
(131 cards)
1
Q
What other past histories would suggest that a pt has CAD?
A
MI, angina, stents, angioplasty, CABG
2
Q
Cardiac risk factors (6)
A
- CAD
- HTN
- DM
- dyslipidemia
- smoking
- FHx of CAD
3
Q
How is CAD diagnosed?
A
Cardiac catheterization
4
Q
Two ways an MI can be diagnosed
A
- NSTEMI (Elevated Troponin)
* STEMI (EKG)
5
Q
Associated Sx of an MI other than CP?
A
SOB, diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting
6
Q
Associated Sx of CHF?
A
SOB, Orthopnea, PND, pedal edema, DOE
7
Q
What 2 studies would diagnose CHF?
A
CXR or elevated BNP
8
Q
What is A Fib?
A
Atrial fibrillation: electrical abnormality in the heart causing the top of the heart to quiver
9
Q
What might someone feel with A-fib?
A
Palpitations- fast, pounding, irregular heart beat
10
Q
How is an A-Fib diagnosed?
A
EKG
11
Q
What could be the CC of someone with a PE?
A
Pleuritic CP, SOB
12
Q
What study would diagnose a PE?
A
D-Dimer (cannot diagnose) , CTA chest w/ IV contrast, VQ scan
13
Q
Pneumothorax
A
Collapsed lung
14
Q
Common cause of PTX
A
Trauma
15
Q
How is a PTX diagnosed?
A
CXR
16
Q
What social history will most COPD have?
A
Smoking
17
Q
What is an inhaler?
A
Portable and gives a one time dose and provides a rapid release of medication
18
Q
What is a nebulizer?
A
Home machine that delivers continuous treatment over a period of time
19
Q
What is asthma?
A
Constricting of the airway due to inflammation and muscular contraction of the bronchioles. Reactive airway disease
20
Q
What PE finding closely associated with asthma?
A
Wheezing
21
Q
What is PNA?
A
Bacterial infection (infiltrates) and inflammation inside the lung
22
Q
What might a person with PNA complain of?
A
Productive cough and fever
23
Q
How is PNA diagnosed?
A
CXR
24
Q
Layman’s name for GERD
A
Heart burn or acid reflux
25
What might someone with GERD complain of?
Epigastric pain/burning
26
What else might we have to R/O for GERD?
MI
27
What does bile do?
Bile emulsifies the fats in foods
28
Where is bile stored?
Gallbladder but it is made in the liver
29
Cholelithiasis
Gallstones
30
Cholecystitis
Acute inflammation of the gallbladder
31
What might be the chief complaint of a person with gallstones?
RUQ abdominal pain
32
What PE finding is closely associated with cholecystitis?
Murphy's sign
33
How are gallstones diagnosed?
Abdominal US of the RUQ
34
Name associated symptoms of appendicitis
Fever, N/V, anorexia
35
What is the CC for appendicitis?
RLQ pain
36
How is appendicitis diagnosed?
CT A/P with PO contrast
37
What would someone with pancreatitis c/o?
LUQ and/or epigastric pain with N/V
38
How is pancreatitis diagnosed?
Elevated lipase
39
4 possible CC's for a GI bleed pt
Hematemesis (blood in vomit), hematochezia (bloody stool), coffee ground emesis, melena
40
How is a GI bleed diagnosed in the ED?
Heme positive stool (guaiac +), gastroccult
41
What are we worried about for someone w/ GI bleed?
Too much blood loss, anemia
42
What is the pre-existing condition you must have before you can get diverticulitis?
Diverticulosis
43
What will be the CC for someone with diverticulitis?
LLQ pain
44
What studies would diagnose diverticulitis?
CT A/P w/ PO contrast
45
What might a person with a SBO complain of?
Abd pain/bloating, vomiting, distension, no BM's
46
How is a SBO diagnosed?
CT A/P w/ PO contrast or AAS (acute abdominal series) X-Ray
47
What is Pyelo?
Pyelonephritis, kidney infection
48
CC of UTI
Dysuria, frequency, burning, hesitancy, malodorous urine
49
What pain would suggest Pyelo?
Flank pain, fever and dysuria
50
How is UTI diagnosed?
Urine dip or urinalysis (UA) showing white blood cells
51
What might a person with kidney stones c/o?
Flank pain, sudden onset, radiating to groin
52
How are kidney stones diagnosed?
CT A/P or RBC in UA
53
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
Tubal pregnancy, when a fertilized egg develops outside the uterus (usually in the Fallopian tube)
54
How is an ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?
US of the pelvis
55
What is an ovarian torsion?
Twisting of the ovarian artery, which reduces the blood flow to the ovary. Could result in infarct of the ovary.
56
How is ovarian torsion diagnosed?
US pelvis
57
Two types of strokes
Hemorrhagic CVA and ischemic CVA
58
What study would diagnose a brain bleed?
CT head or LP
59
How is an ischemic CVA diagnosed?
Clinically, potentially normal CT scan
60
What is a TIA?
Transient Ischemic attack. Temporary loss of blood supply to the brain. No permanent damage
61
Common cause of seizures in children
Fever
62
Name of the state after a seizure
Post-ictal
63
3 Sx of meningitis
Fever, neck pain/stiffness, HA
64
What study would diagnose meningitis?
LP
65
4 things to document for syncopal episodes/syncope?
How they felt before, during, after and how they currently feel
66
4 causes of AMS
Hypoglycemia, infection, intoxication, neurological
67
DVT
Deep vein thrombosis
68
Common signs of a DVT
Extremity pain, swelling (atraumatic)
69
AAA
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
70
Aortic dissection
Separation of the muscular wall from the membrane of the artery
71
3 Sx of cellulitis
Redness, swelling, pain to an area of the skin
72
Abcess
Cellulitis with flunctuance
73
Procedure for every abcess
I and D (incision and drainage)
74
Main concern with an allergic reaction
Anaphylaxis or respiratory failure
75
True allergic reaction
Rash, itching, swelling, SOB
76
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Atrial blood gas showing low pH or positive serum ketones
77
What is the ED physician main responsibility for psychiatric patients?
Medical clearance
78
3 things to document for any trauma pt
LOC, head injury, neck pain, back pain, numbness, weakness
79
What does MOI stand for?
Mechanism of injury
80
Three past surgical histories that indicate the pt has a history of CAD
Angioplasty, CABG, stents
81
Two types of stress test
Exercise (treadmill) stress test and nuclear (medication) stress test
82
Risk factors for PE
Known DVT, PMHx of DVT or PE, FHx of DVT or PE, recent surgery, CA, A-Fib, immobility, pregnancy, BCP, smoking
83
Risk factors for CVA
HTN, HLD, DM, Hx TIA/CVA, smoking, FHx CVA, A-Fib
84
PERRL
Pupils are equal round and reactive to light
85
AT/NC
Atraumatic/Normocephalic
86
NAD
No acute distress
87
What does pale conjunctiva indicate?
Anemia
88
Sclera icterus
Yellowing of the eyes. Indicates liver failure
89
TM erythema and bulging
Ears
90
Nostril
Naris
91
Runny nose
Rhinorrhea
92
What do dry mucous membranes indicate?
Dehydration
93
Which is worse, midline bony tenderness or paraspinal tenderness?
Bony tenderness because it points towards a spinal fracture
94
RRR
Regular rate and rhythm
95
What rhythm would the physician hear if the pt was in A-Fib
Irregularly irregular rhythm
96
Peritoneal signs
Guarding, rebound tenderness, rigidity
97
What abdominal sign is indicative of appendicitis?
McBurney's point tenderness
98
What would a "guaiac positive" stool sample diagnose?
GI bleed
99
What is bony tenderness a sign of?
Bone deformity, fracture, or injury
100
What is CVA tenderness?
Flank tenderness
101
Incision in the skin that typically need sutures
Laceration
102
DTR
Deep tendon reflex
103
Normal finger-nose-finger test
Cerebellar
104
Normal heel to shin
Coordination
105
Normal gait
Walking normally
106
Glascow coma scale
Trauma
107
TTP
Tender to Palpation
108
Hives
Urticaria
109
Swollen lymph nodes
Lymphadenopathy
110
What lab order contains the HandH?
CBC
111
BMP
Basic metabolic panel. Contains electrolytes, kidney function, and glucose levels
112
CMP
Comprehensive metabolic panel. BMP and LFTs (liver function tests)
113
What does creatinine measure?
Renal function
114
High potassium level
Hyperkalemia
115
High sodium level
Hypernatremia
116
Heart damage enzyme
Troponin
117
Negative D-Dimer
No evidence of PE
118
Positive D-Dimer
Possible PE
119
Elevated BNP diagnose equals...?
CHF
120
Blood sample for Atrial blood gas (ABG) comes from...?
Artery
121
Cardiac order set (4)
CBC, BMP, EKG, CXR
122
What do CRP and ESR test for?
Inflammation
123
Will blood cultures result during a patient's ED visit?
No
124
Three labs to track efficiency
Troponin, creatinine, D-Dimer
125
CTA
CT angiogram looks at the arteries (uses IV contrast)
126
CT
No IV contrast but may or may not use PO contrast
127
Types of orthopedic procedures that may be performed by the EP
Splinting, joint reduction, arthrocentesis
128
Procedures that qualify the patient for critical care
Cardioversion, central line placement, chest tube placement, endotracheal intubation
129
LAD
Left axis deviation
130
Redness
Erythema
131
Bruising
Ecchymosis
